Random Recalls Flashcards

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3
Q

patient,labs showing megaloblastic anemia,has numbness and parasthesia,difficulty
walking at night,she is not strict vegetarian…indicates deficiency of which vitamin?
options
folic acid, B12

A

B12

The symptoms of megaloblastic anemia, numbness, and paresthesia (tingling) along with difficulty in walking at night are characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12 plays a vital role in nerve cell health and in the synthesis of DNA and red blood cells. Megaloblastic anemia is also a common manifestation of B12 deficiency along with macrocytic erythrocytes. Folic acid deficiency can also result in megaloblastic anemia, but it typically does not present with numbness, tingling, or walking difficulties.

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4
Q

Positive vomiting with weight loss, sucction splash and abdominal distenstion
* Sbo
* Ca gastric

A

SBO (Small Bowel Obstruction)

The symptoms of positive vomiting with weight loss, succussion splash, and abdominal distension are classic findings in small bowel obstruction (SBO). SBO is a condition where intestinal contents cannot pass due to a physical blockage in the small intestine. The obstruction can be caused by various reasons like adhesions within the small bowel, hernias, bowel cancer or other tumors and Crohn’s disease. Cancer of the stomach may cause similar symptoms, but typically presents with signs of blood loss, such as melena (black tarry stools). However, given that the prompt causes in this scenario are suggestive of SBO.

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5
Q

15yr girl with 15 yr bf present with termination of pregnancy. If gp sent offer
to terminate, patient does not want to inform parents.
* Cpa
* Encourage to inform parents
* Terminate asap
Refer to another GP

A
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6
Q

Child runny nose, mother with domestic violence, brusing and admit abuse
* Cpa
* Inform police
* advice her for domestic for shelter

A

Inform police

In this scenario, the child has a runny nose, but the more concerning issue is the mother with domestic violence and bruises that admit abuse. As healthcare professionals, we have a legal and moral obligation to report any suspected cases of child or domestic abuse. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action in this scenario is to inform the police or child protection authorities immediately. In some cases, the healthcare professional may also need to provide emergency medical care or intervention to treat any immediate injuries or protect the patient’s safety. The healthcare professional can also provide support and advice to the patient regarding available resources for legal and social support, such as domestic violence shelters, counseling, or legal aid services. However, the most important first step is to ensure the safety and protection of the patient and report the suspected abuse.

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7
Q

7 yr not concentrating in school, lands in trouble having eye contact. Prefer to
play alone.
* Adhd
* Asd

A

ASD (Autism Spectrum Disorder)

The symptoms of not concentrating in school, trouble with eye contact, and preferring to play alone are characteristic of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Children with ASD often struggle with social communication and interaction, including difficulty with eye contact, which can affect their ability to make and maintain relationships. They may also have difficulty with attention and concentration, which can impact academic performance. ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder) is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention, which can negatively affect academic performance and social relationships. While there is some overlap in symptoms between ADHD and ASD, the child in this scenario does not exhibit any symptoms of hyperactivity or impulsivity, which are characteristic features of ADHD. Therefore, ASD is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

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8
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9
Q

10 months old paeds resp distress with vomiting
* Peanut———–look for choking.
* Cow’s milk

A

Cow’s milk

In a 10-month-old infant who presents with respiratory distress and vomiting, cow’s milk allergy is a more likely cause than peanut allergy. Cow’s milk allergy is a common food allergy among infants and young children, and it can cause respiratory symptoms like wheezing and coughing, as well as gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea. On the other hand, peanut allergy is less likely to cause respiratory symptoms.

However, it is important to consider the possibility of choking in any infant presenting with respiratory distress and vomiting. If choking is suspected, immediate intervention is required to clear the airway and prevent further respiratory distress.

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10
Q

4 yr old h/o urti
* Transient synovitis
* Perth, SCFE , Septic arthritis

A

Perthe’s Disease, SCFE (Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis), Septic Arthritis.

A history of upper respiratory tract infection in a 4-year-old child is not necessarily specific enough to pinpoint a specific orthopedic diagnosis. Therefore, making a definitive diagnosis based on this limited information would be challenging. However, joint pain or limited mobility may or may not accompany URIs in children.

Transient synovitis, also known as toxic synovitis, is a common benign condition characterized by inflammation of the hip joint, typically following a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection. Children with transient synovitis typically present with hip pain, limping, or difficulty walking, but the prognosis is generally favorable, and most cases resolve within a few weeks.

Perthe’s disease, SCFE (Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis) and septic arthritis are all orthopedic conditions that can cause hip pain in children, and these conditions require further evaluation through imaging and blood tests. However, there must be data on symptoms other than just URtI to suggest such conditions. If there is a suspected diagnosis, such as Perthe’s disease or septic arthritis, then further examinations and diagnosis are required to confirm the condition as these conditions require further attention and management

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11
Q

covid positive female old age Lungs whiteout Oxygen given .What next ?
Corticosteroids
Antibiotics
Antiviral

A

n a patient who is COVID-19 positive, has a lung whiteout on imaging, and requires oxygen, the next step in management may vary based on the clinical presentation of the patient. Here are potential options:

1) Corticosteroids: Current guidelines suggest that dexamethasone can be given in COVID-19 patients who require oxygen, as studies have shown that it may improve survival outcomes in severe cases. However, the decision to give corticosteroids should be individualized based on the clinical presentation of the patient and in consultation with a healthcare professional.

2) Antibiotics: Antibiotics should generally be avoided in COVID-19 patients unless there is a confirmed bacterial infection or other specific indication. COVID-19 is caused by a virus and antibiotics are not effective against viral infections.

3) Antiviral: Antiviral medications such as Remdesivir may be considered in COVID-19 patients who require oxygen or have severe disease, but the decision to use these medications should be based on clinical presentation and in consultation with a healthcare professional.

It’s important to emphasize that optimal management of COVID-19 patients is a complex issue and treatment will vary based on multiple factors. Treatment decisions should be made in consultation with the healthcare team that has the patient’s complete medical history and a full understanding of their clinical presentation.

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12
Q

11- 15 year old couple for abortion
Arrange abortion
Check competency for decision

A

Check competency for decision

In this scenario, the first step for the healthcare professional is to determine if the couple, particularly the young woman, is competent to make the decision to have an abortion. Laws regarding the age of consent for medical treatment vary across countries, but in most cases, individuals under the age of 18 require parental or legal guardian consent to undergo medical treatment. However, there may be exceptions for certain medical procedures, including abortion, which may be subject to different laws and regulations. It is important for the healthcare professional to understand the laws and regulations governing their practice and consult with appropriate legal and ethical guidelines to ensure that they comply with them.

In this scenario, if the young woman is found to be competent to make the decision for an abortion, the healthcare professional should arrange for and provide support throughout the procedure and post-procedure. If the woman is deemed not to be competent to make the decision or falls under the protection of certain laws, then consultation with an appropriate guardian is necessary. The healthcare professional must also provide support and counsel for the couple after the procedure, including advice on contraception and family planning to prevent unintended pregnancy in the future

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13
Q

12-girlfriend came to collect reports of his boyfriend
You can talk on phone and give it to me
Refuse to give
10-ca pancreas Diagnosis USG» CT

A

12-girlfriend came to collect reports of his boyfriend

In a scenario where a girlfriend comes to collect reports of her boyfriend, it is important to prioritize the privacy and confidentiality of the patient (the boyfriend). The healthcare professional should not disclose any medical information without the explicit consent of the patient, who has the right to privacy and control over their medical information. In this scenario, the healthcare professional could ask the girlfriend to have the boyfriend sign a release form to authorize her to collect his medical information or provide the reports directly to him. Alternatively, the healthcare professional could offer to call the boyfriend to request his permission to disclose the information directly to his girlfriend.

10-ca pancreas Diagnosis USG» CT

When diagnosing pancreatic cancer, a CT scan is considered the gold standard imaging modality. Although ultrasound (USG) can be used to assess the pancreas, it is not as sensitive or specific as a CT scan for detecting pancreatic cancer. Therefore, if pancreatic cancer is suspected based on symptoms or other diagnostic tests, a CT scan is usually recommended for a more accurate diagnosis.

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14
Q

17yrs female 1st antenatal visit , cervical
* Hpv swab
* Chlamydia urine pcr
* Cervical swab for hpv

A

Cervical swab for HPV

In a 17-year-old female’s first antenatal visit, the initial cervical screening test is recommended to detect any signs of cervical cancer. The most appropriate screening test in this case is a cervical swab for human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the primary cause of cervical cancer, and screening for HPV infection has become more widely used as a screening tool over the past few years. Additionally, a cervical swab allows for the detection of other potential infections, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, and bacterial vaginosis. However, since HPV is the primary cause of cervical cancer, it is the most essential screening test in this scenario. Once cervical swab results have been analyzed, it will guide the course of action for further investigations and treatments that may be required during the antenatal care.

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15
Q

Palpable liver, right abdominal pain , ct scan hyperechoic no jaundice
* Ca liver
* Cirrohosis
* Mets
* Cyst

A

Cyst

In a patient with a palpable liver, right abdominal pain, and a CT scan showing a hyperechoic lesion without jaundice, a cyst is a more likely cause than cancer, cirrhosis, or metastasis. A cyst is a benign fluid-filled sac that can develop in the liver and cause abdominal pain and a palpable mass. The CT scan may show a hyperechoic lesion or a fluid-filled area that is characteristic of a cyst. Cancer of the liver, cirrhosis, and metastasis to the liver are all potential causes of a palpable liver and abdominal pain, but these usually produce other symptoms such as jaundice, significant weight loss, and other organ involvement. A biopsy of the lesion may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis of the cyst.

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16
Q

36 yr old female coming to screening.she had GDM at 32 yrs bot it was
normal after delivery.what to screen
Fbs every 3 yrs
Ogtt every 2 yrs
Hba1c

A

Screening for glucose intolerance/diabetes in a 36-year old female with a history of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) requires consideration of several factors, such as the initial diagnosis, the postpartum tolerance, and the risk factors. Here are possible screening options:

  1. Fasting Blood Sugar (FBS) Every 3 Years: The most commonly recommended initial screening test is fasting blood sugar (FBS) every three years. However, FBS screening has a higher false-negative rate than other tests and may miss cases of glucose intolerance or diabetes.
  2. Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) Every 2 Years: Given the patient’s history of GDM, an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) may be recommended instead of FBS. Screening with OGTT every two years is the most sensitive method for detecting glucose intolerance/diabetes and is often used in women with a history of GDM.
  3. Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): HbA1c is a blood test that measures average blood sugar levels over the past three months. It has been increasingly used for diabetes screening, but as a sole diagnostic tool, it is not preferred as the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes.

So, in this case, the most appropriate screening test following GDM may be an OGTT or HbA1c. It is important to consult with the patient’s healthcare provider and individualize the screening plan based on her medical history, family history, and risk factors for developing glucose intolerance/diabetes.

Check again the guidelines for the DM

17
Q

35 yr old man with dysphagia for solids for 3 months.he has had
cardiomyotomy for achalasia previously.whats the probable cause
1esophageal cancer
2.laryngeal cancer
3.stricture of esophagus

A

Stricture of the esophagus

In a patient with a history of achalasia who presents with dysphagia for solids, the most likely cause of the symptoms is a stricture of the esophagus. Achalasia is a condition in which the muscles of the esophagus do not function correctly, leading to difficulty swallowing and other symptoms. Cardiomyotomy is a surgical procedure used to treat achalasia that involves cutting the muscles at the lower end of the esophagus to allow food to pass through more easily. However, scar tissue can subsequently develop, leading to narrowing or strictures in the esophagus, which can cause dysphagia for solids.

Esophageal cancer can also cause dysphagia symptoms, but it typically presents with other symptoms such as weight loss, chest pain, and reflux symptoms. Laryngeal cancer affects the voice box and typically causes hoarseness or chronic cough rather than dysphagia. Therefore, in this case, a stricture of the esophagus is a more probable cause.

18
Q

Women (has a lot of bad habit) and pregnant at 12 week, which of these is the
worst impact on fetal?
3 glass of beer daily
4 glass of wine daily.
use of cocain 3 times/week
use of marajuana every week
smoking 25 ciga everyday

A

All of the habits listed can have negative impacts on fetal development, and no amount of alcohol, cocaine, marijuana, or tobacco is considered safe during pregnancy. However, out of the choices provided, the worst impact on fetal development is likely to come from the following:

Use of cocaine 3 times per week

Cocaine is a potent stimulant that can pass through the placenta and affect fetal development. Cocaine use during pregnancy has been linked to a high risk of miscarriage, premature birth, low birth weight, and developmental delays. Additionally, cocaine use during pregnancy raises the risk of fetal abnormalities and other serious health problems, including an increased risk of heart issues. Therefore, the use of cocaine during pregnancy is particularly concerning and, if possible, the patient should seek professional help to stop the habit immediately for her safety and the safety of her baby.

19
Q

43 years old women came asking for screening as her grandfather died of
colorectal cancer (he is 83 yrs old). The patient had her iFOBT in the past but it
was normal, what do you do now?
iFOBT again
Colonscopy now
Colonoscopy at 5 years
come back if have any symptoms

A

Colonoscopy at 5 years

In a patient who presents with a family history of colorectal cancer and a normal iFOBT in the past, the current recommended screening modality is colonoscopy. A family history of colorectal cancer puts the individual at a higher risk of developing the disease and it is recommended to start screening at an earlier age. In this scenario, because the patient is over 40 years of age, she qualifies for colonoscopy. Since the previous iFOBT was normal, repeating the test may not be necessary as a colonoscopy is more sensitive and specific for detecting polyps and adenomas in the colon. The current recommended guideline is to perform a colonoscopy at 5 years intervals for those with a history of normal colonoscopy. Colonoscopy screening at 5 years interval helps detect precancerous polyps and colon cancer early, which can ultimately save lives. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action in this scenario would be to recommend the patient undergo a colonoscopy.

20
Q

Pt had vaginal delivery , previous one c/S , big baby sudden blood loss after the
removal of placenta
Diagnosis
Uterine rupture
Uterine Atony
Placenta previa
Placenta acreta

A

Uterine rupture

In a patient with a history of a previous cesarean delivery and sudden blood loss after the removal of placenta following vaginal delivery of a big baby, the most likely diagnosis is a uterine rupture. A uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication of childbirth in which there is a tear in the uterus that can lead to severe bleeding and may require an emergency cesarean delivery. The risk of uterine rupture increases in women with a previous history of a cesarean delivery, particularly if the previous delivery involved a classical incision on the uterus, also known as vertical incision.

Placenta previa, placenta accreta, and uterine atony are also potential causes of postpartum hemorrhage, but these usually present with different symptoms, such as vaginal bleeding that does not stop after childbirth or difficulty delivering the placenta. The sudden blood loss following placenta delivery is typical in a case of uterine rupture. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this scenario is a uterine rupture, and it requires prompt diagnosis and management to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.

21
Q

23/ Young child found left in vehicle in sunny day: tachycardia, tachypnea,
sweating a lot. Temperature at 41, how to cool her down?
Ice packs
Paracetamol
Salein
hospitalise
reassure

A

Hospitalize

In the scenario presented, the young child is experiencing hyperthermia (a body temperature of 41 Celsius or about 105.8 Fahrenheit) which can lead to heat stroke and severe complications if not managed promptly. It is critical that the child is hospitalized immediately for urgent medical care. The child is showing tachycardia (rapid heartbeat), sweating, tachypnea (rapid breathing), and other signs of heat stress.

22
Q

Young male patient came with continuously headache, tummy ache and skips
school. His father just got remarried. What next
Cognitive therapy
Behaviour therapy
Venlafaxine
TCA

A

In the absence of serious underlying medical conditions, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) might be a reasonable initial therapeutic intervention for addressing stress and anxiety concerns. CBT is a type of talk therapy that focuses on developing new ways of thinking, behaving, and coping with stressors or problems. It can help patients to reduce anxiety and negative thinking patterns, manage stress, and build better coping skills.

23
Q

Mother came with 6 year old child – never had any vaccination. His friend at
school had chicken pox, what to do next?
Serology test
Reassure
VCZ vaccine now
Immunglobin

A

Varicella vaccine (VCZ) administration now

In a 6-year-old child with no vaccination history, who had contact with a friend at school with chickenpox, the best next step would be to administer the varicella vaccine (VCZ) now. According to the recommended immunization schedule, the first dose of the varicella vaccine is usually given at 12-15 months, and a second dose is recommended at age 4-6 years. However, in cases where the child is not vaccinated and had contact with chickenpox, the vaccine can be administered within a few days after exposure to prevent infection or reduce the severity of the disease if it occurs.

Therefore, administration of the varicella vaccine (VCZ) as soon as possible would be the best course of action to reduce the likelihood of the child developing chickenpox. Immune globulin may be useful in some circumstances, but it is generally used as post-exposure prophylaxis in people who cannot receive the vaccine or who are at high risk of severe disease, such as those with weakened immune systems.

24
Q

Nurse with needle accident, had HBV vaccination as child but no recent test
or booster dose.
Patients results HBs (+), HBe (+),
What to do next while waiting for serology of the nurse?
Immoglobulin
Just wait for results
Test for HBC

A

In a nurse who has sustained a needle-stick injury with a patient who is HBsAg-positive with an HBeAg-positive result, the next step needs to be determined based on the nurse’s current immunization status. In this case, the nurse had HBV vaccination as a child, but there is no recent information about a booster dose or serology.

To address the acute exposure, the immediate administration of hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) should be provided as soon as possible after the exposure. This passive immunization can help prevent the establishment of a chronic HBV infection in the nurse after an exposure from a patient with high viral load.

25
Q

16/ Women history of ischemic myocardiopathy with EF 34%, came for
shortness of breath and increasing tiredness the last few weeks. BP 110/60; heart
rate 70 bpm.
Currently on Furosemide, ACEI, Aspirin. What do you add?
Digoxin
Carvedilol
Clopodogrel warfarin

A

Carvedilol

In a woman with a history of ischemic myocardiopathy and worsening symptoms of shortness of breath and increasing tiredness, the first step would be to perform a thorough medical evaluation to identify the cause(s) of her worsening symptoms. The current treatment regimen of Furosemide, ACE inhibitor, and aspirin is appropriate for treating ischemic myocardiopathy but may require modification or optimization based on current symptoms and assessment.

Carvedilol is a beta-blocker frequently used in the treatment of heart failure and ischemic heart disease. Beta-blockers are important in slowing down the heart rate, reducing the workload on the heart, and improving the heart’s pumping function. Based on the possible exacerbation of the patient’s heart disease, adding Carvedilol (under medical supervision) may help to reduce mortality and improve symptoms.

26
Q

women came for light headed, headache. On many drug Metformin, ACEI,
Verapamil, NSAIDS and Timolol for chronic glaucoma. Which drug interaction
causes that?
Verapamil + Timolol
NSAID + ACEI
Verapamil + ACEI
NSAID + Timolol

A

Verapamil + Timolol

Verapamil and Timolol both belong to different classes of medication but can interact together and cause additive negative effects on the heart rate and blood pressure. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can slow the heart rate and cause peripheral vasodilation, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Timolol is a beta-blocker that can also lower heart rate and blood pressure. Combining these two medications can result in excessive bradycardia (very slow heartbeat) and hypotension (low blood pressure), which can lead to symptoms like dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting

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