Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Foundations of Nursing > Supplemental Questions: Exam 2 > Flashcards

Supplemental Questions: Exam 2 Flashcards

Thanks Tucker, Matt, and Kaitlyn!

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

Question

A

Answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The act of breaking down food into simple substances is […]

A

The act of breaking down food into simple substances is digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Muscular contractions moving food through the intestines is called […]

A

Muscular contractions moving food through the intestines is called peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Food remains in the stomach for […] hours

A

Food remains in the stomach for 2-8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the […]

A

Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bile is produced by the […] and stored in the gallbladder

A

Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream in the […] intestine

A

Nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream in the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The […] intestine is primarily responsible for removing water and electrolytes

A

The large intestine is primarily responsible for removing water and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The […] is a storage area for feces

A

The rectum is a storage area for feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Remaining food is converted to feces in the […]

A

Remaining food is converted to feces in the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Macronutrients are consumed in large amounts and include […]

A

Macronutrients are consumed in large amounts and include protein, carbs, and fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Micronutrients are […]

A

Micronutrients are vitamins and minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Proteins provide the body essential […] neede for repair

A

Proteins provide the body essential amino acids neede for repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Carbohydrates are converted to […] and provide energy for the body

A

Carbohydrates are converted to sugar and provide energy for the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The ability of a food to raise the body’s blood sugar is […]

A

The ability of a food to raise the body’s blood sugar is glycemic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

[…] help the body absorb vitamins while providing energy

A

Fats help the body absorb vitamins while providing energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Trans fats are generally found in […]

A

Trans fats are generally found in processed foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Saturated fats are found in […]

A

Saturated fats are found in animal products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nuts, olives, olive oil, and avocados contain […] fats

A

Nuts, olives, olive oil, and avocados contain monounsaturated fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

[…] are not produced by the body and must be obtained by diet

A

Vitamins are not produced by the body and must be obtained by diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

2 hours after a meal a CBG should be […] mg/dL

A

2 hours after a meal a CBG should be 140-180 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A normal BMI is […]

A

A normal BMI is 18.5-24.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A BMI over […] is considered obese

A

A BMI over 30 is considered obese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

[…] protect cells against free radicals

A

Antioxidants protect cells against free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A […] contains foods that are easy to digest, low in fiber, and can be swallowed easily

A

A soft diet contains foods that are easy to digest, low in fiber, and can be swallowed easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A […] is foods that do not need to be chewed

A

A pureed diet is foods that do not need to be chewed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A […] contains only fluid

A

A full liquid diet contains only fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

[…] contains only foods that can be seen through

A

Clear liquid diets contains only foods that can be seen through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Decreased sodium, portions, and unhealthy fats while increasing fruits and veg, whole grains, and low fat protein is a […]

A

Decreased sodium, portions, and unhealthy fats while increasing fruits and veg, whole grains, and low fat protein is a heart healthy diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A healthy adults should not consume more than […] of sodium

A

A healthy adults should not consume more than 2300 mg of sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A […] encouraged pt’s to monitor intake of potassium, phosphorous, and sodium

A

A renal diet encouraged pt’s to monitor intake of potassium, phosphorous, and sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Folic acid supplements lower […]

A

Folic acid supplements lower birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

[…] aspiration presents with obvious symptoms such as cough or dyspnea

A

Overt aspiration presents with obvious symptoms such as cough or dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

[…] aspiration has no obvious symptoms

A

Silent aspiration has no obvious symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Stage 1 […] fluid will freely run off a spoon and leave a coating

A

Stage 1 Nectar like fluid will freely run off a spoon and leave a coating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Stage 2 […] fluid will slowly drip off a spoon

A

Stage 2 Honey like fluid will slowly drip off a spoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Stage 3 […] fluid will not run off a spoon

A

Stage 3 spoon-thick fluid will not run off a spoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

[…] are tools or equipment that help a client perform activities more easily

A

Assistive devices are tools or equipment that help a client perform activities more easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Insulin is created by the […] in the pancreas

A

Insulin is created by the beta cells in the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Insulin should be given at least […] away from the umbilicus

A

Insulin should be given at least two inches away from the umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

[…] are primarily used for feeding

A

Nasoduodenal tubes are primarily used for feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

[…] are used when pt’s cant tolerate food in the stomach or have delayed gastric emptying

A

Nasojejunal tubes are used when pt’s cant tolerate food in the stomach or have delayed gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

pH of stomach contents should be below […]

A

pH of stomach contents should be below 6.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Parenteral nutrition is provided […]

A

Parenteral nutrition is provided IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Total parenteral nutrition patients need frequent […]

A

Total parenteral nutrition patients need frequent CBG checks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Net Carbs = Carbs - […]

A

Net Carbs = Carbs - fiber and sugar alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Tube feedings should be administered with the HOB at an angle of […] degrees

A

Tube feedings should be administered with the HOB at an angle of 30-45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Placement of a feeding tube should be checked every […]

A

Placement of a feeding tube should be checked every four hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A BMI opf less than […] is underweight

A

A BMI opf less than 18.5 is underweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Woman should consume […] of fiber and 38g for men

A

Woman should consume 20g of fiber and 38g for men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Woman should consume 20g of fiber and […] for men

A

Woman should consume 20g of fiber and 38g for men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

NG tube lower border is the […]

A

NG tube lower border is the Xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Whole grain food is high in […]

A

Whole grain food is high in Phosporous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Brittle hair and hair loss can be cause by […] deficiencies

A

Brittle hair and hair loss can be cause by protein intake deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pt’s should not be on a […] for more than a few days due to inadequate nutrition

A

Pt’s should not be on a clears diet for more than a few days due to inadequate nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Enabling control over clients general health is […]

A

Enabling control over clients general health is health promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Decreased anxiety, self-managed care, feelings of empowerment, and fewer unpleasant hospital experiences are all benefits of […]

A

Decreased anxiety, self-managed care, feelings of empowerment, and fewer unpleasant hospital experiences are all benefits of client education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The thinking domain is knows as the […] domain

A

The thinking domain is knows as the cognitive domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The six stages of the cognitive domain are KCA & ASE knowledge, comprehension, application and […]

A

The six stages of the cognitive domain are KCA & ASE knowledge, comprehension, application and analysis, synthesis, evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The six stages of the cognitive domain are KCA & ASE […] and analysis, synthesis, evaluation

A

The six stages of the cognitive domain are KCA & ASE knowledge, comprehension, application and analysis, synthesis, evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Recalling prior learned knowledge […]

A

Recalling prior learned knowledge Knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Understanding and interpretation of information […]

A

Understanding and interpretation of information Comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The ability to use data […]

A

The ability to use data application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The breakdown of information to understand it’s structure […]

A

The breakdown of information to understand it’s structure Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Putting the elements together to create a new whole […]

A

Putting the elements together to create a new whole synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Deciding the ideal of the ideas […]

A

Deciding the ideal of the ideas evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The […] domain is based on emotions and involves the clients feelings

A

The affective domain is based on emotions and involves the clients feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The […] domain is based on action

A

The psychomotor domain is based on action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Relevance, Self-directed, Life-experience, Readiness, Task-Centered, and motivation are […]

A

Relevance, Self-directed, Life-experience, Readiness, Task-Centered, and motivation are Knowles fundamental prinicipals of learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

[…] is the clients ability to obtain, read, and understand the health information necessary to support decisions regarding their care

A

Health Literacy is the clients ability to obtain, read, and understand the health information necessary to support decisions regarding their care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Impaired cognition, language barriers, visusal and hearing impairements, emotional concerns, and cultural differences are examples of […]

A

Impaired cognition, language barriers, visusal and hearing impairements, emotional concerns, and cultural differences are examples of barriers to learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The affective domain stages are RR VOC […] Valuing, Organization, Characterization

A

The affective domain stages are RR VOC Receiving, Responding Valuing, Organization, Characterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The affective domain stages are RR VOC Receiving, Responding […]

A

The affective domain stages are RR VOC Receiving, Responding Valuing, Organization, Characterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The psychomotor domain has seven stages PSG MCAO Perception, Set, Guided response […]

A

The psychomotor domain has seven stages PSG MCAO Perception, Set, Guided response Mechanism, Complex overt response, Adaptation, Origination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The psychomotor domain has seven stages PSG MCAO […] Mechanism, Complex overt response, Adaptation, Origination

A

The psychomotor domain has seven stages PSG MCAO Perception, Set, Guided response Mechanism, Complex overt response, Adaptation, Origination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Elements of the teaching process are AAPIE Assessment, Analysis (RN only) […]

A

Elements of the teaching process are AAPIE Assessment, Analysis (RN only) Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Elements of the teaching process are AAPIE […] Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

A

Elements of the teaching process are AAPIE Assessment, Analysis (RN only) Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

[…] includes identifyinf expected outcomes, goals, or client education

A

Planning phase includes identifyinf expected outcomes, goals, or client education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

SMART Goals are […]

A

SMART Goals are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Client understanding of why education is needed and how they will benefit is […]

A

Client understanding of why education is needed and how they will benefit is relevance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Something that hinders learning is a […]

A

Something that hinders learning is a Barrier to entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The optimal learning environment is […]

A

The optimal learning environment is low stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Helpful information provided to the client to aid in the improvement of client education is […]

A

Helpful information provided to the client to aid in the improvement of client education is feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Personal perception or sterotype regarding situations, people, or actions is […]

A

Personal perception or sterotype regarding situations, people, or actions is self-bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

[…] care is involving and educating the client through the nursing process

A

Client centered care is involving and educating the client through the nursing process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Cells formed in the basal layer of the skin that function to protect the skin from the external environment are […]

A

Cells formed in the basal layer of the skin that function to protect the skin from the external environment are keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

[…] absorb radiant energy from the sun and protect skin from UV light

A

Melanin absorb radiant energy from the sun and protect skin from UV light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

[…] in the skin detect light touch

A

Merkel cells in the skin detect light touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

[…] in the skin ingest and package foreign antigens to be presented to lymphocytes

A

Langerhans cells in the skin ingest and package foreign antigens to be presented to lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The […] is composed of connective tissue, blood, and lymph vessels

A

The Dermis is composed of connective tissue, blood, and lymph vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The […] layer contains blood vessels and nerves

A

The Subcutaneous layer contains blood vessels and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The skin helps to produce vitamins […]

A

The skin helps to produce vitamins A&D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Irritation of the skin caused by moisture is […]

A

Irritation of the skin caused by moisture is Maceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Localized damage to the skin or the soft underlying tissue is a […]

A

Localized damage to the skin or the soft underlying tissue is a pressure injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Redness of the skin due to dilation of blood vessels is […]

A

Redness of the skin due to dilation of blood vessels is erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Erythema is classified as either […]

A

Erythema is classified as either Blanchable or Non-blanchable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Surgical incisions should be red on days 1-4, […] on days 5-14, and pale pink from there out

A

Surgical incisions should be red on days 1-4, Bright pink on days 5-14, and pale pink from there out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Surgical incisions should be red on days 1-4, Bright pink on days 5-14, and […] from there out

A

Surgical incisions should be red on days 1-4, Bright pink on days 5-14, and pale pink from there out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Surgical incisions should be […] on days 1-4, Bright pink on days 5-14, and pale pink from there out

A

Surgical incisions should be red on days 1-4, Bright pink on days 5-14, and pale pink from there out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

[…] is fluid consisting of plasma that is secreted by the body during the inflammatory phase of healing

A

Exudate is fluid consisting of plasma that is secreted by the body during the inflammatory phase of healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

MASD is […]

A

MASD is Moisture associated skin damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Wounds are classified as […]

A

Wounds are classified as Acute or Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Older adults, smokers, undernourished, immunosupressed, imobilized, or infected pts are risk factors for […]

A

Older adults, smokers, undernourished, immunosupressed, imobilized, or infected pts are risk factors for wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Three major categories of chronic lower extremity wounds: venous disease, […] and neuropathic disease

A

Three major categories of chronic lower extremity wounds: venous disease, arterial disease, and neuropathic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Three major categories of chronic lower extremity wounds: venous disease, arterial disease, and […]

A

Three major categories of chronic lower extremity wounds: venous disease, arterial disease, and neuropathic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Three major categories of chronic lower extremity wounds: […] arterial disease, and neuropathic disease

A

Three major categories of chronic lower extremity wounds: venous disease, arterial disease, and neuropathic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

[…] would drainage indicates infection

A

purulent would drainage indicates infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

[…] is force exerted parallel to the skin

A

Shear is force exerted parallel to the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Risk factors for […] are immobility, malnutrition, reduced perfusion, altered sensation, and decreased LOC

A

Risk factors for pressure injuries are immobility, malnutrition, reduced perfusion, altered sensation, and decreased LOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The […] is used to assess risk for tissue integrity

A

The Braden scale is used to assess risk for tissue integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Stage: […] Non blanchable erythema

A

Stage: 1 Non blanchable erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Stage: […] Partial thickness skin loss

A

Stage: 2 Partial thickness skin loss Pink or red viable tissue in the wound bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Stage: […] Full-thickness skin loss, visible adipose tissue, granulation tissue.

A

Stage: 3 Full-thickness skin loss, visible adipose tissue, granulation tissue. Fascia, muscles, tendons, bone, ligament, and cartilage not visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Stage: […] Full thickness skin and tissue loss.

A

Stage: 4 Full thickness skin and tissue loss. Fascia, muscles, tendons, ligaments, cartilage, bone may be visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Stage: […] Obscured by slough of eschar

A

Stage: unstageable Obscured by slough of eschar Eschar is either stage 3 or 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

[…] has a localized, non-blanchable, deep red, maroon/purple discoleration

A

Deep tissue pressure injury has a localized, non-blanchable, deep red, maroon/purple discoleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Injuries cause by medical devices is called […]

A

Injuries cause by medical devices is called Medical device-related pressure injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

ET tubes, feeding tubes, and urinary catheters can cause […]

A

ET tubes, feeding tubes, and urinary catheters can cause mucosal membrane pressure injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

In darker skin skin temp and level of moisture may be the first sign of […]

A

In darker skin skin temp and level of moisture may be the first sign of pressure injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Surgically removing dead tissue and other debris from a wound is […]

A

Surgically removing dead tissue and other debris from a wound is debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Biological debridement with […] can be used when pt’s are not surgical candidates

A

Biological debridement with collagenase or larvae can be used when pt’s are not surgical candidates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Wound require a […] wound bed for healing

A

Wound require a moist wound bed for healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Wound drains are normally removed when the 24 hours drainage is between […]

A

Wound drains are normally removed when the 24 hours drainage is between 30 and 100 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Drains are classified as […]

A

Drains are classified as open or closed Penrose is open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Wound drainage should be sanguineous after placement, and progressively become more […]

A

Wound drainage should be sanguineous after placement, and progressively become more Serosanguineous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Wound drainage should be […] after placement, and progressively become more Serosanguineous

A

Wound drainage should be sanguineous after placement, and progressively become more Serosanguineous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Risk minimizing for pressure injuries: Bed lower than […], pressure relieving beds, protection of bony prominences

A

Risk minimizing for pressure injuries: Bed lower than 30 degrees, pressure relieving beds, protection of bony prominences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Risk minimizing for pressure injuries: Bed lower than 30 degrees, pressure relieving beds, protection of […]

A

Risk minimizing for pressure injuries: Bed lower than 30 degrees, pressure relieving beds, protection of bony prominences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Protein, Omega 3 and 6 FA, vitamins A&C are essential for […]

A

Protein, Omega 3 and 6 FA, vitamins A&C are essential for wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Hydration, nutrition, hygeine, circulation are […]

A

Hydration, nutrition, hygeine, circulation are universal skin care measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Wound healing that occurs in clean lacerations and surgical incisions is […]

A

Wound healing that occurs in clean lacerations and surgical incisions is primary healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Wounds left open to heal and granulation tissue forms from the bottom up is […]

A

Wounds left open to heal and granulation tissue forms from the bottom up is secondary healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Wounds left open for a period of time before a suture is placed is […]

A

Wounds left open for a period of time before a suture is placed is delayed primary closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Three phases of wound healing: hemostatic/imflammatory phase, proliferative phase, and […]

A

Three phases of wound healing: hemostatic/imflammatory phase, proliferative phase, and remodeling phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Three phases of wound healing: […] proliferative phase, and remodeling phase

A

Three phases of wound healing: hemostatic/imflammatory phase, proliferative phase, and remodeling phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Three phases of wound healing: hemostatic/imflammatory phase, […] and remodeling phase

A

Three phases of wound healing: hemostatic/imflammatory phase, proliferative phase, and remodeling phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Phase of wounding healing that begins immediately and lasts 3-6 days is […]

A

Phase of wounding healing that begins immediately and lasts 3-6 days is hemostatic/imflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

The […] phase of wound healing begins 3 days after injury and can last for 24 days

A

The proliferative phase of wound healing begins 3 days after injury and can last for 24 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

The […] phase of wound healing begins at day 21 and can last for years

A

The remodeling phase of wound healing begins at day 21 and can last for years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Antibiotics are recommended only for wounds that look […]

A

Antibiotics are recommended only for wounds that look clincally infected All wounds contain microbes but not all wounds are infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

[…] are related to operative procedures that occur within 30 days

A

Surgical site infections are related to operative procedures that occur within 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

SSIs are commonly caused by […] on the skin and can be reduced with chlorhexidine gluconate

A

SSIs are commonly caused by S. aureus on the skin and can be reduced with chlorhexidine gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

SSIs are commonly caused by S. aureus on the skin and can be reduced with […]

A

SSIs are commonly caused by S. aureus on the skin and can be reduced with chlorhexidine gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition and shear are parts of the […]

A

Sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition and shear are parts of the braden scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

[…] dressings are used for debridement of wounds with necrotized tissue and eschar

A

Hydrogel dressings are used for debridement of wounds with necrotized tissue and eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Phases of nursing process AD OPIE: […] Outcome and Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

A

Phases of nursing process AD OPIE: Assessment, diagnosis Outcome and Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Phases of nursing process AD OPIE: Assessment, diagnosis […]

A

Phases of nursing process AD OPIE: Assessment, diagnosis Outcome and Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

The four phases of interview: PI MC […] Maintenance, Concluding

A

The four phases of interview: PI MC Prepatory, Introductory Maintenance, Concluding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

The four phases of interview: PI MC Prepatory, Introductory […]

A

The four phases of interview: PI MC Prepatory, Introductory Maintenance, Concluding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Nursing diagnosis three parts: Diagnostic label, […] definining characteristic (as evidence by)

A

Nursing diagnosis three parts: Diagnostic label, related factors (related to/Associated with, definining characteristic (as evidence by)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Nursing diagnosis three parts: […] related factors (related to/Associated with, definining characteristic (as evidence by)

A

Nursing diagnosis three parts: Diagnostic label, related factors (related to/Associated with, definining characteristic (as evidence by)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Nursing diagnosis three parts: Diagnostic label, related factors (related to/Associated with, […]

A

Nursing diagnosis three parts: Diagnostic label, related factors (related to/Associated with, definining characteristic (as evidence by)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Types of interventions: Cognitive i.e. delegation, […] technical - Skills and nursing activity

A

Types of interventions: Cognitive i.e. delegation, Interpersonal - caregiving coordinating, technical - Skills and nursing activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Types of interventions: […] Interpersonal - caregiving coordinating, technical - Skills and nursing activity

A

Types of interventions: Cognitive i.e. delegation, Interpersonal - caregiving coordinating, technical - Skills and nursing activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Types of interventions: Cognitive i.e. delegation, Interpersonal - caregiving coordinating, […]

A

Types of interventions: Cognitive i.e. delegation, Interpersonal - caregiving coordinating, technical - Skills and nursing activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

The joint commission puts out […] every year

A

The joint commission puts out National Patient Safety Goals NPSG every year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

VRE infection […]

A

VRE infection Vancomycin resistant enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

A […] is a potential error that was caught

A

A Near miss is a potential error that was caught

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

A […] is an unexpected event that occured with or without pt harm

A

A client safety event is an unexpected event that occured with or without pt harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

A […] is a critical adverse event that caused serious harm

A

A sentinel event is a critical adverse event that caused serious harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Central Line Associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI), CAUTI, SSI, and Vent associated pneumonia are the four hosputal acquired infections […]

A

Central Line Associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI), CAUTI, SSI, and Vent associated pneumonia are the four hosputal acquired infections monitored by the CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

[…] Reduce tim, increase distance, implement shielding

A

Raditation Safety Reduce tim, increase distance, implement shielding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Placing a client alone in a secure room to prevent harm is […]

A

Placing a client alone in a secure room to prevent harm is seclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Circulatory, respiratory, and skin integrity checks should be performed when […]

A

Circulatory, respiratory, and skin integrity checks should be performed when patients are restrained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Melatonin is produced by the […]

A

Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

The two internal mechanisms that control sleep are […] and sleep-wake homeostasis

A

The two internal mechanisms that control sleep are circadian rhythm and sleep-wake homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

The two internal mechanisms that control sleep are circadian rhythm and […]

A

The two internal mechanisms that control sleep are circadian rhythm and sleep-wake homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

[…] is increased sleep latency and decreased total sleep

A

Insomnia is increased sleep latency and decreased total sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

[…] is an autoimmune sleep disorder

A

Narcolepsy is an autoimmune sleep disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

[…] is profound weakness when falling asleep

A

cataplexy is profound weakness when falling asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

[…] is necessary for developing and maintaining new pathways for learning and memorization

A

Sleep is necessary for developing and maintaining new pathways for learning and memorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Stage 2 NREM sleep accounts for […] of sleep

A

Stage 2 NREM sleep accounts for 50% of sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Stage 4 REM sleep accounts for […] of all sleep

A

Stage 4 REM sleep accounts for 20-25% of all sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

[…] is receiving stimuli at a rate and intesity beyond the brains ability to process the stimuli in a meaningful way

A

Sensory overload is receiving stimuli at a rate and intesity beyond the brains ability to process the stimuli in a meaningful way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Heart disease, hypertension, endocrine dysfunction, and arthritis are all associated with […]

A

Heart disease, hypertension, endocrine dysfunction, and arthritis are all associated with insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Sleep apnea is classified as […]

A

Sleep apnea is classified as central and obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

[…] is a brief loss of voluntary muscle tonetriggered by an emotional stimulus

A

Cataplexy is a brief loss of voluntary muscle tonetriggered by an emotional stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

RLS can occur in pts with […] deficiencies

A

RLS can occur in pts with iron or vitamin deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

[…] is defined as obtaining relief from pain, negativity, and emotional/physical distress

A

Comfort is defined as obtaining relief from pain, negativity, and emotional/physical distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Sleep and arousal commands come from the […]

A

Sleep and arousal commands come from the hypothalmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Narcolepsy with cataplexy (NTI) is cause by low production of […]

A

Narcolepsy with cataplexy (NTI) is cause by low production of hypocretin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

The Thalmus tranmits images, sounds, and sensations to the […] which is used for dreams during REM

A

The Thalmus tranmits images, sounds, and sensations to the cerebral cortex which is used for dreams during REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

The […] tranmits images, sounds, and sensations to the cerebral cortex which is used for dreams during REM

A

The Thalmus tranmits images, sounds, and sensations to the cerebral cortex which is used for dreams during REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Clients woken out of […] sleep will be cloudy

A

Clients woken out of stage 3 sleep will be cloudy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Irregular breathing and increased HR are a part of […] sleep

A

Irregular breathing and increased HR are a part of stage 4/REM sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

The hunger reducing hormone is […]

A

The hunger reducing hormone is leptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

A reduction of absence of stimuli to one or more of the five senses is […]

A

A reduction of absence of stimuli to one or more of the five senses is Sensory deprivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

[…] pts are oversensitive to normal stimuli

A

Sensory processing disorder pts are oversensitive to normal stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

[…] is the most common cause of impaired vision in adulthood

A

Diabetic retinopathy is the most common cause of impaired vision in adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

[…] is the leading cause of blindness for pts over 65

A

Macular degeneration is the leading cause of blindness for pts over 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Hearing loss is categorized as […]

A

Hearing loss is categorized as Sensorineural, conductive, and mixed loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

[…] pt’s may be able to understand speech but will not be able to speal the words they want to say

A

Expressive aphasia pt’s may be able to understand speech but will not be able to speal the words they want to say Broca’s or nonfluent aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

[…] pt’s will often speak long sentences with no meaning and made up word

A

Comprehensive Aphasia pt’s will often speak long sentences with no meaning and made up word Fluent aphasia or Wernicke’s aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

[…] pts have poor comprehension of language and will be unable to form words or sentences

A

Global aphashia pts have poor comprehension of language and will be unable to form words or sentences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Stimuli from sensors in the skin is sent to the […]

A

Stimuli from sensors in the skin is sent to the thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Pain signals are sent directly to the […]

A

Pain signals are sent directly to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

[…] are responsible for taste

A

Gustatory cells are responsible for taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

[…] is decreased ability to taste

A

Hypogeusia is decreased ability to taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

[…] is decreased ability to smell

A

Hyposmia is decreased ability to smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Smell and taste disorders often occur […]

A

Smell and taste disorders often occur concurrently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

[…] is loss of hearing that occurs due to aging

A

Presbycusis is loss of hearing that occurs due to aging

202
Q

[…] is inflammation or fluid in the middle ear and can result in conductive hearing loss

A

Otitis media is inflammation or fluid in the middle ear and can result in conductive hearing loss

203
Q

Increased intraocular pressure that compresses the optic nerve is […]

A

Increased intraocular pressure that compresses the optic nerve is glaucoma

204
Q

[…] makes pts hypersensitive to normal stimuli

A

Sensory Processing disorder makes pts hypersensitive to normal stimuli

205
Q

Aging reduces the ability to taste […] flavors

A

Aging reduces the ability to taste sour, bitter, and salty flavors

206
Q

Disease prevention can be categorized as […]

A

Disease prevention can be categorized as primary, secondary, or tertiary

207
Q

Primary prevention is used to […] problems

A

Primary prevention is used to prevent problems

208
Q

Secondary prevention is […] for disease

A

Secondary prevention is screening for disease

209
Q

Tertiary prevention aims to […] a disease process

A

Tertiary prevention aims to halt a disease process

210
Q

Rickets is a lack of […]

A

Rickets is a lack of vitamin D

211
Q

B1 (thiamine) deficiency is […]

A

B1 (thiamine) deficiency is beri beri Affects cardiac and muscles

212
Q

B2 deficiency is called […]

A

B2 deficiency is called cheilosis Vision and cracked lips

213
Q

B3 (niacin) deficiency is […]

A

B3 (niacin) deficiency is pellagra Dementia, dermatitis, diarrhea

214
Q

B9 (folic acid) deficiency is […]

A

B9 (folic acid) deficiency is neural tube defects, big red tongue

215
Q

B12 defficiency is […]

A

B12 defficiency is pernicious anemia

216
Q

Vitamin C deficiency is […]

A

Vitamin C deficiency is scurvy & poor wound healing

217
Q

Calcium deificiency is […]

A

Calcium deificiency is rickets

218
Q

Calcium aids clotting by converting […]

A

Calcium aids clotting by converting prothrombin to thrombin

219
Q

Mechanical process of digestion MDC CPS […] Churning (small instestine, peristalsis, Stored until evacuation

A

Mechanical process of digestion MDC CPS Mastication, deglutition, churning (stomach) Churning (small instestine, peristalsis, Stored until evacuation

220
Q

Mechanical process of digestion MDC CPS Mastication, deglutition, churning (stomach) […]

A

Mechanical process of digestion MDC CPS Mastication, deglutition, churning (stomach) Churning (small instestine, peristalsis, Stored until evacuation

221
Q

Fats are absorbed into the […]

A

Fats are absorbed into the lymphatic system

222
Q

[…] is a sensetive and specific marker for fnutritional status

A

prealbumin is a sensetive and specific marker for fnutritional status

223
Q

Chemical and electrical fires are sprayed with […]

A

Chemical and electrical fires are sprayed with CO2 and dry chemical

224
Q

Metal fires are sprayed with […]

A

Metal fires are sprayed with powder

225
Q

Sensory perception is facilitated by the […]

A

Sensory perception is facilitated by the reticular activating system

226
Q

Insomnia, anxiety, restlessness, decreased concentration are all signs of […]

A

Insomnia, anxiety, restlessness, decreased concentration are all signs of sensory overload

227
Q

Confusion, depression, delerium, and hallucinations are signs of […]

A

Confusion, depression, delerium, and hallucinations are signs of sensory deprevation

228
Q

When helping a blind person ambulate, stand on the […] side

A

When helping a blind person ambulate, stand on the non dominant side

229
Q

Erythema, edema, warmth, pain, and functional impairment are signs of […]

A

Erythema, edema, warmth, pain, and functional impairment are signs of local inflammation

230
Q

Increase WBC, fever, malaise, muscle aches, anorexia, and sepsis are signs of […]

A

Increase WBC, fever, malaise, muscle aches, anorexia, and sepsis are signs of systemic inflammation

231
Q

Endotoxins are released by […]

A

Endotoxins are released by bacteria

232
Q

SIRS criteria notes WBC counts […]

A

SIRS criteria notes WBC counts >12,000 or <4,000

233
Q

Levels of discharge planning are […]

A

Levels of discharge planning are basic/universal, simple referral, complex referral

234
Q

Patients are not involved in […] referrals

A

Patients are not involved in complex referrals

235
Q

There are […] levels of dyspnea

A

There are 4 levels of dyspnea

236
Q

Level […] dyspnea is SOB while performing daily activities

A

Level 3 dyspnea is SOB while performing daily activities

237
Q

Moderate hypoxemia is a PaO2 of […] mmHG

A

Moderate hypoxemia is a PaO2 of 40-60 mmHG

238
Q

Formula for NC FiO2: […]

A

Formula for NC FiO2: 1LPM = 24%, add 4% for every additional LPM

239
Q

Acute Oxygen toxicity wll present as […]

A

Acute Oxygen toxicity wll present as CNS and vision problems

240
Q

[…] When verbal and non verbal comms match

A

Congruence: When verbal and non verbal comms match

241
Q

[…] Putting yourself in someone elses shoes

A

Empathy: Putting yourself in someone elses shoes

242
Q

[…] Avoiding judgment and labels

A

Positive regard: Avoiding judgment and labels

243
Q

[…] Alter perception of event - switch from reactive to proactive

A

Cognitive reframing: Alter perception of event - switch from reactive to proactive

244
Q

immunizations, birth control an drug education falls into which category of disease prevention?

A

primary (prevention!)

245
Q

physicals, breast exams, vision exams and other screening tests fall into which category of disease prevention?

A

secondary

246
Q

support groups + rehab fall into which category of disease prevention?

A

tertiary

247
Q

possible indications of low literacy level

A

incomplete forms, inability to name meds, missed appointments

248
Q

tips for successful teaching session tips

A

avoid medical terms, keep it 15-30 mins, have organized plan + keep it patient-focused

249
Q

example of cognitive domain of learning

A

lecture

250
Q

examples of affective domain of learning

A

simulation, role play

251
Q

example of psychomotor domain of learning

A

demonstrating skill or task (ex: testing blood glucose)

252
Q

in infant stage, learning is through _____

A

parents

253
Q

in toddler stage, learning is through ____

A

play

254
Q

in school age stage, learning is through _____

A

rewards

255
Q

in adolescent stage, learning is through _____

A

autonomy

256
Q

what macronutrient helps to synthesize vitamin K and vitamin B12?

A

carbohydrates

257
Q

which nutrient promotes peristalsis and healthy bowel movements?

A

fiber

258
Q

what is a normal fasting blood glucose?

A

60-80

259
Q

functions of proteins

A

wound healing, hemoglobin, insulin, albumin, growth, energy

260
Q

you would see _____ nitrogen balance with periods of growth

A

positive

261
Q

you would see _____ nitrogen balance with periods of disease state, wounds, immobility

A

negative

262
Q

fat soluble vitamins

A

ADEK

263
Q

deficiency of vitamin A

A

keratinization, xeropthalmia

264
Q

which vitamin helps with absorption of calcium?

A

vitamin D

265
Q

deficiency of vitamin D leads to what 3 things?

A

rickets, osteomalacia, tetany (low Ca)

266
Q

which vitamin protects vitamin A?

A

vitamin E

267
Q

deficiency of vitamin E causes what?

A

hemolysis of RBCs –> anemia

268
Q

vitamin K helps with what?

A

clotting factors (so a deficiency can lead to increased clotting time / bleeding issues)

269
Q

which 2 vitamins are concerning for falls in patients re: injury?

A

vitamin E + K

270
Q

what are the water soluble vitamins?

A

vitamin C + B vitamins

271
Q

B1 =

A

thiamine

272
Q

B2 =

A

riboflavin

273
Q

B3 =

A

niacin

274
Q

B9 =

A

folic acid

275
Q

B12 =

A

cyanocobalamin

276
Q

deficiency of thiamine is called

A

beri beri (affects cardiac + muscle)

277
Q

deficiency of riboflavin is called

A

cheilosis (cracking/fissures in mouth)

278
Q

deficiency of niacin is called

A

pellagra

279
Q

pellagra causes what s+s?

A

3 D’s - dementia, diarrhea, dermatitis

280
Q

deficiency of folic acid can cause what?

A

birth defects

281
Q

deficiency of B12 can cause what?

A

pernicious / macrocytic anemia

282
Q

which population/eating style is most at risk for B12 deficiency?

A

vegetarians or vegans

283
Q

which vitamin assists with iron absorption?

A

vitamin C

284
Q

deficiency of vitamin C is called what? what else can it cause?

A

scurvy can also cause poor wound healing, anemia, infection risk

285
Q

calcium assist with what 3 things?

A
  1. cardiac function2. prothrombin –> thrombin3. nerve impulse
286
Q

deficiency of calcium is called what?

A

rickets (bowed legs)

287
Q

digestion steps

A

mastication, deglutition, churning in stomach, churning in small intestine, peristalsis in large intestine

288
Q

which nutritional components are absorbed through intestinal capillaries?

A

proteins, carbs, simple sugars

289
Q

which nutritional components are absorbed through lymphatic capillaries?

A

fats

290
Q

where is glucose stored short term?

A

liver

291
Q

where is glucose stored long term?

A

adipose tissue

292
Q

what is excreted through lungs?

A

H2O + CO2

293
Q

signs of poor nutrition with swollen gums and bleeding could be from deficiency of what nutrient?

A

vitamin C

294
Q

what is a very sensitive and specific marker for nutritional status? (lab)

A

pre-albumin

295
Q

for enteral feedings, HOB should be at what degree?

A

30-45, but 90 is OPTIMAL

296
Q

only definitive way to test placement of feeding tube?

A

xray

297
Q

clinical reasoning involves using what?

A

evidence based practice

298
Q

what happens during assessment?

A

collecting data on client’s health status

299
Q

what are the 3 components of the assessment?

A

interview, physical exam, observation

300
Q

objective vs subjective?

A

objective = observable/measurable subjective = “I feel” statements by client

301
Q

establishing rapport and clarifying roles happens during what phase of interview process?

A

introductory phase

302
Q

encouraging expression of feelings happens during what phase of interview process?

A

concluding phase

303
Q

components of physical assessment?

A

inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

304
Q

nursing diagnosis definition; give example

A

a human response to an actual or potential healthcare problem; ex: constipation, risk for infection

305
Q

components of complete nursing diagnosis statement

A

diagnostic label, r/t factors and defining characteristics (AEB)

306
Q

what is the PES version of nursing diagnosis statement?

A

Problem, Etiology, Signs+Symptoms

307
Q

re: nursing process, outcomes need to be what? (3 things)

A

measurable, realistic, patient-focused

308
Q

which component of the nursing process helps to guide nursing activities and where you establish priority?

A

planning

309
Q

which component of the nursing process is the action phase and where nursing care is provided?

A

implementation

310
Q

if during evaluation, you determine the intervention was UNsuccessful, what should happen?

A

reassess patient and create new plan/try again

311
Q

which tasks can be delegated ? what kind of tasks should never be delegated ?

A

CAN be delegated - psychomotorCANNOT - anything involving teaching, assessment, evaluation, clinical judgment

312
Q

describe stage 1 pressure ulcer

A

non-blanchable redness, skin intact

313
Q

describe stage 2 pressure ulcer

A

top layer of epidermis is gone; partial thickness loss, open ulcer

314
Q

describe stage 3 pressure ulcer

A

full thickness loss; subcutaneous tissue visible, slough + eschar may be present

315
Q

describe stage 4 pressure ulcer

A

tendon, muscle, bone visible

316
Q

describe what an unstageable pressure ulcer means

A

base of wound cannot be seen and therefore not staged

317
Q

how often should people be repositioned?

A

q 2 hour

318
Q

what are the phases of wound healing + times?

A
  1. hemostasis (immediate clot) - STAT2. inflammatory (dilation) - up to day 33. proliferation (new skin - epithelialization and granulation) - 3 days - weeks4. maturation - weeks - years
319
Q

what is it called when an incision has separated?

A

dehiscence

320
Q

what is it called when organs have protruded through abdomen?

A

evisceration

321
Q

what is a tube like pathway between 2 organs or to outside of body called?

A

fistula

322
Q

if there is a surgical wound, who is the only person that can remove the dressing?

A

surgeon!!

323
Q

which fire extinguisher should you use for chemical or electrical fires?

A

CO2 + dry chemical

324
Q

which fire extinguisher should you use for metals?

A

powder

325
Q

how long it takes to fall asleep refers to what?

A

sleep latency

326
Q

most vital signs and brain activity DECREASES during which cycle of sleep?

A

NON-REM

327
Q

when does an infant’s circadian rhythm develop?

A

2-3 months

328
Q

increased sleep latency and decreased overall time of sleep could be indicative of what?

A

insomnia

329
Q

what is the autoimmune disorder marked by cataplexy + sleep attacks?

A

narcolepsy

330
Q

what nutrient is extremely important to maintain with restless leg syndrome and periodic limb movement disorder?

A

iron :)

331
Q

sensory perception is facilitated by which system?

A

reticular activating system

332
Q

the reticular activating system facilitates what?

A

sensory perception

333
Q

insomnia, restlessness, decreased ability to concentrate and anxiety could be caused by what?

A

sensory overload

334
Q

confusion, depression, hallucinations, delirium could be caused by what?

A

sensory deprivation

335
Q

describe how you would help a visually impaired person ambulate in the hospital

A

stand on their non-dominant side and have them use their non-dominant hand to hold onto your arm. keep their dominant hand free to explore environment

336
Q

inflammatory response goal = ?

A

contain the microbe and limit the injury

337
Q

5 signs of local inflammation

A

erythema, edema, pain, heat, functional impairment

338
Q

5 signs of systemic inflammation

A

increased WBCs, fever, malaise, muscle aches, anorexia

339
Q

what vital sign changes would you see with inflammatory response?

A

increased HR, RR, temp

340
Q

endotoxins are released by which microbe? what do they do?

A

bacteriathey exacerbate the inflammatory response

341
Q

with a compromised immune system, you may see what happen to the WBCs?

A

decreased level - this means they may not mount an expected immune response

342
Q

re: infection, why do we worry about chronic stress (hyperglycemia)?

A

it’s a perfect environment for bacterial growth

343
Q

re: stages of infection, when do you see non-specific symptoms and when do you see specific symptoms and lab tests would be ordered?

A

non-specific : prodromalspecific/labs: acute

344
Q

what is sepsis?

A

systemic inflammatory response that can cause shock and decreased perfusion

345
Q

s + s of SIRS? need 2 to call it

A

hyper or hypothermia, >90HR, >20RR, >12k or <4k WBC

346
Q

what is leukocytosis?

A

increase in WBCs

347
Q

a shift to the left is referring to what? when do we see this?

A

more immature granulocytes trying to fight infection b/c not enough neutrophils can be produced. we see this with prolonged/chronic infection

348
Q

what’s an early sepsis indicator? this level will rise? (>4)

A

lactate

349
Q

primary goal of home health care?

A

self-care and help them function on their own :)

350
Q

home health care is all about what?

A

maintaining ADLs

351
Q

re: discharge planning, what is basic/universal?

A

self care and illness teaching

352
Q

re: discharge planning, what is simple referral?

A

referring to community resources

353
Q

re: discharge planning, what is complex referral?

A

referring to discharge planner, LTCF, rehab facility

354
Q

what is the priority (easiest/quickest) intervention for oxygenation issues?

A

raise HOB :)

355
Q

what would you see clinically with elevated CO2 in the body?

A

tachypnea

356
Q

what moves from the pulmonary artery to the alveoli?

A

CO2

357
Q

what moves from the alveoli to the pulmonary atery?

A

O2

358
Q

what is the reflexive response to airway irritation?

A

cough

359
Q

level 1 SOB = ?

A

after walking self-paced mile

360
Q

level 2 SOB = ?

A

after walking flight of stairs / 100 yds

361
Q

level 3 SOB = ?

A

impacts ADLs***

362
Q

level 4 SOB = ?

A

no activity

363
Q

what is orthopnea?

A

SOB while lying down

364
Q

what is tactile fremitus?

A

being able to hear the vibration of air against chest wall

365
Q

what can increase tactile fremitus?

A

consolidation / fluid in the lungs

366
Q

what can decrease tactile fremitus?

A

fluid in the pleural space

367
Q

describe crackles

A

short, popping sounds - alveoli popping open - caused by fluid build up from pneumonia, CHF, pulmonary edema can’t be cleared by coughing

368
Q

describe rhonchi

A

snoring, moaning sound - caused by obstruction or bronchitis - may be cleared by couching

369
Q

describe wheeze

A

musical, high-pitched sound - caused by asthma or obstruction or emphysema

370
Q

describe pleural friction rub

A

scratchy, grating sound - caused by inflammation of the pleura of lungs

371
Q

O2 saturation goal for healthy person

A

> 95%

372
Q

describe end tidal carbon monoxide monitoring

A

more accurate than pulse oximetry; real time data; attached to nasal cannula

373
Q

are pulmonary functioning tests better for acute or chronic breathing issues?

A

chronic

374
Q

for mild level of hypoxemia, what would you see for PaO2?

A

60-80

375
Q

for mild level of hypoxemia, what would you see for SpO2?

A

91-95

376
Q

for moderate level of hypoxemia, what would you see for PaO2?

A

40-60

377
Q

for moderate level of hypoxemia, what would you see for SpO2?

A

74-91

378
Q

for severe level of hypoxemia, what would you see for PaO2?

A

<40

379
Q

for severe level of hypoxemia, what would you see for SpO2?

A

<74

380
Q

what is the normal pH value?

A

3.5-4.5

381
Q

what is the normal PaCO2 value?

A

35-45

382
Q

what is the normal HCO3 value?

A

22-26

383
Q

what is the normal PaO2 value?

A

80-100

384
Q

what is the normal SpO2 value?

A

95-100%

385
Q

what is the normal ETCO2? (end tidal)

A

35-45

386
Q

re: oxygenation, if client has one bad lung, how should they be positioned?

A

bad lung UP, so it can perfuse and work some :)

387
Q

ambulation + incentive spirometer can help to prevent what?

A

pneumonia and atelectasis

388
Q

re: nasal cannula, what is % of O2 for 1L?

A

24%

389
Q

re: nasal cannula, what is % of O2 for 2L?

A

28%

390
Q

re: nasal cannula, what is % of O2 for 3L?

A

32%

391
Q

re: nasal cannula, what is % of O2 for 4L?

A

36%

392
Q

at how many liters of O2 therapy should you add humidifier?

A

at 4L

393
Q

most common cause of stridor + intervention for it

A

tongue obstruction –> lay on side

394
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with the following vital signs: Blood pressure 128 / 72 mm Hg Heart Rate 110 beats per minute Respiratory Rate 22 breaths per minute Oxygen saturation 98% Pain level: headache reported at a 2/10 Temperature: 40 degrees Celcius The PRN orders for the client include acetaminophen for fever, metoprolol for tachycardia, oxygen for hypoxia, and oxycodone for pain. Which intervention takes priority?

A

Acetaminophen The client has a fever, tachycardia, tachypnea and pain at a 2/10. A fever correlates with tachycardia and tachypnea and correcting the fever will address all of these concerns in addition to the headache. Metoprolol would only address the heart rate. Oxycodone would address pain and decrease respiratory rate. Oxygen may help with respiratory rate but with saturation of 98% oxygen is not indicated.

395
Q

sleep latency […]

A

sleep latency how long it takes to fall asleep

396
Q

sleep health (3) elements […]

A

sleep health (3) elements ∙Sleep latency ∙How often one wakes up ∙Is it easy to wake up

397
Q

3 physical Consequences of poor sleep (what 3 things increase) […]

A

3 physical Consequences of poor sleep (what 3 things increase) ∙Increased blood pressure ∙Increased cortisol ∙Increased levels of cytokines

398
Q

NREM vs REM NREM : tissue restorative processes REM: […]

A

NREM vs REM NREM : tissue restorative processes REM: cognitive restoration and memory

399
Q

NREM vs REM NREM : […] REM: cognitive restoration and memory

A

NREM vs REM NREM : tissue restorative processes REM: cognitive restoration and memory

400
Q

how long does it take average adult to reach REM? […]

A

how long does it take average adult to reach REM? 90 minutes

401
Q

NREM VS REM and brain activity: […]

A

NREM VS REM and brain activity: NREM: decreases from awake. REM: increases in some areas compared to NREM

402
Q

NREM vs REM HR and BP: NREM both decrease from wakefullness REM […]

A

NREM vs REM HR and BP: NREM both decrease from wakefullness REM increases compared to NREM and BP highly variable

403
Q

NREM vs REM HR and BP: NREM […] REM increases compared to NREM and BP highly variable

A

NREM vs REM HR and BP: NREM both decrease from wakefullness REM increases compared to NREM and BP highly variable

404
Q

What physiologic variabes decrease in NREM and which increase (when compared to wakefulness) ? Decrease (9): […] increase: (1) airway resistance

A

What physiologic variabes decrease in NREM and which increase (when compared to wakefulness) ? Decrease (9): brain activity, HR and BP, SNS activity, Muscle tone, Blood flow to the brain, respirations, body temp, swallowing increase: (1) airway resistance

405
Q

What physiologic variabes decrease in NREM and which increase (when compared to wakefulness) ? Decrease (9): brain activity, HR and BP, SNS activity, Muscle tone, Blood flow to the brain, respirations, body temp, swallowing increase: (1) […]

A

What physiologic variabes decrease in NREM and which increase (when compared to wakefulness) ? Decrease (9): brain activity, HR and BP, SNS activity, Muscle tone, Blood flow to the brain, respirations, body temp, swallowing increase: (1) airway resistance

406
Q

congruent communication vs incongruent communication […]

A

congruent communication vs incongruent communication when the verbal and the non verbal align is congruent and incongruent is when they don’t

407
Q

What are some situations where communication may not occur? ∙When the patient is‚Ķ […]

A

What are some situations where communication may not occur? ∙When the patient is‚Ķ highly emotional, asleep, too many visits from HCP, defensive, showing manipulative or impulsive behaviors

408
Q

3 phases of the nurse patient relationship […]

A

3 phases of the nurse patient relationship ∙Orientation ∙Working ∙Termination

409
Q

What are the three elements of orientation, when/where does it occur? […]

A

What are the three elements of orientation, when/where does it occur? ∙Introduction occurs during report which should always be given at the bedside. ∙Agreements ∙Goal

410
Q

Aspects of the working phase of nurse-pt relationship: […]

A

Aspects of the working phase of nurse-pt relationship: develop solution, nurse is advocate, nurse is coach,

411
Q

aspects of the termination phase of the nurse pt relationship and when does it occur: […]

A

aspects of the termination phase of the nurse pt relationship and when does it occur: ∙Evaluate patient response to solutions ∙Discharge planning ∙when? end-of-shift or discharge

412
Q

advocacy in the nurse pt relationship: […]

A

advocacy in the nurse pt relationship: AVOID “your doctor is right” mentality make sure pt has the needed knowledge facilitate communication between doctor and patient. make sure pt has access to other disciplines or treatments

413
Q

what is empathy […]

A

what is empathy putting yourself in their shoes. feeling what they feel from their frame of reference

414
Q

positive regard in nurse pt relationship: […]

A

positive regard in nurse pt relationship: accepting a patient as they are in a non judgemental way. IE the pt is not their disease.

415
Q

3 elements of therapeutic communication: […]

A

3 elements of therapeutic communication: ∙Empathy Self Awareness and Self-Reflection ∙Positive regard

416
Q

cognitive reframing: […]

A

cognitive reframing: alter your perception of something to a more positive light ie: instead of - what if I mess up med admin? think of : what can I do to prepare for med admin?

417
Q

therapeutic techniques: offering self: […] open ended questions: […] opening remarks: […] restatement: repeating to ensure you understand reflection: a question directed at a patient to clarify what they mean. ie: this medicine is icky! You don’t like the way it tastes focusing: asking goal directed questions to direct the pt’s train of thought.

A

therapeutic techniques: offering self: making oneself available to listen to the patient ie, I will walk with you for awhile open ended questions: asking questions that envorage the patient to express concerns opening remarks: using general staements based upon observations to initiate dialogue restatement: repeating to ensure you understand reflection: a question directed at a patient to clarify what they mean. ie: this medicine is icky! You don’t like the way it tastes focusing: asking goal directed questions to direct the pt’s train of thought.

418
Q

therapeutic techniques: offering self: making oneself available to listen to the patient ie, I will walk with you for awhile open ended questions: asking questions that envorage the patient to express concerns opening remarks: using general staements based upon observations to initiate dialogue restatement: […] reflection: […] focusing: […]

A

therapeutic techniques: offering self: making oneself available to listen to the patient ie, I will walk with you for awhile open ended questions: asking questions that envorage the patient to express concerns opening remarks: using general staements based upon observations to initiate dialogue restatement: repeating to ensure you understand reflection: a question directed at a patient to clarify what they mean. ie: this medicine is icky! You don’t like the way it tastes focusing: asking goal directed questions to direct the pt’s train of thought.

419
Q

encouraging elaboration: […]

A

encouraging elaboration: helping patient to describe more fully their concerns or the thing you’re discussing

420
Q

therapeutic techniques seeking clarification: […] silence:[…] summarizing: […] looking at alternatives: […]

A

therapeutic techniques seeking clarification: when you don’t understand what the pt is saying silence:allowing for a pause that gives nurse and patient time to think about convo summarizing: summarizing the important parts of a convo by condensing what was said. looking at alternatives: helps the patient see options. ie what will we do differently next tiem you feel sad?

421
Q

Tips for communication with children and adolescents […]

A

Tips for communication with children and adolescents ∙Eye level ∙Speak gently and calm ∙Control body movements

422
Q

tips for using an interpreter: […]

A

tips for using an interpreter: speak to patient directly, avoid using family member, allow plenty of time to have discussion

423
Q

what to NOT do in pt communication(4) and relationships(2) […]

A

what to NOT do in pt communication(4) and relationships(2) false reassurances “you will be fine” giving advice changing the subject “lets stop talking about your past traume being moralistic “you are a good patient” non professional involvement in their lives savior menatlity, that the patient needs you to recieve the best care possible.

424
Q

nonspecific natural defenses: […]

A

nonspecific natural defenses: skin, cilia, secretions(tears, gastric juice), inflammation, fever and phagocytosis

425
Q

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, […] b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

A

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

426
Q

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do […] basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

A

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

427
Q

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? […] monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

A

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

428
Q

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of […] t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

A

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

429
Q

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? […]

A

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

430
Q

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill […] eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

A

what is the action of each WBC neutrophils: what do they do, what do they kill phagocytes, generate fever. break down bacteria and parasites. eosinophils:what do they do increase in allergic reactions and parasitic conditions basophils: what do they do, what are they made of heparin and histamine in their granules unkown purpose t-lymphocytes: types? what do they do, what do they destroy, synthesis of antibodies. recognize antigens. destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells. stimulate b lymphcotes and macrophages. three types of them: helper, killer and supperssor. b- lymphocytes: what do they do ? make antibodies, humoral immunity, memory cells to produce lasting immunity to an antigen monocytes: what do they do ? cells that dispose of cell debris rise in late stage of acute infections

431
Q

Inflammatory Response ∙What is the goal? […] ∙What are the five signs of local inflammation? ∙pain, edema, erythema, heat, func. impairment. HEP FE ∙What are the five signs of systemic inflammation? fever, leukocytosis, malaise, anorexia, sepsis, MFALS

A

Inflammatory Response ∙What is the goal? ∙isolate infectionand contain microorganisms ∙What are the five signs of local inflammation? ∙pain, edema, erythema, heat, func. impairment. HEP FE ∙What are the five signs of systemic inflammation? fever, leukocytosis, malaise, anorexia, sepsis, MFALS

432
Q

Inflammatory Response ∙What is the goal? ∙isolate infectionand contain microorganisms ∙What are the five signs of local inflammation? ∙pain, edema, erythema, heat, func. impairment. HEP FE ∙What are the five signs of systemic inflammation? […]

A

Inflammatory Response ∙What is the goal? ∙isolate infectionand contain microorganisms ∙What are the five signs of local inflammation? ∙pain, edema, erythema, heat, func. impairment. HEP FE ∙What are the five signs of systemic inflammation? fever, leukocytosis, malaise, anorexia, sepsis, MFALS

433
Q

Inflammatory Response ∙What is the goal? ∙isolate infectionand contain microorganisms ∙What are the five signs of local inflammation? […] ∙What are the five signs of systemic inflammation? fever, leukocytosis, malaise, anorexia, sepsis, MFALS

A

Inflammatory Response ∙What is the goal? ∙isolate infectionand contain microorganisms ∙What are the five signs of local inflammation? ∙pain, edema, erythema, heat, func. impairment. HEP FE ∙What are the five signs of systemic inflammation? fever, leukocytosis, malaise, anorexia, sepsis, MFALS

434
Q

‚Ä¢What changes in our routine vital signs may we see with the inflammatory response? […]

A

•What changes in our routine vital signs may we see with the inflammatory response? increase HR, RR, temp

435
Q

types of immunity ∙Cellular Immunity […] ∙Humoral Immunity ∙B lymphocytes have a memory and remain in lymphoid tissue to respond

A

types of immunity ∙Cellular Immunity ∙T cells have a memory of an antigen for a rapid response ∙Humoral Immunity ∙B lymphocytes have a memory and remain in lymphoid tissue to respond

436
Q

types of immunity ∙Cellular Immunity ∙T cells have a memory of an antigen for a rapid response ∙Humoral Immunity […]

A

types of immunity ∙Cellular Immunity ∙T cells have a memory of an antigen for a rapid response ∙Humoral Immunity ∙B lymphocytes have a memory and remain in lymphoid tissue to respond

437
Q

active vs passive immunity ∙Active Immunity (types) […] ∙Passive Immunity (types) […]

A

active vs passive immunity ∙Active Immunity (types) ∙Natural:get virus and body fights it off ∙Vaccination ∙Passive Immunity (types) ∙Placenta to fetus ∙Breast milk to newborn ∙Direct transfusion of antibodies

438
Q

‚Ä¢Opportunistic infection ∙What type of antigen does this refer to? […]

A

‚Ä¢Opportunistic infection ∙What type of antigen does this refer to? an antigen that normally wouldn’t affect a healthy host

439
Q

‚Ä¢Endotoxins ∙Released by which antigen?[…]

A

‚Ä¢Endotoxins ∙Released by which antigen?gram negative bacteria

440
Q

‚Ä¢What does a compromised immune system mean? […]

A

•What does a compromised immune system mean? decrease in WBC count and the body can no longer effectively fight off infections

441
Q

what can compromise a host? (5) […]

A

what can compromise a host? (5) ∙Impaired skin integrity ∙Impaired body function ∙Inadequate nutrition ∙Prolonged stress ∙Medicine or medical problems

442
Q

Four Stages of an Infection […]

A

Four Stages of an Infection 1.Incubation: Pathogen enters, Initial symptoms 2. Prodromal: Vague nonspecific symptoms ie Nausea, fever, weakness, aches, pains 3. Acute Phase: Specific symptoms. Lab tests. Symptom resolution 4.Convalescence. Antibodies formed. Body returns to normal

443
Q

sepsis: […]

A

sepsis: severe infection in the blood stream

444
Q

what do endotoxins do in sepsis? […]

A

what do endotoxins do in sepsis? they induce septic shock

445
Q

what is SIRS and what are its symptoms? […]

A

what is SIRS and what are its symptoms? sytemic inflammatory response two or more of these sxs in order to be SIRS fever or hypothermia tachycardia tachypnea change in WBC outside of normal range

446
Q

consideration with fever in children: […]

A

consideration with fever in children: high fevers are more common in children because they can’t thermoregulate as well.

447
Q

fever considerations in older adults : […]

A

fever considerations in older adults : fevers will rarely happen or not at all because hypothalamus function is more likely impaired.

448
Q

fever after surgery, is it ok? […]

A

fever after surgery, is it ok? one day after surgery it’s normal, two days or more after surgery it’s thought to be abnormal

449
Q

what happens during the flush/crisis phase of fever? […]

A

what happens during the flush/crisis phase of fever? shiver is decreasing and diaphoresis increasing

450
Q

Pain and what the pain type may indicate when swallowing? […] when peeing? […] when breathing? […] at surg site? […]

A

Pain and what the pain type may indicate when swallowing? strep when peeing? UTI when breathing? resp infection at surg site? surg infection

451
Q

No cloze ⁨2⁩ found on card. Please either add a cloze deletion, or use the Empty Cards tool. More information

A

No cloze ⁨2⁩ found on card. Please either add a cloze deletion, or use the Empty Cards tool. More information

452
Q

Urinary or Gastrointestinal Symptoms ∙What appearance might urine or sputum have with an infection? white/yellowish,cloudy ∙What symptoms occur when the small or large intestine is inflamed from a pathogen? […]

A

Urinary or Gastrointestinal Symptoms ∙What appearance might urine or sputum have with an infection? white/yellowish,cloudy ∙What symptoms occur when the small or large intestine is inflamed from a pathogen? diarrhea, increased perstalsis, hyperactive bowel sounds

453
Q

Urinary or Gastrointestinal Symptoms ∙What appearance might urine or sputum have with an infection? […] ∙What symptoms occur when the small or large intestine is inflamed from a pathogen? diarrhea, increased perstalsis, hyperactive bowel sounds

A

Urinary or Gastrointestinal Symptoms ∙What appearance might urine or sputum have with an infection? white/yellowish,cloudy ∙What symptoms occur when the small or large intestine is inflamed from a pathogen? diarrhea, increased perstalsis, hyperactive bowel sounds

454
Q

what is an abcess? […]

A

what is an abcess? pocket of purulent drainage

455
Q

what is leukocytosis? […]

A

what is leukocytosis? increase in WBC count

456
Q

‚Ä¢Neutrophils ∙Normally about […]% of WBCS ∙Higher number means […]

A

‚Ä¢Neutrophils ∙Normally about 50% of WBCS ∙Higher number means body is fighting infection well

457
Q

‚Ä¢Shift to the left meaning? […] ∙Sign of […] […]

A

‚Ä¢Shift to the left meaning? ∙More immature granulocytes (bands) used to fight infection ∙Sign of persistent or severe infection mature neutrophils have depleted

458
Q

‚Ä¢Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) ∙Reduced with what patients? […]

A

‚Ä¢Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) ∙Reduced with what patients? chemotherapy pt

459
Q

Neutropenic Precautions , why? […]

A

Neutropenic Precautions , why? (ANC too low)

460
Q

Neutropenic Precautions what to do? […]

A

Neutropenic Precautions what to do? - hand hygiene ∙Limit visitors and avoid crowds ∙If a visitor is coming ∙Visitors will wear mask, gloves and gown to be able to enter the room ∙When patient leaves the room, they have to wear a mask ∙Gentle oral care, avoid flossing, Avoid razors, no rectal temperatures ∙Remove stagnant water, fresh flowers, or potted plants

461
Q

what do low neutrophil levels indicate? […]

A

what do low neutrophil levels indicate? persistent infection

462
Q

‚Ä¢Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate –Increased with infection –Can be impacted by other factors, so not used alone for diagnosis ∙Lactate […]

A

‚Ä¢Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate –Increased with infection –Can be impacted by other factors, so not used alone for diagnosis ∙Lactate ∙from Anerobic metabolism ∙Decreased oxygen to tissues ∙Sepsis indicator ∙Lactate changes occur before hypotension sets in from shock

463
Q

‚Ä¢Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate […] ∙Lactate ∙from Anerobic metabolism ∙Decreased oxygen to tissues ∙Sepsis indicator ∙Lactate changes occur before hypotension sets in from shock

A

‚Ä¢Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate –Increased with infection –Can be impacted by other factors, so not used alone for diagnosis ∙Lactate ∙from Anerobic metabolism ∙Decreased oxygen to tissues ∙Sepsis indicator ∙Lactate changes occur before hypotension sets in from shock

464
Q

types of cultures: […]

A

types of cultures: ∙Blood, nasal swab, sputum, throat, wound, body cavity, stool

465
Q

‚Ä¢Situations that call for obtaining cultures when an infection is suspected […]

A

‚Ä¢Situations that call for obtaining cultures when an infection is suspected ∙Productive cough ∙Invasive line ∙Purulent drainage ∙Parasites

466
Q

if you administer abx at 800, what level is drawn at 730? peak or trough? […]

A

if you administer abx at 800, what level is drawn at 730? peak or trough? trough

467
Q

what should you do if you find edema in the extremeties? […]

A

what should you do if you find edema in the extremeties? elevate extremeties

468
Q

how often should a person be turned? […]

A

how often should a person be turned? every 2 hrs

469
Q

can you give aspirin to kids? NO risk of […] must be older than […]

A

can you give aspirin to kids? NO risk of reyes syndrome must be older than 3 yrs

470
Q

how do you manage a fever? […]

A

how do you manage a fever? increase fluids and give antipyretics

471
Q

some examples of comfort measures for a patient: […]

A

some examples of comfort measures for a patient: warm blankets, analgesics, tepid bath

472
Q

when treating a fever, do you want to make a patient shiver more? […]

A

when treating a fever, do you want to make a patient shiver more? no! try not to make them shiver more. IE dont’ give them cold water if thye’re hot.

473
Q

where does community health take place? […]

A

where does community health take place? anywhere outside of the hospital

474
Q

What factors into the functional ability of patients in home health? […]

A

What factors into the functional ability of patients in home health? ∙Developmental stage ∙ ∙Health promotion and safety ∙ ∙Cognitive and sensory deficits ∙ ∙Decreased mobility ∙Altered elimination ∙ ∙Altered nutrition

475
Q

what does a nurse need to function in community health? […]

A

what does a nurse need to function in community health? a generalist background, knowledge of resources to connect pt with what they need.

476
Q

‚Ä¢Initiation […] ∙Pre-visit […] ∙In-home […] ∙Termination […] ∙Post-visit […]

A

‚Ä¢Initiation Figure out the reason or purpose Contact family ∙Pre-visit Set up initial visit Communicate purpose to family ∙In-home Build rapport Set goals Nursing process ∙Termination Summarize visit Plan future visits ∙Post-visit Documentation Plan for next visit

477
Q

Information home health collects about the home […]

A

Information home health collects about the home is it clean, safe, is it kept up, infestation?, functioning utilities, adequate food storage

478
Q

what level of discharge plan is each? refer someone to skilled nursing facility […] referring someone to a support group[…] teaching a pt with diabetes […]

A

what level of discharge plan is each? refer someone to skilled nursing facility complex referring someone to a support groupsimple teaching a pt with diabetes basic, universal

479
Q

who can be a case manager: […]

A

who can be a case manager: social worker, nurse, other member of HC team

480
Q

home health or case management, which takes into account ability to pay for care? […] home health or case management, which is focused on promote optimal health […]

A

home health or case management, which takes into account ability to pay for care? case management home health or case management, which is focused on promote optimal health home health

481
Q

Safety concerns for Newborn and Infant ∙Sleep? […] ∙Dangerous objects ∙Cords, tablecloths, plastic bags, bottles, cans ∙In the hospital ∙Bulb syringe and suction device

A

Safety concerns for Newborn and Infant ∙Sleep? ∙On the back to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) ∙Dangerous objects ∙Cords, tablecloths, plastic bags, bottles, cans ∙In the hospital ∙Bulb syringe and suction device

482
Q

Safety concerns for Newborn and Infant ∙Sleep? ∙On the back to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) ∙Dangerous objects […] ∙In the hospital ∙Bulb syringe and suction device

A

Safety concerns for Newborn and Infant ∙Sleep? ∙On the back to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) ∙Dangerous objects ∙Cords, tablecloths, plastic bags, bottles, cans ∙In the hospital ∙Bulb syringe and suction device

483
Q

Safety concerns for Newborn and Infant ∙Sleep? ∙On the back to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) ∙Dangerous objects ∙Cords, tablecloths, plastic bags, bottles, cans ∙In the hospital […]

A

Safety concerns for Newborn and Infant ∙Sleep? ∙On the back to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) ∙Dangerous objects ∙Cords, tablecloths, plastic bags, bottles, cans ∙In the hospital ∙Bulb syringe and suction device

484
Q

Safety concerns for Toddler and Preschooler bathtub? inlcude nonslip mats safety zones: […]

A

Safety concerns for Toddler and Preschooler bathtub? inlcude nonslip mats safety zones: zones where kids can safely be in the kitchen for example

485
Q

Safety concerns for Toddler and Preschooler bathtub? […] safety zones: zones where kids can safely be in the kitchen for example

A

Safety concerns for Toddler and Preschooler bathtub? inlcude nonslip mats safety zones: zones where kids can safely be in the kitchen for example

486
Q

safety teachings for school age and adolescent children: […]

A

safety teachings for school age and adolescent children: buddy sytem, peer pressure, sexual health, appropriate equipment for the activity

487
Q

Safety concerns for Adults and Older Adults […]

A

Safety concerns for Adults and Older Adults vehicle accidents functional changes related to injuries medication related injuries (like falling)

488
Q

Consequences of Falls […]

A

Consequences of Falls ∙Pain ∙ ∙Disability ∙ ∙Financial ∙ ∙Death

489
Q

Neurological Assessments related to Safety […]

A

Neurological Assessments related to Safety ∙Judgment ∙Sensory ∙Vision and Hearing ∙Orientation? Are they confused? ∙Mental Status

490
Q

do you need an order to impose a restraint? […]

A

do you need an order to impose a restraint? yes!

491
Q

how do you know when to remove a restraint? […]

A

how do you know when to remove a restraint? theyre only ordered for a specific time period

492
Q

Principles with Restraints restraints must be ordered before they are applied T or F? T ∙Nurses must go through training to use restraints ∙Specific documentation is required for restraints (4) ∙Behavior leading to restraint, alternatives to restraints attempted, release from restraints, patient needs being met ∙Nursing Considerations with restraints […]

A

Principles with Restraints restraints must be ordered before they are applied T or F? T ∙Nurses must go through training to use restraints ∙Specific documentation is required for restraints (4) ∙Behavior leading to restraint, alternatives to restraints attempted, release from restraints, patient needs being met ∙Nursing Considerations with restraints Ensure restraints do not cause injury Facilitate ADLs and comfort

493
Q

Principles with Restraints restraints must be ordered before they are applied T or F? […] ∙Nurses must […] to use restraints ∙Specific documentation is required for restraints (4) ∙Behavior leading to restraint, alternatives to restraints attempted, release from restraints, patient needs being met ∙Nursing Considerations with restraints Ensure restraints do not cause injury Facilitate ADLs and comfort

A

Principles with Restraints restraints must be ordered before they are applied T or F? T ∙Nurses must go through training to use restraints ∙Specific documentation is required for restraints (4) ∙Behavior leading to restraint, alternatives to restraints attempted, release from restraints, patient needs being met ∙Nursing Considerations with restraints Ensure restraints do not cause injury Facilitate ADLs and comfort

494
Q

Principles with Restraints restraints must be ordered before they are applied T or F? T ∙Nurses must go through training to use restraints ∙Specific documentation is required for restraints (4) […] ∙Nursing Considerations with restraints Ensure restraints do not cause injury Facilitate ADLs and comfort

A

Principles with Restraints restraints must be ordered before they are applied T or F? T ∙Nurses must go through training to use restraints ∙Specific documentation is required for restraints (4) ∙Behavior leading to restraint, alternatives to restraints attempted, release from restraints, patient needs being met ∙Nursing Considerations with restraints Ensure restraints do not cause injury Facilitate ADLs and comfort

495
Q

can a student nurse apply restraints? […]

A

can a student nurse apply restraints? NO NO NO

496
Q

RACE and PASS (Fire Safety) RACE: […] PASS: […]

A

RACE and PASS (Fire Safety) RACE: rescue the pt pull the alarm confine the fire evacuate PASS: pull the pin aim the nozzle squeeze the handle sweep back and forth

497
Q

three ways to protect yourself from radiation? […]

A

three ways to protect yourself from radiation? minimize time of exposure maximize distance from source use appropriate shielding

498
Q

what to do when caring for a pt that is exposed to radiation […]

A

what to do when caring for a pt that is exposed to radiation wear lead shield or apron use gloves (even when handling bodily fluids) have patient provide self care as much as possible

499
Q

levels of disease prevention seeks to prevent a disease or condition […]

A

levels of disease prevention seeks to prevent a disease or condition primary prevention

500
Q

immunizations are an example of […] prevention

A

immunizations are an example of primary prevention

Foundations of Nursing (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions