Supplemental Questions Part 2: Exam 2

Question 1

car seat restraints are an example of […] prevention

Answer 1

car seat restraints are an example of primary prevention

Question 2

[…] is early ID of illness with prompt intervention to prevent catastrophic effects

Answer 2

secondary prevention is early ID of illness with prompt intervention to prevent catastrophic effects

Question 3

vision screening is an example of […] prevention

Answer 3

vision screening is an example of secondary prevention

Question 4

[…] is after a disease has occurred, intent is to halt disease process and assist person in attaining optimal health status

Answer 4

tertiary prevention is after a disease has occurred, intent is to halt disease process and assist person in attaining optimal health status

Question 5

Alcoholics anonymous is an example of […] prevention

Answer 5

Alcoholics anonymous is an example of tertiary prevention

Question 6

what are the determinants of health? […]

Answer 6

what are the determinants of health? income, education, clean water, air quality, working conditions, gender, and lifestyle choices.

Question 7

Health protection activities refer to […]

Answer 7

Health protection activities refer to anything that protects the community at large such as air and water quality regulations.

Question 8

Health promotion activities and disease prevention activities […]

Answer 8

Health promotion activities and disease prevention activities One seeks to make individuals or communities feel better and live better, while the other works on preventing the impact of a disease on life.

Question 9

When working with patients the patient (ptcentered) is always the focus. We look at the patient as a whole (holism) andnot just one specific problem. We do not prescribe a plan, we negotiate with the patient to identify problems and goals and solutions. It is […] as we learn from the patient and they learn from us.

Answer 9

When working with patients the patient (ptcentered) is always the focus. We look at the patient as a whole (holism) andnot just one specific problem. We do not prescribe a plan, we negotiate with the patient to identify problems and goals and solutions. It is interactive as we learn from the patient and they learn from us.

Question 10

When working with patients the […] is always the focus. We look at the patient as […] andnot just one specific problem. We do not prescribe a plan, we […] with the patient to identify problems and goals and solutions. It is interactive as we learn from the patient and they learn from us.

Answer 10

When working with patients the patient (ptcentered) is always the focus. We look at the patient as a whole (holism) andnot just one specific problem. We do not prescribe a plan, we negotiate with the patient to identify problems and goals and solutions. It is interactive as we learn from the patient and they learn from us.

Question 11

qualities of a teaching-learning relationship: […]

Answer 11

qualities of a teaching-learning relationship: pt focused holisitc negotiation interactive

Question 12

‚Ä¢Factors that impact motivation […]

Answer 12

‚Ä¢Factors that impact motivation ∙Lack of social support ∙Anxiety ∙Fear ∙Shame -negative self concept

Question 13

Four components of Motivational Interviewing […]

Answer 13

Four components of Motivational Interviewing ∙Partnership ∙Acceptance ∙Compassion ∙Evocation

Question 14

what is important when figuring out why a pt isn’t following a treatment plan? […]

Answer 14

what is important when figuring out why a pt isn’t following a treatment plan? you must figure out their motivation

Question 15

behaviors that indicate low literacy level […]

Answer 15

behaviors that indicate low literacy level ∙Incomplete forms ∙Frequently missed appointments ∙Lack of follow-through with instructions ∙‚ÄúI am too tired to read‚Äù ∙Unable to name or explain medications

Question 16

which method of teaching is good to allow pt to express feelings/thoughts on a topic? […]

Answer 16

which method of teaching is good to allow pt to express feelings/thoughts on a topic? ∙Discussion and verbal teaching ∙Allow expression of feelings

Question 17

should you or should you not include family in pt educatoin? […]

Answer 17

should you or should you not include family in pt educatoin? if the patient is willing to include them you should!

Question 18

when would be best for pt education? ∙A) 30 minutes before a procedure ∙ ∙B) After visiting hours are finished ∙ ∙C) Right before the lunch tray arrives ∙ ∙D) After the patient has had a nap […]

Answer 18

when would be best for pt education? ∙A) 30 minutes before a procedure ∙ ∙B) After visiting hours are finished ∙ ∙C) Right before the lunch tray arrives ∙ ∙D) After the patient has had a nap D

Question 19

domains of learning cognitive ie lecture what type of learning sessions? short and specific purpose: learning concepts affective ie siumlation, role play purpose: deals with emotions or feelings what environment is best? warm and soothing environment psychomotor ie lab time purpose: […]

Answer 19

domains of learning cognitive ie lecture what type of learning sessions? short and specific purpose: learning concepts affective ie siumlation, role play purpose: deals with emotions or feelings what environment is best? warm and soothing environment psychomotor ie lab time purpose: demonstrate a skill or a task

Question 20

domains of learning cognitive ie lecture what type of learning sessions? short and specific purpose: learning concepts affective ie siumlation, role play purpose: […] what environment is best? […] psychomotor ie lab time purpose: demonstrate a skill or a task

Answer 20

domains of learning cognitive ie lecture what type of learning sessions? short and specific purpose: learning concepts affective ie siumlation, role play purpose: deals with emotions or feelings what environment is best? warm and soothing environment psychomotor ie lab time purpose: demonstrate a skill or a task

Question 21

domains of learning cognitive ie lecture what type of learning sessions? […] purpose: […] affective ie siumlation, role play purpose: deals with emotions or feelings what environment is best? warm and soothing environment psychomotor ie lab time purpose: demonstrate a skill or a task

Answer 21

domains of learning cognitive ie lecture what type of learning sessions? short and specific purpose: learning concepts affective ie siumlation, role play purpose: deals with emotions or feelings what environment is best? warm and soothing environment psychomotor ie lab time purpose: demonstrate a skill or a task

Question 22

PT Education Life Span Considerations ∙Newborn and Infant […] ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Still teach parents ∙Use play as a learning tool ∙Trust is important school age child and adolescent ∙Written material is introduced ∙School-age children like stickers and rewards ∙adolescent my want independence ∙Adult and older adult ∙Informal friendly environment ∙Older adult may have decreased motivation

Answer 22

PT Education Life Span Considerations ∙Newborn and Infant ∙Education is focused on the parent or caregiver ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Still teach parents ∙Use play as a learning tool ∙Trust is important school age child and adolescent ∙Written material is introduced ∙School-age children like stickers and rewards ∙adolescent my want independence ∙Adult and older adult ∙Informal friendly environment ∙Older adult may have decreased motivation

Question 23

PT Education Life Span Considerations ∙Newborn and Infant ∙Education is focused on the parent or caregiver ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Still teach parents ∙Use play as a learning tool ∙Trust is important school age child and adolescent […] ∙Adult and older adult ∙Informal friendly environment ∙Older adult may have decreased motivation

Answer 23

PT Education Life Span Considerations ∙Newborn and Infant ∙Education is focused on the parent or caregiver ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Still teach parents ∙Use play as a learning tool ∙Trust is important school age child and adolescent ∙Written material is introduced ∙School-age children like stickers and rewards ∙adolescent my want independence ∙Adult and older adult ∙Informal friendly environment ∙Older adult may have decreased motivation

Question 24

PT Education Life Span Considerations ∙Newborn and Infant ∙Education is focused on the parent or caregiver ∙Toddler and Preschooler […] school age child and adolescent ∙Written material is introduced ∙School-age children like stickers and rewards ∙adolescent my want independence ∙Adult and older adult ∙Informal friendly environment ∙Older adult may have decreased motivation

Answer 24

PT Education Life Span Considerations ∙Newborn and Infant ∙Education is focused on the parent or caregiver ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Still teach parents ∙Use play as a learning tool ∙Trust is important school age child and adolescent ∙Written material is introduced ∙School-age children like stickers and rewards ∙adolescent my want independence ∙Adult and older adult ∙Informal friendly environment ∙Older adult may have decreased motivation

Question 25

PT Education Life Span Considerations ∙Newborn and Infant ∙Education is focused on the parent or caregiver ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Still teach parents ∙Use play as a learning tool ∙Trust is important school age child and adolescent ∙Written material is introduced ∙School-age children like stickers and rewards ∙adolescent my want independence ∙Adult and older adult […]

Answer 25

PT Education Life Span Considerations ∙Newborn and Infant ∙Education is focused on the parent or caregiver ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Still teach parents ∙Use play as a learning tool ∙Trust is important school age child and adolescent ∙Written material is introduced ∙School-age children like stickers and rewards ∙adolescent my want independence ∙Adult and older adult ∙Informal friendly environment ∙Older adult may have decreased motivation

Question 26

tips for Teaching the Older Learner […]

Answer 26

tips for Teaching the Older Learner ∙Use a brightly-lit, glare-free room ∙Eliminate extraneous noise ∙Face the learner ∙Limit sessions to 20-30 minutes ∙Observe nonverbal language that shows confusion ∙Supply one idea at a time

Question 27

‚Ä¢The nurse is working with a client and plans to use an affective teaching approach. Which method would emphasize the affective domain? ∙A) Independent Study ∙B) Role-playing ∙C) Skill demonstration ∙D) Lecture […]

Answer 27

‚Ä¢The nurse is working with a client and plans to use an affective teaching approach. Which method would emphasize the affective domain? ∙A) Independent Study ∙B) Role-playing ∙C) Skill demonstration ∙D) Lecture b

Question 28

what is a reliable vegan source of vitamin b12? […]

Answer 28

what is a reliable vegan source of vitamin b12? sunflower margarine that is fortified with b12

Question 29

a nurse says “why do you need to know that” when a pt is asking what his medications are for and what are their side effects. what kind of non therapeutic response is this? […]

Answer 29

a nurse says “why do you need to know that” when a pt is asking what his medications are for and what are their side effects. what kind of non therapeutic response is this? asking for an explanation

Question 30

clear liquid vs full liquid diet […]

Answer 30

clear liquid vs full liquid diet clear liquid diet only allows liquids that you can see through

Question 31

what type of dressing is used on a stage 1 pressure ulcer? […]

Answer 31

what type of dressing is used on a stage 1 pressure ulcer? transparent dressings

Question 32

what type of dressings are used to remove necrotic tissue? […]

Answer 32

what type of dressings are used to remove necrotic tissue? wet to dry dressings

Question 33

moist vs dry wound healing, which heals faster? […]

Answer 33

moist vs dry wound healing, which heals faster? moist wounds heal much much faster than dry ones

Question 34

how to calculate oxygen concentration in a mask or cannula: […]

Answer 34

how to calculate oxygen concentration in a mask or cannula: add 4% to 20% for every liter/minute

Question 35

what’s the inspired oxygen concentration for a flow rate of 2 L/Min? […]

Answer 35

what’s the inspired oxygen concentration for a flow rate of 2 L/Min? 28 %

Question 36

what type of ointment should be applied to the nares of those on O2? […]

Answer 36

what type of ointment should be applied to the nares of those on O2? water based not petroleum based

Question 37

what irregular lab values are present in a pt experiencing anorexia or malnutrition over an extended period of time ?[…]

Answer 37

what irregular lab values are present in a pt experiencing anorexia or malnutrition over an extended period of time ?low albumin

Question 38

what enhances the body’s absorption of iron? […]

Answer 38

what enhances the body’s absorption of iron? vitamin C

Question 39

the pt has a o2 sat of 85%, what is your first action as a nurse? […]

Answer 39

the pt has a o2 sat of 85%, what is your first action as a nurse? raise the head of the bed!

Question 40

how frequently must prescriptions for restraints be renewed? […]

Answer 40

how frequently must prescriptions for restraints be renewed? every 24 rhs.

Question 41

how often should restraint checks and client status checks occur? […]

Answer 41

how often should restraint checks and client status checks occur? every 2 hrs

Question 42

where are acceptable places to attach a pulse oximeter? […]

Answer 42

where are acceptable places to attach a pulse oximeter? earlobe, toe, finger

Question 43

necrotic sub Q tissue is a manifestation of which stage of pressure ulcer? […]

Answer 43

necrotic sub Q tissue is a manifestation of which stage of pressure ulcer? stage III

Question 44

when completing an incident report about a pressure ulcer, the nurse should include which of the following? A what the nurse believes caused the ulcer B any statements made by the client about the ulcer C document in the clients med record that the incident report was done D question the charge nurse about the care deficits that resulted in the incident […]

Answer 44

when completing an incident report about a pressure ulcer, the nurse should include which of the following? A what the nurse believes caused the ulcer B any statements made by the client about the ulcer C document in the clients med record that the incident report was done D question the charge nurse about the care deficits that resulted in the incident B

Question 45

which of the following should the nurse do to promote independence while eating to a blind client place the clients hands on the tray describe the location of the tray to the client […]

Answer 45

which of the following should the nurse do to promote independence while eating to a blind client place the clients hands on the tray describe the location of the tray to the client describe the location of the tray. this promotes independence the most

Question 46

what is the ref range for ANC? […]

Answer 46

what is the ref range for ANC? 2500-8000

Question 47

can you take a rectal temp with a pt who is on neutropenic precautions and why? […]

Answer 47

can you take a rectal temp with a pt who is on neutropenic precautions and why? no! due to risk of bacteremia

Question 48

what vitamins do carbs help synthesize […]

Answer 48

what vitamins do carbs help synthesize ∙Synthesis of vitamin K and vitamin B12

Question 49

Blood glucose ranges ∙[…] fasting ∙140 to 180 mg/dL 2 hours after a meal ∙Elevated in? diabetes

Answer 49

Blood glucose ranges ∙60 to 80 mg/dL fasting ∙140 to 180 mg/dL 2 hours after a meal ∙Elevated in? diabetes

Question 50

Blood glucose ranges ∙60 to 80 mg/dL fasting ∙140 to 180 mg/dL 2 hours after a meal ∙Elevated in? […]

Answer 50

Blood glucose ranges ∙60 to 80 mg/dL fasting ∙140 to 180 mg/dL 2 hours after a meal ∙Elevated in? diabetes

Question 51

Blood glucose ranges ∙60 to 80 mg/dL fasting ∙[…] 2 hours after a meal ∙Elevated in? diabetes

Answer 51

Blood glucose ranges ∙60 to 80 mg/dL fasting ∙140 to 180 mg/dL 2 hours after a meal ∙Elevated in? diabetes

Question 52

functions facilitated by proteins: […]

Answer 52

functions facilitated by proteins: ∙Hemoglobin ∙ ∙Insulin ∙ ∙Albumin ∙Growth ∙ ∙Energy ∙ ∙Regulation of bodily functions ∙ ∙Replacement of cellular proteins ∙

Question 53

a positive nitrogen state means that […] a negative nitrogen state means that […]

Answer 53

a positive nitrogen state means that new tissue is being synthesized. a negative nitrogen state means that excretion is greater than intake due to disease, or immobility

Question 54

‚Ä¢Fish and vegetable sources contain predominantly what type of fat? […]

Answer 54

•Fish and vegetable sources contain predominantly what type of fat? unsat fat

Question 55

‚Ä¢Sources of animal fat, particularly beef and lamb contain predominantly what type of fat? […]

Answer 55

•Sources of animal fat, particularly beef and lamb contain predominantly what type of fat? sat fat

Question 56

‚Ä¢Fried and baked goods often have what type of fat? […]

Answer 56

•Fried and baked goods often have what type of fat? trans fats

Question 57

fat sol vitamins […]

Answer 57

fat sol vitamins ADEK

Question 58

Water soluble vitamins […]

Answer 58

Water soluble vitamins B complex and C

Question 59

minerals […]

Answer 59

minerals water, flouride, calcium, potassium, iodine, iron

Question 60

vitamin A functions: […] vitamin A deficiency leads to : SKIN AND EYE ISSUES ∙Night or total blindness ∙Keratinization ∙Follicular hyperkeratosis ∙Xerophthalmia ∙Inadequate tooth and bone development

Answer 60

vitamin A functions: ∙Normal vision in dim light ∙Healthy skin ∙skeletal and tooth development ∙Promotes cellular proliferation vitamin A deficiency leads to : SKIN AND EYE ISSUES ∙Night or total blindness ∙Keratinization ∙Follicular hyperkeratosis ∙Xerophthalmia ∙Inadequate tooth and bone development

Question 61

vitamin A functions: ∙Normal vision in dim light ∙Healthy skin ∙skeletal and tooth development ∙Promotes cellular proliferation vitamin A deficiency leads to : […]

Answer 61

vitamin A functions: ∙Normal vision in dim light ∙Healthy skin ∙skeletal and tooth development ∙Promotes cellular proliferation vitamin A deficiency leads to : SKIN AND EYE ISSUES ∙Night or total blindness ∙Keratinization ∙Follicular hyperkeratosis ∙Xerophthalmia ∙Inadequate tooth and bone development

Question 62

Vit D ∙Functions […] Deficiency: BONE FORMATION ISSUES ∙Rickets in children ∙Poor dental health ∙Tetany ∙Osteomalacia

Answer 62

Vit D ∙Functions ∙Absorption of calcium ∙Moving calcium and phosphorus from bone Deficiency: BONE FORMATION ISSUES ∙Rickets in children ∙Poor dental health ∙Tetany ∙Osteomalacia ricketstetany osteomalacia

Question 63

Vit D ∙Functions ∙Absorption of calcium ∙Moving calcium and phosphorus from bone Deficiency: […]

Answer 63

Vit D ∙Functions ∙Absorption of calcium ∙Moving calcium and phosphorus from bone Deficiency: BONE FORMATION ISSUES ∙Rickets in children ∙Poor dental health ∙Tetany ∙Osteomalacia ricketstetany osteomalacia

Question 64

‚Ä¢Vitamin E functions ∙Antioxidant ∙Protects vitamin A from oxidation ∙Deficiency causes […]

Answer 64

‚Ä¢Vitamin E functions ∙Antioxidant ∙Protects vitamin A from oxidation ∙Deficiency causes bad blood and poor reflexes ∙Increased hemolysis of red blood cells ∙Anemia ∙Poor reflexes

Question 65

‚Ä¢Vitamin E functions […] ∙Deficiency causes bad blood and poor reflexes ∙Increased hemolysis of red blood cells ∙Anemia ∙Poor reflexes

Answer 65

‚Ä¢Vitamin E functions ∙Antioxidant ∙Protects vitamin A from oxidation ∙Deficiency causes bad blood and poor reflexes ∙Increased hemolysis of red blood cells ∙Anemia ∙Poor reflexes

Question 66

‚Ä¢Vitamin K function […]‚Ä¢ ∙Deficiency causes […]

Answer 66

‚Ä¢Vitamin K function SUPER VIT K HERE TO STOP THE BLEED, STAT! ∙Formation of prothrombin and other clotting factors ∙ ∙Deficiency causes ∙Increased chance to hemorrhage

Question 67

‚Ä¢B1 (Thiamine) Function: […] Deficiency causes […]

Answer 67

•B1 (Thiamine) Function: Healthy nerve functioning Normal appetite and digestion Deficiency causes Beriberi Apathy, fatigue, constipation, cardiac failure, neuritis health nerve function beri beri digestive system

Question 68

‚Ä¢B3 (Niacin) ∙Tissue regeneration, glycogen metabolism ∙Deficiency causes […]

Answer 68

‚Ä¢B3 (Niacin) ∙Tissue regeneration, glycogen metabolism ∙Deficiency causes ∙Pellagra (the DDD)diarrhea dermatitis, dementia nic pellegra!

Question 69

B3 riboflavin: function: metabolism deficiency: […]

Answer 69

B3 riboflavin: function: metabolism deficiency: cheilosis, vision irregularities

Question 70

B9 (folic acid) function: metabolism, cell growth, RBC formation sources: dark leafy greens, fruits, nuts, meat, eggs, seafood, grains deficiency: […]

Answer 70

B9 (folic acid) function: metabolism, cell growth, RBC formation sources: dark leafy greens, fruits, nuts, meat, eggs, seafood, grains deficiency: glossitis ( tongue) , macrocytic anemia, birth defects

Question 71

B9 (folic acid) function: metabolism, cell growth, RBC formation sources: […] deficiency: glossitis ( tongue) , macrocytic anemia, birth defects

Answer 71

B9 (folic acid) function: metabolism, cell growth, RBC formation sources: dark leafy greens, fruits, nuts, meat, eggs, seafood, grains deficiency: glossitis ( tongue) , macrocytic anemia, birth defects

Question 72

B12 (Cyanocobalamin) ∙Functions include: ∙Formation of mature red blood cells and synthesis of RNA and DNA ∙Requires […] for absorption ∙ ∙Sources: ∙Found in meats, fish, poultry, milk, and eggs ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Deficiency causes: pernicious anemia and neurologic deterioration

Answer 72

B12 (Cyanocobalamin) ∙Functions include: ∙Formation of mature red blood cells and synthesis of RNA and DNA ∙Requires intrinsic factor for absorption ∙ ∙Sources: ∙Found in meats, fish, poultry, milk, and eggs ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Deficiency causes: pernicious anemia and neurologic deterioration

Question 73

B12 (Cyanocobalamin) ∙Functions include: ∙Formation of mature red blood cells and synthesis of RNA and DNA ∙Requires intrinsic factor for absorption ∙ ∙Sources: ∙Found in […] ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Deficiency causes: pernicious anemia and neurologic deterioration

Answer 73

B12 (Cyanocobalamin) ∙Functions include: ∙Formation of mature red blood cells and synthesis of RNA and DNA ∙Requires intrinsic factor for absorption ∙ ∙Sources: ∙Found in meats, fish, poultry, milk, and eggs ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Deficiency causes: pernicious anemia and neurologic deterioration

Question 74

B12 (Cyanocobalamin) ∙Functions include: ∙Formation of mature red blood cells and synthesis of RNA and DNA ∙Requires intrinsic factor for absorption ∙ ∙Sources: ∙Found in meats, fish, poultry, milk, and eggs ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Deficiency causes: […]

Answer 74

B12 (Cyanocobalamin) ∙Functions include: ∙Formation of mature red blood cells and synthesis of RNA and DNA ∙Requires intrinsic factor for absorption ∙ ∙Sources: ∙Found in meats, fish, poultry, milk, and eggs ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Deficiency causes: pernicious anemia and neurologic deterioration

Question 75

Vitamin C ∙Functions ∙Protection against infection ∙Adequate wound healing ∙Collagen formation ∙[…] absorption ∙Metabolism of amino acids ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Scurvy ∙Poor wound healing, increased susceptibility to infection, retardation of growth and development, joint pain anemia

Answer 75

Vitamin C ∙Functions ∙Protection against infection ∙Adequate wound healing ∙Collagen formation ∙Iron absorption ∙Metabolism of amino acids ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Scurvy ∙Poor wound healing, increased susceptibility to infection, retardation of growth and development, joint pain anemia

Question 76

Vitamin C ∙Functions ∙Protection against infection ∙Adequate wound healing ∙Collagen formation ∙Iron absorption ∙Metabolism of amino acids ∙Deficiency causes: […]

Answer 76

Vitamin C ∙Functions ∙Protection against infection ∙Adequate wound healing ∙Collagen formation ∙Iron absorption ∙Metabolism of amino acids ∙Deficiency causes: ∙Scurvy ∙Poor wound healing, increased susceptibility to infection, retardation of growth and development, joint pain anemia

Question 77

calcium Functions ∙Nerve impulse transmission ∙Contraction and relaxation of muscles‚Ä¢cardiac function ∙Converts prothrombin to thrombin ∙Regulation of materials in and out of the cell deficiency causes […]

Answer 77

calcium Functions ∙Nerve impulse transmission ∙Contraction and relaxation of muscles‚Ä¢cardiac function ∙Converts prothrombin to thrombin ∙Regulation of materials in and out of the cell deficiency causes ∙Ricket‚Äôs ∙Osteoporosis

Question 78

potassium nursing considerations: […]

Answer 78

potassium nursing considerations: potassium is restricted in patients with kidney issues because they can’t process it properly causing buildup in the blood

Question 79

sodium is restricted in patients with […]

Answer 79

sodium is restricted in patients with heart disease, hypertension, kidney and liver disease

Question 80

iron deficiency leads to what two conditions? […]

Answer 80

iron deficiency leads to what two conditions? anemia (fatigue, lethargy) AND poor resistance to infection

Question 81

iodine deficiency can lead to […]

Answer 81

iodine deficiency can lead to cretinism in children, a goiter in adults.

Question 82

thirst decreases in the […] population

Answer 82

thirst decreases in the elderly population

Question 83

‚Ä¢Mechanical Process of digestion: my dad’s car makes people evacuate their bowels […]

Answer 83

‚Ä¢Mechanical Process of digestion: my dad’s car makes people evacuate their bowels ∙Mastication ∙Deglutition (swallowing) ∙Churning (stomach to duodenum) ∙More churning (small intestine) ∙Peristalsis (moves to large intestine) ∙Stored until evacuation from the body

Question 84

‚Ä¢ ∙Enzymes break down substances into simpler components. What are these? […]

Answer 84

‚Ä¢ ∙Enzymes break down substances into simpler components. What are these? amino acids, FA and glycerol glucose/monosaccarides

Question 85

‚Ä¢What is absorbed into the bloodstream into the intestinal capillaries? […]

Answer 85

•What is absorbed into the bloodstream into the intestinal capillaries? proteins, sugars

Question 86

‚Ä¢What nutrient subunit is absorbed into the lymphatic system through the lymphatic capillaries in the intestinal villi? […]

Answer 86

•What nutrient subunit is absorbed into the lymphatic system through the lymphatic capillaries in the intestinal villi? fatty acids and glycerol

Question 87

‚Ä¢Carbohydrate ∙Short-term glucose storage: […] ∙Long-term glucose storage: adipose tissue ∙Not enough glucose: gluconeogenesis

Answer 87

‚Ä¢Carbohydrate ∙Short-term glucose storage: liver via glycogenesis ∙Long-term glucose storage: adipose tissue ∙Not enough glucose: gluconeogenesis

Question 88

‚Ä¢Carbohydrate ∙Short-term glucose storage: liver via glycogenesis ∙Long-term glucose storage: […] ∙Not enough glucose: gluconeogenesis

Answer 88

‚Ä¢Carbohydrate ∙Short-term glucose storage: liver via glycogenesis ∙Long-term glucose storage: adipose tissue ∙Not enough glucose: gluconeogenesis

Question 89

‚Ä¢Carbohydrate ∙Short-term glucose storage: liver via glycogenesis ∙Long-term glucose storage: adipose tissue ∙Not enough glucose: […]

Answer 89

‚Ä¢Carbohydrate ∙Short-term glucose storage: liver via glycogenesis ∙Long-term glucose storage: adipose tissue ∙Not enough glucose: gluconeogenesis

Question 90

‚Ä¢Protein ∙Anabolism builds up tissues, antibodies, red blood cells, and tissue repair ∙Excess stored in […]

Answer 90

‚Ä¢Protein ∙Anabolism builds up tissues, antibodies, red blood cells, and tissue repair ∙Excess stored in liver or converted to fat

Question 91

‚Ä¢What is excreted through the lungs? […] ∙What is excreted through the kidneys, skin, and sweat glands? […]

Answer 91

‚Ä¢What is excreted through the lungs? CO2 and WATER ∙What is excreted through the kidneys, skin, and sweat glands? water, toxins, salts, nitrogen wastes

Question 92

what discipline helps with swallowing difficulties ? […]

Answer 92

what discipline helps with swallowing difficulties ? speech therapy

Question 93

‚Ä¢What lab values can reflect iron level (besides iron or ferritin)? […]

Answer 93

•What lab values can reflect iron level (besides iron or ferritin)? hemoglobin, transferrin (measures bound iron)

Question 94

what lab value reflects the kidneys ability to excrete waste? […]

Answer 94

what lab value reflects the kidneys ability to excrete waste? creatinine

Question 95

labs used to determine protein levels are […] the more senstive one is prealbumin

Answer 95

labs used to determine protein levels are ablumin and pre albumin the more senstive one is prealbumin

Question 96

labs used to determine protein levels are ablumin and pre albumin the more senstive one is […]

Answer 96

labs used to determine protein levels are ablumin and pre albumin the more senstive one is prealbumin

Question 97

enteral feeding tubes: ∙Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy, what is it? : […]

Answer 97

enteral feeding tubes: ∙Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy, what is it? : PEG tube goes directly into stomach

Question 98

what position should the bed be in during feeding? […]

Answer 98

what position should the bed be in during feeding? the head of the bed should be elevated to 45 degrees

Question 99

‚Ä¢Gastric Residual Volume how to check? […] meaning? ∙Volume in stomach not digested ∙Too much could mean holding the tube feeding

Answer 99

‚Ä¢Gastric Residual Volume how to check? aspirate with a syringe meaning? ∙Volume in stomach not digested ∙Too much could mean holding the tube feeding

Question 100

‚Ä¢Gastric Residual Volume how to check? aspirate with a syringe meaning? […]

Answer 100

‚Ä¢Gastric Residual Volume how to check? aspirate with a syringe meaning? ∙Volume in stomach not digested ∙Too much could mean holding the tube feeding

Question 101

how do you check if the naso gastric tube is in the stomach? […]

Answer 101

how do you check if the naso gastric tube is in the stomach? by documenting the length and/or confirming the length with an X-Ray.

Question 102

what should the temp of the food be for NG tube? […]

Answer 102

what should the temp of the food be for NG tube? room temp

Question 103

how often should you flush NG tube with water? […]

Answer 103

how often should you flush NG tube with water? every 4-6 hours

Question 104

Expected Sleeping Trends ∙Duration ∙7-9 hours ∙1/3 average how many hours: 6 or less ∙Latency ∙Average is […] ∙What if its less than 5? […] ∙What if its 30 or more? […]

Answer 104

Expected Sleeping Trends ∙Duration ∙7-9 hours ∙1/3 average how many hours: 6 or less ∙Latency ∙Average is 10 minutes ∙What if its less than 5? deprivation ∙What if its 30 or more? insomnia

Question 105

Expected Sleeping Trends ∙Duration […] ∙1/3 average how many hours: […] ∙Latency ∙Average is 10 minutes ∙What if its less than 5? deprivation ∙What if its 30 or more? insomnia

Answer 105

Expected Sleeping Trends ∙Duration ∙7-9 hours ∙1/3 average how many hours: 6 or less ∙Latency ∙Average is 10 minutes ∙What if its less than 5? deprivation ∙What if its 30 or more? insomnia

Question 106

what hormones are affected by sleep? […]

Answer 106

what hormones are affected by sleep? HGH Cortisol Melatonin

Question 107

‚Ä¢Newborn and Infants ∙Average sleep time is […] ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Average sleep time (increases or decreases?) decreases from being an infant

Answer 107

‚Ä¢Newborn and Infants ∙Average sleep time is 13 hours ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Average sleep time (increases or decreases?) decreases from being an infant

Question 108

‚Ä¢Newborn and Infants ∙Average sleep time is 13 hours ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Average sleep time (increases or decreases?) […]

Answer 108

‚Ä¢Newborn and Infants ∙Average sleep time is 13 hours ∙Toddler and Preschooler ∙Average sleep time (increases or decreases?) decreases from being an infant

Question 109

‚Ä¢School-age/adolescent […]

Answer 109

‚Ä¢School-age/adolescent ∙Average/need 9 hours of sleep

Question 110

older adults and sleep ∙Increased sleep latency and time in bed ∙Sleep-problems related to […]

Answer 110

older adults and sleep ∙Increased sleep latency and time in bed ∙Sleep-problems related to medical issues

Question 111

older adults and sleep ∙Increased […] ∙Sleep-problems related to medical issues

Answer 111

older adults and sleep ∙Increased sleep latency and time in bed ∙Sleep-problems related to medical issues

Question 112

environmental impacts on sleep […]

Answer 112

environmental impacts on sleep noise light temperature relationships

Question 113

how to avoid GERD during sleep […]

Answer 113

how to avoid GERD during sleep raise head of bed, avoid eating within 3 hours of sleeptime

Question 114

how to avoid nocturia […]

Answer 114

how to avoid nocturia dont drink too much before going to bed

Question 115

benzodiazepines and sleep […]

Answer 115

benzodiazepines and sleep sedation is not the same as sleep. you dont go through the latency stages of sleep as well.

Question 116

treatments for insomnia […]

Answer 116

treatments for insomnia CBT, meds

Question 117

Obstructive Sleep Apnea ∙What is apnea? ∙Absence of breathing ∙ ∙What is hypopnea? ∙Shallow breathing ∙ How does apnea affect sleep? ∙Frequent awakening ∙Decreased REM sleep symptoms of sleep apnea ∙Excessive daytime sleepiness ∙Partner may report excess snoring consequences of sleep apnea […]

Answer 117

Obstructive Sleep Apnea ∙What is apnea? ∙Absence of breathing ∙ ∙What is hypopnea? ∙Shallow breathing ∙ How does apnea affect sleep? ∙Frequent awakening ∙Decreased REM sleep symptoms of sleep apnea ∙Excessive daytime sleepiness ∙Partner may report excess snoring consequences of sleep apnea ∙Hypertension ∙Increased risk of stroke ∙Impaired concentration

Question 118

Obstructive Sleep Apnea ∙What is apnea? […]‚Ä¢ ∙What is hypopnea? […]‚Ä¢ How does apnea affect sleep? […] symptoms of sleep apnea ∙Excessive daytime sleepiness ∙Partner may report excess snoring consequences of sleep apnea ∙Hypertension ∙Increased risk of stroke ∙Impaired concentration

Answer 118

Obstructive Sleep Apnea ∙What is apnea? ∙Absence of breathing ∙ ∙What is hypopnea? ∙Shallow breathing ∙ How does apnea affect sleep? ∙Frequent awakening ∙Decreased REM sleep symptoms of sleep apnea ∙Excessive daytime sleepiness ∙Partner may report excess snoring consequences of sleep apnea ∙Hypertension ∙Increased risk of stroke ∙Impaired concentration

Question 119

Obstructive Sleep Apnea ∙What is apnea? ∙Absence of breathing ∙ ∙What is hypopnea? ∙Shallow breathing ∙ How does apnea affect sleep? ∙Frequent awakening ∙Decreased REM sleep symptoms of sleep apnea […] consequences of sleep apnea ∙Hypertension ∙Increased risk of stroke ∙Impaired concentration

Answer 119

Obstructive Sleep Apnea ∙What is apnea? ∙Absence of breathing ∙ ∙What is hypopnea? ∙Shallow breathing ∙ How does apnea affect sleep? ∙Frequent awakening ∙Decreased REM sleep symptoms of sleep apnea ∙Excessive daytime sleepiness ∙Partner may report excess snoring consequences of sleep apnea ∙Hypertension ∙Increased risk of stroke ∙Impaired concentration

Question 120

Narcolepsy what type of disorder? […] ∙Experience REM within […] ∙[…] 70% experience this as well

Answer 120

Narcolepsy what type of disorder? ∙Autoimmune neurologic disorder ∙Experience REM within 20 minutes of falling asleep ∙Cataplexy (profound muscle weakness) 70% experience this as well

Question 121

RLS restless leg syndrome: […] 2. Intensified by[…] ∙PLMD Periodic limb movement disorder what is it? ∙Repetitive dorsiflexion of foot and flexion of knee during sleep ∙ how to treat? ∙Medication is cornerstone of therapy

Answer 121

RLS restless leg syndrome: 1. Unpleasant sensation in the legs that makes you want to move them. 2. Intensified by inactivity and abnormal iron levels ∙PLMD Periodic limb movement disorder what is it? ∙Repetitive dorsiflexion of foot and flexion of knee during sleep ∙ how to treat? ∙Medication is cornerstone of therapy

Question 122

RLS restless leg syndrome: 1. Unpleasant sensation in the legs that makes you want to move them. 2. Intensified by inactivity and abnormal iron levels ∙PLMD Periodic limb movement disorder what is it? ∙Repetitive dorsiflexion of foot and flexion of knee during sleep ∙ how to treat? […]

Answer 122

RLS restless leg syndrome: 1. Unpleasant sensation in the legs that makes you want to move them. 2. Intensified by inactivity and abnormal iron levels ∙PLMD Periodic limb movement disorder what is it? ∙Repetitive dorsiflexion of foot and flexion of knee during sleep ∙ how to treat? ∙Medication is cornerstone of therapy

Question 123

RLS restless leg syndrome: 1. Unpleasant sensation in the legs that makes you want to move them. 2. Intensified by inactivity and abnormal iron levels ∙PLMD Periodic limb movement disorder what is it? […]‚Ä¢ how to treat? ∙Medication is cornerstone of therapy

Answer 123

RLS restless leg syndrome: 1. Unpleasant sensation in the legs that makes you want to move them. 2. Intensified by inactivity and abnormal iron levels ∙PLMD Periodic limb movement disorder what is it? ∙Repetitive dorsiflexion of foot and flexion of knee during sleep ∙ how to treat? ∙Medication is cornerstone of therapy

Question 124

BEARS sleep assessment […]

Answer 124

BEARS sleep assessment bedTime? excessive fatige? awakenings? regulartiy and duration? snoring?

Question 125

6 phases of nursing process […]

Answer 125

6 phases of nursing process assessment diagnosis planning implementation evaluation ADPIE!!

Question 126

Assessment […] primary source patient secondary source: family of patient, lab test

Answer 126

Assessment collection of data primary source patient secondary source: family of patient, lab test

Question 127

Assessment collection of data primary source[…] secondary source: […]

Answer 127

Assessment collection of data primary source patient secondary source: family of patient, lab test

Question 128

TEST QUESTION !!! Subjective vs Objective Data: signs and symptoms? Subjective : […] Objective […] method of obtaining data subjective: inteview objective: everything not coming from interview! inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation, lab test, heatlh record, diagnostic test examples of sujective data : symptoms, values, feelings attitudes, sensations, beliefs

Answer 128

TEST QUESTION !!! Subjective vs Objective Data: signs and symptoms? Subjective : symptoms Objective signs method of obtaining data subjective: inteview objective: everything not coming from interview! inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation, lab test, heatlh record, diagnostic test examples of sujective data : symptoms, values, feelings attitudes, sensations, beliefs

Question 129

TEST QUESTION !!! Subjective vs Objective Data: signs and symptoms? Subjective : symptoms Objective signs method of obtaining data subjective: […] objective: […] examples of sujective data : symptoms, values, feelings attitudes, sensations, beliefs

Answer 129

TEST QUESTION !!! Subjective vs Objective Data: signs and symptoms? Subjective : symptoms Objective signs method of obtaining data subjective: inteview objective: everything not coming from interview! inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation, lab test, heatlh record, diagnostic test examples of sujective data : symptoms, values, feelings attitudes, sensations, beliefs

Question 130

TEST QUESTION !!! Subjective vs Objective Data: signs and symptoms? Subjective : symptoms Objective signs method of obtaining data subjective: inteview objective: everything not coming from interview! inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation, lab test, heatlh record, diagnostic test examples of sujective data : […]

Answer 130

TEST QUESTION !!! Subjective vs Objective Data: signs and symptoms? Subjective : symptoms Objective signs method of obtaining data subjective: inteview objective: everything not coming from interview! inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation, lab test, heatlh record, diagnostic test examples of sujective data : symptoms, values, feelings attitudes, sensations, beliefs

Question 131

phases of assessment prepatory phase: […] ∙Introductory Phase […] ∙Maintenance Phase […] Concluding Phase […]

Answer 131

phases of assessment prepatory phase: setting the environment and gathering info ∙Introductory Phase ∙who you are ∙What you are doing ∙How long ∙Maintenance Phase ∙Facilitate dialogue ∙Evaluate when its appropriate to move to next topic Concluding Phase ∙Review goal ∙Summarize highlights

Question 132

what is a nursing diagnosis? […]

Answer 132

what is a nursing diagnosis? a human response to an actual or potential healthcare problem

Question 133

examples of diagnostic labels? […]

Answer 133

examples of diagnostic labels? knowledge deficiency risk for infection impaired urinary elimination

Question 134

2 types of nursing diagnoses: Actual nursing diagnoses: […] risk nursing diagnoses risk for ______ related to _____(risk factors

Answer 134

2 types of nursing diagnoses: Actual nursing diagnoses: (Diagnostic lable) ______related to _______(etiology/related factors) as evidenced by________ (signs and symptoms) risk nursing diagnoses risk for ______ related to _____(risk factors

Question 135

how to prioritize outcomes/goals : […]

Answer 135

how to prioritize outcomes/goals : life threatening? number of interventions how easy is it evaluated

Question 136

‚Ä¢Implementation focuses on […]

Answer 136

•Implementation focuses on what the nurse will do and documentation

Question 137

what are the 5 principles of delegation? […]

Answer 137

what are the 5 principles of delegation? right person, right task right communication right circumstance (pt should be stable) right evaluation(making sure it was done)

Question 138

What tasks can’t be delegated? (4) […]

Answer 138

What tasks can’t be delegated? (4) ∙ Clinical judgment ∙Assessment ∙Patient teaching ∙Evaluation CAPE

Question 139

obtaining information from a client is from what phase in the nurse patient relationship? […]

Answer 139

obtaining information from a client is from what phase in the nurse patient relationship? the orientation phase

Question 140

how often should restraints be released and repositioned? […]

Answer 140

how often should restraints be released and repositioned? every 2 hr or per facility policy

Question 141

if acid is elevated, what happens to RR? […]

Answer 141

if acid is elevated, what happens to RR? increase

Question 142

‚Ä¢What moves from the alveoli to the pulmonary artery? […]

Answer 142

•What moves from the alveoli to the pulmonary artery? oxygen

Question 143

what moves from the pulmonary artery to the avleoli?[…]

Answer 143

what moves from the pulmonary artery to the avleoli?carbon dioxide

Question 144

lifestyle habits that affect respiratory function […]

Answer 144

lifestyle habits that affect respiratory function smoking ∙Increases risk of cancer, heart disease, and chronic respiratory conditions ∙Drugs and alcohol ∙Alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines decrease respirations and dulls the reflexes that protect the lungs from aspiration ∙Nutrition both too little and too much

Question 145

What prevents oxygen movement from alveoli to pulmonary artery […]

Answer 145

What prevents oxygen movement from alveoli to pulmonary artery ∙Restricted lung movement ie atelectasis ∙Airway obstruction

Question 146

atelectasis: […]

Answer 146

atelectasis: alveolar collapse

Question 147

what is normal sputum? […]

Answer 147

what is normal sputum? trick question, sputum is not a normal finding

Question 148

what happens with RR as we age? […]

Answer 148

what happens with RR as we age? they decrease from birth to adult hood then increase again in old age

Question 149

what skin color is indicative of cyanosis? […]

Answer 149

what skin color is indicative of cyanosis? bluish tint or ashen gray

Question 150

COPD pt chest shape[…]

Answer 150

COPD pt chest shapebarrel chested

Question 151

‚Ä¢Fluid in the lung gives a […] on percussion

Answer 151

•Fluid in the lung gives a dull sound on percussion

Question 152

‚Ä¢[…] increases with consolidation

Answer 152

•Tactile fremitus(aka chest wall vibrations) increases with consolidation

Question 153

[…] decerases with pleural effusion(collection of fluid between chest wall and lungs)

Answer 153

tactile fremitus decerases with pleural effusion(collection of fluid between chest wall and lungs)

Question 154

tactile fremitus […] with pleural effusion(collection of fluid between chest wall and lungs)

Answer 154

tactile fremitus decerases with pleural effusion(collection of fluid between chest wall and lungs)

Question 155

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? […] associated with? […] wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Answer 155

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Question 156

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? […] associated with? […] wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Answer 156

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Question 157

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? […] associated with: […] pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Answer 157

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Question 158

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? […] associated with? […] coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Answer 158

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Question 159

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: […]

Answer 159

lung sounds fine crackles (fine rales) when heard? inspiration, late or early. associated with? if late : pneumonia, CHF if early: asthma, bronchitis, emphysema coarse Crackels (coarse rales) when? inspiration associated with? pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis wheeze(sonorous)/ronchi/gurgles when? exhalation associated with? bronchitis, single bronchus obstructions wheeze (sibilant) when heard? inhalation and exhalation associated with: acute asthma or chronic emphysema pleural friction rub: associated with: pleuritis

Question 160

6 Factors that impact accuracy of pulse oximeter […]

Answer 160

6 Factors that impact accuracy of pulse oximeter ∙Patient movement ∙Clear nails ∙Edema ∙Adequate peripheral blood flow ∙Anemia ∙Carbon monoxide poisoning

Question 161

‚Ä¢Goal for normal patients is >95% ∙For COPD the target range is […]

Answer 161

‚Ä¢Goal for normal patients is >95% ∙For COPD the target range is 88-92%.

Question 162

‚Ä¢Goal for normal patients is […] ∙For COPD the target range is 88-92%.

Answer 162

‚Ä¢Goal for normal patients is >95% ∙For COPD the target range is 88-92%.

Question 163

End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Monitoring attached to […]indicative of […] use? anyone whose breathing are at risk of being slowed or altered

Answer 163

End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Monitoring attached to nasal cannula,indicative of iimmediate breathing, measures co2 exhaled. use? anyone whose breathing are at risk of being slowed or altered

Question 164

End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Monitoring attached to nasal cannula,indicative of iimmediate breathing, measures co2 exhaled. use? […]

Answer 164

End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Monitoring attached to nasal cannula,indicative of iimmediate breathing, measures co2 exhaled. use? anyone whose breathing are at risk of being slowed or altered

Question 165

‚Ä¢Bronchoscopy purpose: […]

Answer 165

‚Ä¢Bronchoscopy purpose: ∙Visualize trachea and bronchi ∙Removed foreign objects or mucus ∙Obtain sputum sample

Question 166

PULMONARY FUNCTION TESTS ∙Tidal Volume […] ∙Vital capacity […] ∙Forced expiratory volume in 1 second […]

Answer 166

PULMONARY FUNCTION TESTS ∙Tidal Volume Volume of air inhaled and exhaled in a normal breath ∙Vital capacity Volume of air exhaled after taking the deepest possible breath ∙Forced expiratory volume in 1 second Volume of air forcibly exhaled in 1 second after taking the deepest possible breath

Question 167

Arterial Blood Gas ∙Accurate assessment of oxygen, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate, and pH ∙Determines the effectiveness of lungs in […]

Answer 167

Arterial Blood Gas ∙Accurate assessment of oxygen, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate, and pH ∙Determines the effectiveness of lungs in removing carbon dioxide

Question 168

Arterial Blood Gas ∙Accurate assessment of […] ∙Determines the effectiveness of lungs in removing carbon dioxide

Answer 168

Arterial Blood Gas ∙Accurate assessment of oxygen, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate, and pH ∙Determines the effectiveness of lungs in removing carbon dioxide

Question 169

which test determines PaO2? […]

Answer 169

which test determines PaO2? ABG

Question 170

No cloze ⁨2⁩ found on card. Please either add a cloze deletion, or use the Empty Cards tool. More information

Answer 170

No cloze ⁨2⁩ found on card. Please either add a cloze deletion, or use the Empty Cards tool. More information

Question 171

which is the more accurate parameter, Pa02 or SP02? […]

Answer 171

which is the more accurate parameter, Pa02 or SP02? PaO2

Question 172

non pharm measures to promote respirations […]

Answer 172

non pharm measures to promote respirations Movement and repositioning ∙ ∙Coughing ∙ ∙Chest Physiotherapy

Question 173

‚Ä¢If a person has one bad lung, which way should they lay down? ∙[…] ∙Is movement and repositioning advised for improved lung function? ∙[…] ∙What does ambulation do to improve lung function? […]

Answer 173

‚Ä¢If a person has one bad lung, which way should they lay down? ∙bad lung up, good lung down ∙Is movement and repositioning advised for improved lung function? ∙raise head of bed, increase chance of coughing ∙What does ambulation do to improve lung function? decrease risk of atelectasis and pneumonia

Question 174

what are the 5 things that prevent atelectasis: […]

Answer 174

what are the 5 things that prevent atelectasis: ambulation incentive spirometer deep breathing frequent turning/repositioning coughing

Question 175

what is an incentive spirometer used for? […]

Answer 175

what is an incentive spirometer used for? measuring inhalation decreases risk for atelectasis and pneumonia

Question 176

What to do if a patient is immobilized and experiences pain when trying to cough? […]

Answer 176

What to do if a patient is immobilized and experiences pain when trying to cough? 1. splint the incision with a pillow 2. stack multiple smaller coughs 3. low flow cough ( take a deep breath and say “huff” 3-4 times while exhaling 4. quad cough ( deep breath, hold, place hands below rib and push in and up. ) used in neuromuscular disease

Question 177

Chest physiotherapy when used? […] types: percussion vibration postural drainage Oscillatory Positive Expiratory Pressure Therapy (exhale against pressure)

Answer 177

Chest physiotherapy when used? when mucus won’t mobilize readily types: percussion vibration postural drainage Oscillatory Positive Expiratory Pressure Therapy (exhale against pressure)

Question 178

Chest physiotherapy when used? when mucus won’t mobilize readily types: […]

Answer 178

Chest physiotherapy when used? when mucus won’t mobilize readily types: percussion vibration postural drainage Oscillatory Positive Expiratory Pressure Therapy (exhale against pressure)

Question 179

Pharmacological Methods to improve respirations : […]

Answer 179

Pharmacological Methods to improve respirations : aerosols MDI’s Dry powder inhalers handheld nebulizer MDInebulizer

Question 180

What are the goals of oxygen therapy? […]

Answer 180

What are the goals of oxygen therapy? ∙Improve tissue oxygenation ∙Decreased work of breathing in pt with dyspnea ∙Decreased work of the heart in cardiac pt

Question 181

do you need an order to give oxygen? […]

Answer 181

do you need an order to give oxygen? yes!

Question 182

what type of patient do you use an oral airway or a nasal trumpet on ? […]

Answer 182

what type of patient do you use an oral airway or a nasal trumpet on ? unconscious patient ONLY

Question 183

‚Ä¢Endotracheal Tube […] Tracheostomy ∙Airway created surgically just below the larynx into the trachea

Answer 183

‚Ä¢Endotracheal Tube ∙Tube used to provide a direct passage to the lungs ∙Used with a mechanical ventilator Tracheostomy ∙Airway created surgically just below the larynx into the trachea

Question 184

‚Ä¢Endotracheal Tube ∙Tube used to provide a direct passage to the lungs ∙Used with a mechanical ventilator Tracheostomy […]

Answer 184

‚Ä¢Endotracheal Tube ∙Tube used to provide a direct passage to the lungs ∙Used with a mechanical ventilator Tracheostomy ∙Airway created surgically just below the larynx into the trachea

Question 185

Oral ∙Uses a yankauer device to suction out oral secretions Deeper suctioning type: […] […] before attempt

Answer 185

Oral ∙Uses a yankauer device to suction out oral secretions Deeper suctioning type: Nasopharyngeal ∙Hyper oxygenate before attempt

Question 186

Oral ∙Uses a […] device to suction out oral secretions Deeper suctioning type: Nasopharyngeal ∙Hyper oxygenate before attempt

Answer 186

Oral ∙Uses a yankauer device to suction out oral secretions Deeper suctioning type: Nasopharyngeal ∙Hyper oxygenate before attempt

Question 187

what to do before nasopharyngeal suctioning […]

Answer 187

what to do before nasopharyngeal suctioning bring pt up to 30 degrees hyperoxygenate up to 100%

Question 188

what does high pitched inspiratory stridor indicate? […]

Answer 188

what does high pitched inspiratory stridor indicate? it indicates the airwary is obstructed, usually by the tongue

Question 189

Education for home oxygen use […]

Answer 189

Education for home oxygen use ∙Keep tubing and suction equipment clean to avoid infection ∙Avoid smoking or other ignition sources around the oxygen ∙Know the signs of respiratory infection

Question 190

can you give too much oxygen ? […]

Answer 190

can you give too much oxygen ? YES!

Question 191

what happens if you give too much oxygen? (acutely and chronically) […]

Answer 191

what happens if you give too much oxygen? (acutely and chronically) acute CNS and vision problems. if chronic can result in alveolar issues.

Question 192

Should you give O2 during a STEMI? […]

Answer 192

Should you give O2 during a STEMI? NO, it will increase the size of the infarction

Question 193

how to prevent issues from overdosing O2? […]

Answer 193

how to prevent issues from overdosing O2? always titrate to the lowest level possible.

Question 194

Function of Skin 5+examples […]

Answer 194

Function of Skin 5+examples ∙Protection (ie Melanin and Sebum) ∙Thermoregulation (ieeSweating, Vasoconstriction or vasodilation) ∙Sensation (Touch ) ∙Metabolism (Synthesis of vitamin D) ∙Communication (Nonverbal language)

Question 195

Skin changes across Lifespan ∙Newborn and Infant(1) […] ∙School-age and adolescent(2) ∙increased risk for Lice, scabies, impetigo ∙Acne adult/older adult(3) dry skin more common wrinkling and poor skin turgor slower healing

Answer 195

Skin changes across Lifespan ∙Newborn and Infant(1) Reduced ability to thermoregulate More susceptible to rashes, blistering, chafing ∙School-age and adolescent(2) ∙increased risk for Lice, scabies, impetigo ∙Acne adult/older adult(3) dry skin more common wrinkling and poor skin turgor slower healing

Question 196

Skin changes across Lifespan ∙Newborn and Infant(1) Reduced ability to thermoregulate More susceptible to rashes, blistering, chafing ∙School-age and adolescent(2) […] adult/older adult(3) dry skin more common wrinkling and poor skin turgor slower healing

Answer 196

Skin changes across Lifespan ∙Newborn and Infant(1) Reduced ability to thermoregulate More susceptible to rashes, blistering, chafing ∙School-age and adolescent(2) ∙increased risk for Lice, scabies, impetigo ∙Acne adult/older adult(3) dry skin more common wrinkling and poor skin turgor slower healing

Question 197

Skin changes across Lifespan ∙Newborn and Infant(1) Reduced ability to thermoregulate More susceptible to rashes, blistering, chafing ∙School-age and adolescent(2) ∙increased risk for Lice, scabies, impetigo ∙Acne adult/older adult(3) […]

Answer 197

Skin changes across Lifespan ∙Newborn and Infant(1) Reduced ability to thermoregulate More susceptible to rashes, blistering, chafing ∙School-age and adolescent(2) ∙increased risk for Lice, scabies, impetigo ∙Acne adult/older adult(3) dry skin more common wrinkling and poor skin turgor slower healing

Question 198

Pressure ulcers For patients, where are areas that you can picture this occurring? […]

Answer 198

Pressure ulcers For patients, where are areas that you can picture this occurring? heels,sacrums, elbows

Question 199

Stage I Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1) definition […]

Answer 199

Stage I Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1) definition nonblanchable red, intact skin. may be painful

Question 200

Stage II Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1) […]

Answer 200

Stage II Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1) ∙Shallow open ulcer with a pink wound bed OR intact serum filled bilster ∙Partial-thickness loss of dermis ∙ excoriation with no sloughing

Question 201

Stage […] Pressure Ulcer

Answer 201

Stage III Pressure Ulcer

Question 202

Stage III Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1) […]

Answer 202

Stage III Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1) ∙Full-thickness tissue loss ∙May have slough or eschar ∙Undermining and tunneling posssible ∙Bone, tendon and muscle not exposed

Question 203

Stage […] Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1)

Answer 203

Stage IV Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1)

Question 204

Stage IV Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1) […]

Answer 204

Stage IV Pressure Ulcer (Box 26-1) ∙Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle ∙Tunneling and undermining - slough and eschar

Question 205

what is the name of the scale used to calculate a patient’s risk for developing a pressure ulcer? […]

Answer 205

what is the name of the scale used to calculate a patient’s risk for developing a pressure ulcer? the braden scale

Question 206

Measures to prevent pressure ulcers […]

Answer 206

Measures to prevent pressure ulcers ∙Repositioning and turning every 2 hrs ∙Lift rather than drag patients when pulling up in the bed ∙Specialty mattresses and beds ∙protective creams and lotions

Question 207

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle […] Example: […] Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Answer 207

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 208

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule […] example […] Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Answer 208

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 209

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule […] wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Answer 209

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 210

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal […] liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Answer 210

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 211

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla […] Example: […] Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Answer 211

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 212

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:[…] Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Answer 212

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 213

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque […] nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Answer 213

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 214

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule […] example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Answer 214

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 215

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustule[…] example: […]

Answer 215

Primary lesions Flat/ nonpalpable Macule small flat spot example freckle Patch:larger than a macule Solid papule up to 0.5 cm in size, solid example plaque flat elevated surface larger than 0.5 cm nodule larger than 0.5 cm, deeper and firmer than papule wheal superficial localized skin edema liquid filled Vesicle Circumscribed superficial elevation. Up to 0.5 cm filled with serous fluid. Example: Herpes simplex Virus Bulla exactly like a vesicle except greater than 0.5cm Example: second degree burn Pustulelike a vesicle except filled with pus example: acne, impetigo

Question 216

Secondary lesions Erosion: superficial loss of epidermis Crust: […] Ulcer: deeper loss of skin surface, may bleed and scar. Scale: thin flake of exfoliated epidermis fissure: linear crack in the skin

Answer 216

Secondary lesions Erosion: superficial loss of epidermis Crust: dried residue of serum, pus or blood Ulcer: deeper loss of skin surface, may bleed and scar. Scale: thin flake of exfoliated epidermis fissure: linear crack in the skin

Question 217

Secondary lesions Erosion: superficial loss of epidermis Crust: dried residue of serum, pus or blood Ulcer: […] Scale: thin flake of exfoliated epidermis fissure: linear crack in the skin

Answer 217

Secondary lesions Erosion: superficial loss of epidermis Crust: dried residue of serum, pus or blood Ulcer: deeper loss of skin surface, may bleed and scar. Scale: thin flake of exfoliated epidermis fissure: linear crack in the skin

Question 218

Secondary lesions Erosion: superficial loss of epidermis Crust: dried residue of serum, pus or blood Ulcer: deeper loss of skin surface, may bleed and scar. Scale: […] fissure: linear crack in the skin

Answer 218

Secondary lesions Erosion: superficial loss of epidermis Crust: dried residue of serum, pus or blood Ulcer: deeper loss of skin surface, may bleed and scar. Scale: thin flake of exfoliated epidermis fissure: linear crack in the skin

Question 219

Four phases of Wound Healing (just the names of the phases) […]

Answer 219

Four phases of Wound Healing (just the names of the phases) Hemostasis (immediate) ∙Vasoconstriction ∙Platelet aggregation ∙Clot formation Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) ∙Vasodilation ∙Phagocytosis Proliferative phase ∙Partial-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Epithelialization ∙Full-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Granulation tissue ∙Contracture Maturation (21 days to 2 years) ∙Full-thickness only

Question 220

Four phases of Wound Healing Hemostasis (immediate) ∙Vasoconstriction ∙Platelet aggregation ∙Clot formation Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) ∙Vasodilation ∙Phagocytosis Proliferative phase […] Maturation (21 days to 2 years) ∙Full-thickness only

Answer 220

Four phases of Wound Healing Hemostasis (immediate) ∙Vasoconstriction ∙Platelet aggregation ∙Clot formation Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) ∙Vasodilation ∙Phagocytosis Proliferative phase ∙Partial-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Epithelialization ∙Full-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Granulation tissue ∙Contracture Maturation (21 days to 2 years) ∙Full-thickness only

Question 221

Four phases of Wound Healing Hemostasis (immediate) ∙Vasoconstriction ∙Platelet aggregation ∙Clot formation Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) […] Proliferative phase ∙Partial-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Epithelialization ∙Full-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Granulation tissue ∙Contracture Maturation (21 days to 2 years) ∙Full-thickness only

Answer 221

Four phases of Wound Healing Hemostasis (immediate) ∙Vasoconstriction ∙Platelet aggregation ∙Clot formation Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) ∙Vasodilation ∙Phagocytosis Proliferative phase ∙Partial-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Epithelialization ∙Full-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Granulation tissue ∙Contracture Maturation (21 days to 2 years) ∙Full-thickness only

Question 222

Four phases of Wound Healing Hemostasis (immediate) ∙Vasoconstriction ∙Platelet aggregation ∙Clot formation Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) ∙Vasodilation ∙Phagocytosis Proliferative phase ∙Partial-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Epithelialization ∙Full-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Granulation tissue ∙Contracture Maturation (21 days to 2 years) […]

Answer 222

Four phases of Wound Healing Hemostasis (immediate) ∙Vasoconstriction ∙Platelet aggregation ∙Clot formation Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) ∙Vasodilation ∙Phagocytosis Proliferative phase ∙Partial-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Epithelialization ∙Full-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Granulation tissue ∙Contracture Maturation (21 days to 2 years) ∙Full-thickness only

Question 223

Four phases of Wound Healing Hemostasis (immediate) […] Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) ∙Vasodilation ∙Phagocytosis Proliferative phase ∙Partial-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Epithelialization ∙Full-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Granulation tissue ∙Contracture Maturation (21 days to 2 years) ∙Full-thickness only

Answer 223

Four phases of Wound Healing Hemostasis (immediate) ∙Vasoconstriction ∙Platelet aggregation ∙Clot formation Inflammatory phase (up to day 3) ∙Vasodilation ∙Phagocytosis Proliferative phase ∙Partial-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Epithelialization ∙Full-thickness (day 4 ‚Äì day 21) ∙Granulation tissue ∙Contracture Maturation (21 days to 2 years) ∙Full-thickness only

Question 224

what phase of wound healing is happening two days after a wound occured? […] what phase of wound healing is happening 16 days after wound occurred? proliferative phase

Answer 224

what phase of wound healing is happening two days after a wound occured? inflammatory phase what phase of wound healing is happening 16 days after wound occurred? proliferative phase

Question 225

what phase of wound healing is happening two days after a wound occured? inflammatory phase what phase of wound healing is happening 16 days after wound occurred? […]

Answer 225

what phase of wound healing is happening two days after a wound occured? inflammatory phase what phase of wound healing is happening 16 days after wound occurred? proliferative phase

Question 226

what does brown and yellow on a wound indicate? […]

Answer 226

what does brown and yellow on a wound indicate? that the wound isn’t healing properly

Question 227

what does eptheliazation look like? […]

Answer 227

what does eptheliazation look like? pink formation of new skin

Question 228

what type of creams are used to prevent ulcers? […]

Answer 228

what type of creams are used to prevent ulcers? petroleum based products and products with zinc, and VIT ADorE

Question 229

Which type(s) of wound healing (primary, secondy and or tertiary) has increased risk of infection and scarring? […]

Answer 229

Which type(s) of wound healing (primary, secondy and or tertiary) has increased risk of infection and scarring? secondary and tertiary

Question 230

what is primary intention wound healing?

Answer 230

closing a wound with staples or stitches

Question 231

what is secondary intention wound healing?

Answer 231

Leaving open an irregular wound open to air so that it can heal on its own .

Question 232

what is tertiary intention wound healing?

Answer 232

when a provider allows a wound to heal partially before closing with sutures

Question 233

3 tips on how to apply elastic wraps, bandages and stretch netting […]

Answer 233

3 tips on how to apply elastic wraps, bandages and stretch netting apply distal to proximal, ensure it’s not too tight, check distal circulation

Question 234

indications for using cyanoacrylate glue for wound healing […]

Answer 234

indications for using cyanoacrylate glue for wound healing use on a part of the body that doesn’t experience tension or stretching

Question 235

what is dehiscene: […]

Answer 235

what is dehiscene: wound opens up

Question 236

what factors do we document about a wound: […]

Answer 236

what factors do we document about a wound: undermining or tunneling drainage and output if connected to a drain type and classifactoin (ie stage III) location size base (what base looks like and how far down it goes) infection or pain

Question 237

Types of drains: (3), suction or not […]

Answer 237

Types of drains: (3), suction or not Penrose: no suction Hemovac: suction present, bloody Jackson Pratt: gentle suction

Question 238

Who should assess the wound first, […]

Answer 238

Who should assess the wound first, wound ostomy care nurse

Question 239

can you remove a surgical dressing? […]

Answer 239

can you remove a surgical dressing? no, only a surgeon can remove a surgical dressing

Question 240

alginate dressings, when do you use ?

Answer 240

use in wounds with a lot of exudate

Question 241

•Hydrocolloids

Answer 241

• maintains granulating wound bed ∙Water-resistant gel-like wafer dressing - helps lock in moisture

Question 242

Indications for foam dressings

Answer 242

Partial and full-thickness with small to moderate drainage

Question 243

what are Hydrofiber dressings good for?

Answer 243

Very absorptive

Question 244

hydrogel dressings

Answer 244

Assist in autolytic debridement of necrotic tissue in full-thickness wound

Question 245

which type of dressing needs a doctors order?

Answer 245

silver dressing

Question 246

when do you pick or fill a wound?

Answer 246

when a wound is deep or tunneling/undermining are present

Question 247

Types of Debridement (4)

Answer 247

‚Ä¢Surgical non nurses Use tools to remove debris ∙Enzymatic Place chemical product on wound ∙Autolytic Occlusive or hydrogel Debris gets eroded then irrigated out with saline ∙Mechanical Wet-to-dry dressing

Question 248

What kind of diet for wound healing?

Answer 248

Vit ACE, protein carbs and fats, arginine

Question 249

problematic meds for wound healing

Answer 249

anticoagulants, corticosteroids

Question 250

Sensory perception is Facilitated by the […]

Answer 250

Sensory perception is Facilitated by the reticular activating system (RAS)

Question 251

when are people able to first use sense for safety? […]

Answer 251

when are people able to first use sense for safety? in adolescence

Question 252

alcohol dulls your sense of […]

Answer 252

alcohol dulls your sense of touch

Question 253

diabetes can effect your senses of […]

Answer 253

diabetes can effect your senses of touch and vision

Question 254

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY what is associated with sensory overload? […] what is associated with sensory depression? depression delusions hallucinations confusion

Answer 254

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY what is associated with sensory overload? insomnia anxiety decreased concentration restlessness what is associated with sensory depression? depression delusions hallucinations confusion

Question 255

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY what is associated with sensory overload? insomnia anxiety decreased concentration restlessness what is associated with sensory depression? […]

Answer 255

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY what is associated with sensory overload? insomnia anxiety decreased concentration restlessness what is associated with sensory depression? depression delusions hallucinations confusion

Question 256

sensory test with sense […] : snellen chart […] weber and rinne tuning fork test taste: lemon, salt, sugar […] : two point discrimination stereogenesis

Answer 256

sensory test with sense vision : snellen chart hearing: weber and rinne tuning fork test taste: lemon, salt, sugar somatic sensation: : two point discrimination stereogenesis

Question 257

sensory test with sense vision : […] hearing: […] taste: lemon, salt, sugar somatic sensation: : […]

Answer 257

sensory test with sense vision : snellen chart hearing: weber and rinne tuning fork test taste: lemon, salt, sugar somatic sensation: : two point discrimination stereogenesis

Question 258

how would you help a visually impaired person with ambulation? […]

Answer 258

how would you help a visually impaired person with ambulation? leave dominant hand free to test environment, stand on non domninant side so they can get support from you on that side

Question 259

Superficial vs systemic fungal infections systemic fungal infections: example : […] where? […] generally treated with? […]

Answer 259

Superficial vs systemic fungal infections systemic fungal infections: example : candidasis of the esophagus where? internal organs, lungs brain, digestive organs generally treated with? pills or IV medication

Question 260

which test determines SpO2? […]

Answer 260

which test determines SpO2? pulse oximeter

Question 261

what is pao2? […]

Answer 261

what is pao2? partial pressure of oxygen in the blood

Question 262

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: […] Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Answer 262

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Question 263

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: […] CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Answer 263

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Question 264

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: […]

Answer 264

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Question 265

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : […] Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Answer 265

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Question 266

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: […] Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Answer 266

NUTRITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS DIFFERENT ILLNESSES renal disease : RESTRICT intake of sodium, potassium, protein and fluids . (PPFS) Liver disease: RESTRICT sodium, INCREASE protein CHF: Restrict sodium and calories Coronary artery disease: restrict intake of sodium calories and fats Burns: increase intake of calories, proteins, vitamin C, B complex

Question 267

cold or hot treatment? low back pain, muscle spasms menstraul cramps, contractures, arthritis, […]

Answer 267

cold or hot treatment? low back pain, muscle spasms menstraul cramps, contractures, arthritis, hot

Question 268

cold or hot treatment: sports injury/ muscle strain […]

Answer 268

cold or hot treatment: sports injury/ muscle strain cold

Question 269

cold or hot treatment? fractures, trauma and superficial lacerations[…]

Answer 269

cold or hot treatment? fractures, trauma and superficial lacerationscold

Question 270

cold or hot treatment? surgical wounds and infected wounds […]

Answer 270

cold or hot treatment? surgical wounds and infected wounds hot

Question 271

type of fire extinguishers flammable liquids : CO2, multipurpose dry chemical electrical fires: […] combustible metals: special dry powder

Answer 271

type of fire extinguishers flammable liquids : CO2, multipurpose dry chemical electrical fires: CO2, Multipuprose dry chemical, Liquified gas combustible metals: special dry powder

Question 272

type of fire extinguishers flammable liquids : […] electrical fires: CO2, Multipuprose dry chemical, Liquified gas combustible metals: special dry powder

Answer 272

type of fire extinguishers flammable liquids : CO2, multipurpose dry chemical electrical fires: CO2, Multipuprose dry chemical, Liquified gas combustible metals: special dry powder

Question 273

type of fire extinguishers flammable liquids : CO2, multipurpose dry chemical electrical fires: CO2, Multipuprose dry chemical, Liquified gas combustible metals: […]

Answer 273

type of fire extinguishers flammable liquids : CO2, multipurpose dry chemical electrical fires: CO2, Multipuprose dry chemical, Liquified gas combustible metals: special dry powder

Question 274

what normal hygiene habits to avoid on neutropenic precautions? […]

Answer 274

what normal hygiene habits to avoid on neutropenic precautions? flossing, razors… anything that could result in a bleed and bacteremia

Question 275

mild hypoxemia is classified as? […]

Answer 275

mild hypoxemia is classified as? 60-80 mmhg

Question 276

woven gauze pupose: […]

Answer 276

woven gauze pupose: absorbs exudate from the wound

Question 277

collagens serve to […]

Answer 277

collagens serve to help stop qound bleeding and promote healing

Question 278

transparent dressing is ideal for […]

Answer 278

transparent dressing is ideal for small, superficial wounds

Question 279

hydrogels purpose: […]

Answer 279

hydrogels purpose: -promote autolytic debridement - for infected, deep or necrotic wounds - NOT for heavily or moderately draining wounds - decrease pain - rehydrates and fills dead space.