Streptococcus and Enterococcus Flashcards

1
Q

Streptococcus spp. and Enterococcus spp. belong to the family ___________.

A

Streptococcaceae

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2
Q

A characteristic which differentiates Streptococcus spp. and Enterococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp. and Micrococcus spp.

A

Catalase Reaction, wherein Streptococcus spp. and Enterococcus spp. are CATALASE NEGATIVE

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3
Q

Describe the appearance of both Streptococcus spp. and Enterococcus spp.

A
  • Gram (+) cocci, in pairs, and in chains (common for streptococci)
  • Enterococcus spp. appears more elongated
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4
Q

What are the aerotolerance levels of Streptococcus spp. and Enterococcus spp.?

A
  • Facultative Anaerobes (majority)
  • Aerotolerant Anaerobes
  • Capnophilic
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5
Q

Capnophilic species of streptococci and enterococci requires ______________.

A

More than 5-10% amount of CO2

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6
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Streptococcus spp. and Enterococcus spp. can ferment glucose with gas.

A

False (w/o gas)

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7
Q

Describe the colonies of Streptococcus spp. and Enterococcus spp.

A

Small (pinpoint) and transparent

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8
Q

________ of the group-specific carbohydrate is determined by an amino sugar.

A

Serologic Specificity

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9
Q

Serologic Specificity of the group-specific carbohydrate is determined by an ___________.

A

amino sugar

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10
Q

SEROLOGIC SPECIFICITY OF THE CELL WALL GROUP-SPECIFIC SUBSTANCE

Group A streptococci

A

Rhamnose-N-acetylglucosamine

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11
Q

SEROLOGIC SPECIFICITY OF THE CELL WALL GROUP-SPECIFIC SUBSTANCE

Group B streptococci

A

Rhamnose-glucosamine polysaccharide

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12
Q

SEROLOGIC SPECIFICITY OF THE CELL WALL GROUP-SPECIFIC SUBSTANCE

Group C streptococci

A

Rhamnose-N-acetylgalactosamine

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13
Q

SEROLOGIC SPECIFICITY OF THE CELL WALL GROUP-SPECIFIC SUBSTANCE

Group D streptococci

A

Glycerol teichoic acid containing D-alanine and glucose

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14
Q

SEROLOGIC SPECIFICITY OF THE CELL WALL GROUP-SPECIFIC SUBSTANCE

Group F streptococci

A

Glucopyranosyl-N-acetylgalactosamine

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15
Q

These are exotoxins which serves as a virulence factor that damages the intact RBC.

A

Hemolysin

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16
Q

Identify the Hemolytic Pattern

Description: Complete lysis of the RBCs around the colony.
Apperance: Clear area around the colony.

A

β-hemolytic pattern

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17
Q

Identify the Hemolytic Pattern

Description: No lysis of the RBCs around the colony.
Apperance: No change in agar

A

γ-hemolytic pattern or non-hemolytic pattern

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18
Q

Identify the Hemolytic Pattern

Description: Partial lysis of the RBCs around the colony.
Apperance: Greenish discoloration of area around the colony.

A

α-hemolytic pattern

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19
Q

Identify the Hemolytic Pattern

Description: Small area of intact RBCs around the colony surrounded by a wider zone of complete hemolysis.

A

α’-hemolytic pattern

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20
Q

Which hemolytic pattern is not associated with streptococci?

A

α’-hemolytic pattern

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21
Q

What was the classification scheme developed by Rebecca Lancefield?

A

Lancefield Classification

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22
Q

________ developed a classification scheme which divided streptococci into serologic groups, designated by letters.

A

Rebecca Lancefield

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23
Q

When was the Lancefield Classification developed?

A

1930

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24
Q

The Lancefield Classification is based on the __________.

A

C-carbohydrates

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25
Q

Where are C-carbohydrates found?

A

In the cell wall

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26
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

Lancefield Group Antigen

A

A

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27
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

Hemolysis Type

A

β

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28
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

Common Terms

A

Group A streptococci

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29
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

Disease(s) Associations

A
  • Rheumatoid Fever
  • Scarlet Fever
  • Pharyngitis
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • Pyogenic Infections
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30
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

Lancefield Group Antigen

A

B

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31
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

Hemolysis Type

A

β

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32
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

Common Terms

A

Group B streptococci

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33
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

Disease Associations

A
  • Neonatal sepsis
  • Meningitis
  • Puerperal fever
  • Pyogenic infections
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34
Q

Streptococcus dysgalactiae and Streptococcus equi

Lancefield Group Antigen

A

C

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35
Q

Streptococcus dysgalactiae and Streptococcus equi

Hemolysis Type

A

β

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36
Q

Streptococcus dysgalactiae and Streptococcus equi

Common Terms

A

Group C streptococci

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37
Q

Streptococcus dysgalactiae and Streptococcus equi

Disease Association(s)

A
  • Pharyngitis
  • Impetigo
  • Pyogenic Infections
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38
Q

Streptococcus bovis

Lancefield Group Antigen

A

D

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39
Q

Streptococcus bovis

Hemolysis Type

A

α, none

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40
Q

Streptococcus bovis

Common Terms

A

Non-enterococcus member of viridans streptococci

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41
Q

Streptococcus bovis

Disease Associations

A
  • Endocarditis
  • UTIs
  • Pyogenic infections
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42
Q

Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium

Lancefield Group Antigen

A

D

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43
Q

Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium

Hemolysis Type

A

α, β, none

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44
Q

Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium

Common Terms

A

Enterococcus

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45
Q

Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium

Disease Association(s)

A
  • UTIs
  • Pyogenic infections
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46
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Lancefield Group Antigen

A

None

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47
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Hemolysis Pattern

A

α

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48
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Common Terms

A

Pneumococcus

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49
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Disease Association(s)

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Meningitis
  • Pyogenic infections
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50
Q

Enumerate the different subgroups under Viridans Streptococci

A

MNEMONIC: BAMMSA
* Streptococcus bovis
* Streptococcus anginosus
* Streptococcus mutans
* Streptococcus mitis
* Streptococcus salivarius

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51
Q

Which Lancefield Group Antigen is acid-stable?

A

B

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52
Q

It is encoded by the gene “emm.”

A

M protein

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53
Q

M protein is encoded by the gene ______.

A

emm

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54
Q

How is M protein virulent?

A
  • Resists phagocytosis
  • Attach to mucosal cells
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55
Q

S. pyogenes is typically found in the __________.

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

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56
Q

There are ____ serotypes of M protein.

A

> 150 (Mahon: >80)

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57
Q

________ most common serotype of M protein.

A

M1 Protein (in pharyngitis)

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58
Q

Protein F is also known as ___________.

A

Fibronectin-binding Protein

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59
Q

How is Protein F and Lipoteichoic Acid virulent?

A

They allow the bacteria to adhere to epithelial cells

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60
Q

They secure the attachment of streptococci to the oral mucosal cells.

A

Lipoteichoic acid, together with M protein and protein F

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61
Q

Lipoteichoic acid, together with M protein and protein F, _______________.

A

secure attachment of streptococci to the oral mucosal cells

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62
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Hyaluronic Acid Capsule is weakly immunogenic.

A

True

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63
Q

How is hyaluronic acid capsule virulent?

A
  • Impedes opsonized phagocytosis
  • Allows the bacteria to mask its antigen and remain unrecognized by the host
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64
Q

____ is most noticeable in young cultures.

A

Hyaluronic Acid Capsule

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65
Q

Hyaluronic acid capsule is most noticeable in _________.

A

young cultures (18-24 hours old)

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66
Q

Streptolysin O (SLO)

Hemolysis on BAP

A

Anaerobically

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67
Q

Which streptolysin is anaerobic?

A

Streptolysin O (SLO)

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68
Q

Streptolysin S

Hemolysis on BAP

A

Aerobically

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69
Q

Which streptolysin is aerobic?

A

Streptolysin S

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70
Q

Streptolysin O (SLO)

Hemolysin

A

O hemolysin

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71
Q

Which hemolysin is oxygen-labile?

A

O hemolysin

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72
Q

Streptolysin S

Hemolysin

A

S hemolysin

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73
Q

Which hemolysin is oxygen stable?

A

S hemolysin

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74
Q

Streptolysin O (SLO)

Cells lysed

A

Leukocytes, platelets, and RBCs

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75
Q

Streptolysin S

Cells lysed

A

Leukocytes

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76
Q

Streptolysin O (SLO)

Immunogenicity

A

Highly immunogenic

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77
Q

Which streptolysin is highly immunogenic?

A

Streptolysin O (SLO)

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78
Q

Streptolysin S

Immunogenicity

A

Non-immunogenic

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79
Q

Which streptolysin is non-immunogenic?

A

Streptolysin S

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80
Q

Streptolysin O also serves as an __________

A

Antigen

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81
Q

Since SLO is highly immunogenic, it stimulates the host’s immune system to produce antibodies called _________.

A

Anti-streptolysin O antibodies

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82
Q

Anti-streptolysin O antibodies can be detected by ________.

A

Anti-streptolysin O Test

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83
Q

How is Deoxyribonuclease (DNAse) virulent?

A
  • Potent protease that interferes with phagocytosis
  • Contributes to the spread of streptococci by liquefying pus
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84
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
DNAse is not immunogenic

A

False

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85
Q

How does DNAse contribute in the spread of streptococci?

A

By liquefying pus

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86
Q

How is Streptokinase/Fibrinolysin virulent?

A

They are capable of lysing fibrin clots through the action of plasminogen -> plasmin.

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87
Q

________ activates plasminogen for it to be converted into plasmin.

A

Streptokinase

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88
Q

The lysing of fibrin clots allow the Streptococcus pyogenes to _____________.

A

escape and cause infection

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89
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Streptokinase/Fibrinolysin is immunogenic.

A

True

But not specific to GAS, they can also be in Group C and Group G

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90
Q

Hyaluronidase is also known as __________.

A

spreading factor

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91
Q

__________ solubilizes the ground substance in the connective tissue.

A

Hyaluronidase

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92
Q

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are previously known as ________.

A

Erythrogenic Toxins

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93
Q

_______ causes a red spreading rash called Scarlet Fever.

A

Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxins

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94
Q

The red spreading rash caused by Erythrogenic Toxins is known as _______.

A

Scarlet Fever

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95
Q

What are the four exotoxin types found in S. pyogenes?

A

SpeA, SpeB, SpeC, and SpeF

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96
Q

The most common clinical manifestation of GAS infection.

A

Pharyngitis and Tonsillitis

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97
Q

Bacterial Pharyngitis is also known as _________.

A

Strep Throat

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98
Q

Pyodermal infections lead to ______________.

A

Impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, wound infection, arthritis or scarlet fever

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99
Q

If the portal of entry is through the skin, it can possibly cause _______.

A

Erysipelas

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100
Q

Describe the characteristics of an Erysipelas lesion

A

Raised, red, massive brown edema that rapidly advances to the demarcated margin of infection

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101
Q

An acute rapidly spreading infection of the skin which occurs after a mild trauma, burns, wound, and etc.

A

Cellulitis

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102
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Cellulitis is also characterized by erythema.

A

True

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103
Q

How is the lesion in cellulitis different from the lesion in erysipelas?

A
  1. Lesion is not raised (flat)
  2. The line between the involved and uninvolved tissue is indistinct.
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104
Q

There are how many types of Necrotizing Fascitis (NF)?

A

3

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105
Q

Type 1 NF is caused by _______.

A

Vibrio spp.

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106
Q

Type 2 NF is caused by __________.

A

Streptococcus spp.

Commonly GAS

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107
Q

Type 3 NF is caused by __________.

A

Clostridium spp.

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108
Q

Necrotizing Fascitis (NF) is also known as _______.

A

Flesh-eating Disease

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109
Q

_______ is an invasive infection characterized by rapidly progressing inflammation and necrosis of the skin.

A

Necrotizing Fascitis (NF)

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110
Q

This infection involves SpeA, M1 and M3.

A

Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome

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111
Q

A complication after Streptococcus pyogenes infection, wherein rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis follows.

A

Poststreptococcal Sequelae

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112
Q

The common virulence factor for rheumatoid fever is _______.

A

Class 1 M Protein

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113
Q

The common virulence factor for glomerulonephritis is _________.

A

Class 1 and 2 M Protein

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114
Q

Treatment of Choice for poststreptococcal sequelae

A

Penicillin

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115
Q

It is the most commonly utilized virulence factor of S. agalactiae.

A

Capsule

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116
Q

How is the capsule of S. agalactiae virulent?

A

It resists phagocytosis, but is ineffective after opsonization.

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117
Q

What is the main component of the capsule in S. agalactiae?

A

Sialic Acid

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118
Q

These are the products of S. agalactiae, but are not considered to be virulence factors.

A

Hemolysin, DNAse, Neuramidase, Protease, Hyaluronidase, CAMP Factor

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119
Q

What is the infection acquired from S. agalactiae?

A

Invasive Disease of Newborn

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120
Q

How is the invasive disease of newborn acquired?

A
  • Through vertical transmission (mother to offspring)
  • During delivery since S. agalactiae is commonly found in the vaginal canal and rectal area
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121
Q

S. agalactiae is a normal flora of the _________ and _________

A

Vaginal canal and Rectal area

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122
Q

Explain the manner of specimen collection

The infection of the patient came from the upper respiratory tract. How will you get a sample of S. pyogenes?

A

By performing a throat swab

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123
Q

How is a throat swab performed properly?

A

By depressing the tongue and avoiding the uvula, rub a swab over the posterior pharynx and each toncillar area.

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124
Q

Explain the manner of specimen collection

The infection of the patient came from a pyodermal infection. Where will you get a sample of S. pyogenes?

A

On the patient’s wound, lesion, or pus

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125
Q

Explain the manner of specimen collection

The infection of the patient has been found to be systemic. Where will you get a sample of S. pyogenes?

A

In the CSF, blood, or bodily fluids

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126
Q

In collecting a specimen from exudates, it should be ________.

A

Touched with swab

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127
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Transport media is required in collecting S. pyogenes.

A

False

Not necessarily required, pero mas better daw if meron

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128
Q

Explain the manner of specimen collection

The patient is a pregnant woman. Where and how will you get a sample of S. agalactiae?

A

By performing a vaginal canal or rectal swab between 35 and 37 weeks of gestation.

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129
Q

Transport media for S. agalactiae specimen

A
  • Todd-Hewitt Broth
  • Lim Broth
  • TransVag Broth
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130
Q

Todd-Hewitt Broth content

A

10 ug/mL colistin

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131
Q

Lim Broth content

A

15 ug/mL nalidixic acid

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132
Q

TransVag Broth content

A

8 ug/mL gentamicin and 15 ug/mL nalidixic acid

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133
Q

Describe the appearance of S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae when Direct Microscopic Examination is performed.

A

Gram (+) cocci round or oval-shaped, occassionally forming elongated cells

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134
Q

Which medium is used to culture S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae?

A

BAP (with inhibitors such as sulfamethoxazole, colistin, or polymixin B)

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135
Q

Which inhibitors are sometimes used in BAP when culturing S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae?

A
  • Sulfamethoxazole (SMZ)
  • Colistin
  • Polymixin B
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136
Q

Incubation period for S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae

A

18 to 24 hours at 35-37 C aerobically or anaerobically

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137
Q

Describe the appearance of S. pyogenes colonies when performing Macroscopic Examination.

A

Small, transparent, and smooth with a well-defined area of β-hemolysis

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138
Q

Describe the appearance of S. agalactiae colonies when performing Macroscopic Examination.

A

Grayish-white mucoid colonies surrounded by a small zone of β-hemolysis

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139
Q

Which specimen?

Small, transparent, and smooth with a well-defined area of β-hemolysis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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140
Q

Which specimen?

Grayish-white mucoid colonies surrounded by a small zone of β-hemolysis

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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141
Q

When the Streptococcus spp. are cultured from solid media, under microscopic examination, it appears to be ___________.

A

Gram (+) cocci with some short chains

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142
Q

When the Streptococcus spp. are cultured from broth, under microscopic examination, it appears to be ___________.

A

Gram (+) cocci with longer chains

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143
Q

Streptococcus spp. and Enterococcus spp. result in Catalase Test

A

Negative (-)

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144
Q

Which organism is positive in the Bacitracin test?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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145
Q

S. pyogenes is (susceptible/resistant) to the bacitracin test.

A

Susceptible

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146
Q

Which organism is negative in the Bacitracin test?

A

Other β-hemolytic streptococci

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147
Q

Which organism is positive in the Pyrrolidonyl Arylamidase test?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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148
Q

Which organism is negative in the Pyrrolidonyl Arylamidase test?

A

Other β-hemolytic streptococci

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149
Q

Explain the principle of Hippurate Hydrolysis Test

A

Principle: to determine the capability of an organism to hydrolyze hippurate.
* Hippuric Acid → glycine & benzoic acid (hippuricase will hydrolyze)
* Glycine → purple colored products (deaminated by ninhydrin reagent)

Result:
* (+) Deep purple color (S. agalactiae)
* (-) Colorless or slightly yellow pink color or tinge of purple (other β-hemolytic streptococcus

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150
Q

What is the positive result in Hippurate Hydrolysis Test?

A

Deep Purple Color

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151
Q

Which organism is positive in the hippurate hydrolysis test?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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152
Q

What is the negative result in the hippurate hydrolysis test?

A

Colorless or slightly yellow-pink or light purple

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153
Q

Hippuric acid is hydrolyzed by _________ to form glycine and benzoic acid.

A

hippuricase

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154
Q

Hippuric acid is hydrolyzed by hippuricase to form ______ and ________.

A

glycine and benzoic acid

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155
Q

Glycine is deaminated by _________ to form a deep purple colored product.

A

Ninhydrin reagent

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156
Q

Glycine is _________ by ninhydrin reagent to form a deep purple colored product.

A

deaminated

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157
Q

Explain the principle of CAMP Test

A

Principle: detection of diffusible extracellular protein (CAMP factor) that acts synergistically with β-hemolysin of S. aureus to cause enhanced lysis of RBCs.
* β-hemolysin – known factor; detects the presence of the other factor.
* CAMP factor – unknown factor

Result:
* (+) enhanced hemolysis indicated by an arrowhead-shaped zone of beta-hemolysis at the juncture of the two organisms (S. agalactiae)
* (-) no enhancement of hemolysis (other β-hemolytic streptococcus)

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158
Q

It is used to detect diffusible extracellular protein (CAMP factor) that acts synergistically with β-hemolysin of S. aureus to cause enhanced lysis of RBCs.

A

CAMP Test

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159
Q

It is the known factor in CAMP test which detects the presence of other factor.

A

β-hemolysin

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160
Q

It is the unkown factor in CAMP test.

A

CAMP Factor

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161
Q

What is the positive result in CAMP Test?

A

Enhanced hemolysis indicated by an arrowhead-shaped zone of beta-hemolysis at the juncture of the two organisms.

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162
Q

Which organism exhibits a positive result in the CAMP test?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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163
Q

What is the negative result in CAMP Test?

A

No enhancement of hemolysis

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164
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae belongs to the group _________.

A

Viridans Streptococci

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165
Q

Why is S. pneumoniae under Viridans Streptococci?

A

They both exhibit α-hemolytic pattern

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166
Q

Which sub-group of Viridans Streptococci does S. pneumoniae belong?

A

Streptococcus mitis

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167
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is also known as ______.

A

Pneumococcus

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168
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Streptococcus pneumoniae has C-carbohydrate.

A

False

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169
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae has _______.

A

C-substance

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170
Q

C-substance is found in the ________ of S. pneumoniae

A

cell wall

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171
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
S. pneumoniae has a Lancefield Antigen Group

A

False

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172
Q

Treatment of choice for S. pneumoniae

A

Penicillin

173
Q

Virulence factor of S. pneumoniae

A

Capsular Polysaccharide

174
Q

It is used to classify S. pneumoniae into more than 90 serotypes.

A

Capsular Polysaccharide

175
Q

S. pneumoniae strains that lack capsule are ________.

A

Non-pathogenic (Avirulent)

176
Q

Infections associated with S. pneumoniae

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Sinusitis
  • Otitis media
  • Meningitis
  • Bacteremia
177
Q

PCV7 is used in _________.

A

Children

178
Q

PCV13 is used in ______.

A

Children >5 years old

179
Q

PS23 is used in _______.

A

Adults

180
Q

It is a normal microbiota of the upper respiratory tract, female genital tract, and gastrointestinal tract.

A

Viridans Streptococci

181
Q

Viridans means _________.

A

green

182
Q

Viridans Streptococci is named after _________.

A

Its α-hemolytic pattern

183
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Viridans Streptococci is non-fastidious

A

False

184
Q

What are the requirements for the fastidious strains of Viridans Streptococci?

A

CO2

185
Q

Streptococcus mitis group

A
  • S. mitis
  • S. pneumoniae
  • S. sanguis
  • S. oralis
186
Q

Streptococcus mutans group

A
  • S. mutans
  • S. sobrinus
187
Q

Streptococcus salivarius group

A
  • S. salivarius
  • S. vestibularis
188
Q

Streptococcus bovis group

A
  • S. bovis
  • S. equinus
  • S. gallolyticus
  • S. infantarius
  • S. alactolyticus
189
Q

Streptococcus anginosus group

A
  • S. anginosus
  • S. constellatus
  • S. intermedius
190
Q

S. anginosus, S. mutans, S. mitis, S. salivarius

Lancefield Group Antigen

A

A, C, F, G, N

191
Q

Viridans Streptococci is the most common cause of this infection.

A

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

192
Q

Viridans Streptococci can cause oral infections such as _________.

A
  • Gingivitis
  • Dental caries
193
Q

S. anginosus group is a microbiota of the _______.

A

Oral Cavity and GIT

194
Q

Which virulence factor is present in S. anginosus group?

A

Polysaccharide Capsule and Cytolysin

195
Q

How is the polysaccharide capsule and cytolysin of S. anginosus group virulent?

A

They adhere and colonize endocarditis

196
Q

Which virulence factor is present in Groups C and G streptococci?

A

M proteins, SLO, Hyaluronidase, DNAse

197
Q

Which virulence factor is present in Group D streptococci and S. bovis group?

A

D antigen

198
Q

Where will you get a sample of S. pneumoniae and/or Viridans Streptococci specimens?

A

In the Respiratory Tract (RT)

199
Q

It is a diplococci that is characterized by a lancet-shaped morphology.

A

S. pneumoniae

200
Q

What is the appearance of S. pneumoniae that came from effusions under direct microscopic examination?

A

Gram (+) pneumococci with numerous WBCs

201
Q

What is the appearance of S. pneumoniae that came from CSF under direct microscopic examination?

A

Gram (+) cocci in pairs with numerous WBCs

202
Q

What is the appearance of Viridans Streptococci under direct microscopic examination?

A

Gram (+) cocci in chains

203
Q

Which culture media is used for S. pneumoniae and Viridans Streptococcus species?

A
  • Brain Heart Infusion (BHI) w/ 5% sheep’s RBCs
  • Tryptic Soy Broth (TSB) w/ 5% sheep’s RBCs
  • Chocolate Agar Plate (CAP)
204
Q

What is the standard incubation period for S. pneumoniae and Viridans Streptococcus species?

A

18-24 hours at 35-37 C with increase CO2 (placed in candle jars)

205
Q

For every 18% decrease in oxygen, it is equivalent to _______.

A

1% increase in CO2

206
Q

Why is candle jar used for storing BAP?

A

The flame of the candle will combust the remaining oxygen which decreases its amount, and increases the amount of CO2.

207
Q

Which organism is being described?

Round, glistening, wet, mucoid, dome-shaped or doughnut appearance of colonies with a large zone of α-hemolysis.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

208
Q

Which organism is being described?

Coin with a raised rim appearance

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

209
Q

The coin with a raised rim appearance appears when the culture is _____.

A

beyond 24 hours old

210
Q

Which characteristic of S. pneumoniae is responsible for its coin with a raised rim appearance?

A

Autolytic

211
Q

Which organism is being described?

Minute to small, gray, domed, smooth or matte appearance of colonies that are α-hemolytic or non-hemolytic.

A

Viridans Streptococci

212
Q

Appearance of S. pneumoniae under microscopic examination

A

Gram (+) cocci in pairs, or in singly, or in short chains (lancet-shaped)

213
Q

Appearance of Viridans Streptococcus under microscopic examination

A

Gram (+) cocci in pairs and in chains

214
Q

Explain the principle of Optochin Test

A

Principle: to determine the effect of optochin on an organism.

Result:
* (+) zone of inhibition is 14 mm or greater in diameter, with 6-mm disk (S. pneumoniae)
* (-) no zone of inhibition (other α-hemolytic or alpha hemolytic streptococcus)

215
Q

What is the positive result of Optochin Test?

A

(+) zone of inhibition greater than or equal to 14 mm in diameter, with 6 mm disk

216
Q

Which organism is positive for Optochin Test?

A

S. pneumoniae

217
Q

What is the negative result of Optochin Test?

A

(-) zone of inhibition

218
Q

Which organism is negative for Optochin Test?

A

Other α-hemolytic streptococci

219
Q

What is the chemical name of Optochin

A

Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride

220
Q

What is the other term for Optochin Test?

A

Taxo P

221
Q

What is the other term for Bacitracin Test?

A

Taxo A

222
Q

Bile salt is chemically known as ___________.

A

Sodium De(s)oxycholate

223
Q

Explain the principle of Bile Solubility Test

A

Principle: bile or a solution of a bile salt rapidly lyses pneumococcal colonies.
* Bile salts lowers the surface tension between the bacterial cell membrane and the medium.
* Accelerates the organism’s natural autolytic process.
* To detect if S. pneumoniae colonies will be lysed upon the addition of bile.

Result: Plated
* (+) lysed colonies (S. pneumoniae)
* (-) intact colonies (other α-hemolytic streptococcus)

Result: Tubed (broth)
* (+) clear (S. pneumoniae)
* (-) turbid (other α-hemolytic
streptococcus)

224
Q

Bile Solubility Test

Positive Result (Plated)

A

(+) Lysed colonies

225
Q

Bile Solubility Test

Positive Result (Tubed)

A

(+) Clear solution

226
Q

Bile Solubility Test

Positive Organism

A

S. pneumoniae

227
Q

Bile Solubility Test

Negative Organism

A

other α-hemolytic streptococcus

228
Q

Explain the principle of Quellung Reaction

A

Principle: pneumococci mixed with specific anti-polysaccharide serum on a slide, the capsule swells markedly, and the organisms agglutinate by cross-linking.
* S. pneumoniae is mixed with specific anti-polysaccharide serum which targets the polysaccharide on the cell wall of bacteria. This results to swelling.
* Useful for rapid identification and for typing of the organisms, either in sputum or in cultures.

Result:
* (+) swelling of the capsule (S. pneumoniae)
* (-) no swelling of the capsule (other α-hemolytic streptococcus)

229
Q

Quellung Reaction

Positive Result

A

(+) Swelling of capsule

230
Q

Quellung Reaction

Positive Organism

A

S. pneumoniae

231
Q

Quellung Reaction

Negative Result

A

(-) no swelling

232
Q

Quellung Reaction

Negative Organism

A

other α-hemolytic streptococcus

233
Q

Quellung Reaction is an _______ test.

A

Antigenic

234
Q

Explain the principle of LAP Test

A

Principle: detection of the enzyme leucine aminopeptidase.
* Substrate: Leucine-β-naphthylamide → β-naphthylamine + cinnamaldehyde reagent

Result:
* (+) Red color (Viridans streptococci, S.
pneumoniae)
* (-) No color change or a slight yellow color (other α-hemolytic streptococcus)

235
Q

LAP Test

Positive Result

A

(+) Red color

236
Q

LAP Test

Positive Organism

A

Viridans Streptococci, S. pneumoniae

237
Q

LAP Test

Negative Result

A

(-) no color change or slight yellow color

238
Q

LAP Test

Negative Organism

A

other α-hemolytic streptococcus

239
Q

Mannitol: - or +

S. bovis group

A

-

pero sabi sa book VARIABLE daw

240
Q

Mannitol: - or +

S. anginosus group

A

-

sabi sa book VARIABLE din

241
Q

Mannitol: - or +

S. mitis group

A

-

242
Q

Mannitol: - or +

S. mutans group

A

+

243
Q

Mannitol: - or +

S. salivarius group

A

-

244
Q

Sorbital: - or +

S. bovis group

A

-

245
Q

Sorbital: - or +

S. anginous group

A

-

246
Q

Sorbital: - or +

S. mitis group

A

-

VARIABLE

247
Q

Sorbital: - or +

S. mutans group

A

+

248
Q

Sorbital: - or +

S. salivarius group

A

-

249
Q

Voges-Proskauer: - or +

S. bovis group

A

+

250
Q

Voges-Proskauer: - or +

S. anginosus group

A

+

251
Q

Voges-Proskauer: - or +

S. mitis group

A

-

252
Q

Voges-Proskauer: - or +

S. mutans group

A

+

253
Q

Voges-Proskauer: - or +

S. salivarius group

A

+

254
Q

Hydrolysis or Arginine: - or +

S. bovis group

A

-

255
Q

Hydrolysis or Arginine: - or +

S. anginosus group

A

+

256
Q

Hydrolysis or Arginine: - or +

S. mitis group

A

-

VARIABLE

257
Q

Hydrolysis or Arginine: - or +

S. mutans group

A

-

258
Q

Hydrolysis or Arginine: - or +

S. salivarius group

A

-

259
Q

Hydrolysis of Esculin: - or +

S. bovis group

A

+

260
Q

Hydrolysis of Esculin: - or +

S. anginosus group

A

+

261
Q

Hydrolysis of Esculin: - or +

S. mitis group

A

+

VARIABLE

262
Q

Hydrolysis of Esculin: - or +

S. mutans group

A

+

263
Q

Hydrolysis of Esculin: - or +

S. salivarius group

A

+

VARIABLE

264
Q

Urease: - or +

S. bovis group

A

-

265
Q

Urease: - or +

S. anginosus group

A

-

266
Q

Urease: - or +

S. mitis group

A

-

267
Q

Urease: - or +

S. mutans group

A

-

268
Q

Urease: - or +

S. salivarius group

A

+

VARIABLE

269
Q

_________ are previously classified as Group D streptococci.

A

Enterococcus spp.

270
Q

Enterococcus spp. are a normal flora of the __________.

A

Intestinal tract

271
Q

Why were Enterococcus spp. separated from Group D streptococci?

A

Because Enterococcus spp. were unique with the following characteristics:
* halophilic (6.5% NaCl)
* can tolerate 45 C
* can tolerate Alkaline pH

272
Q

Enterococcus spp. can tolerate ______ of NaCl

A

6.5%

273
Q

__________ are capable of Pseudocatalase reaction.

A

Enterococcus spp.

274
Q

Most common Enterococcus spp.

A
  • E. faecalis
  • E. faecium
275
Q

Majority of Enterococcus spp. are ________.

A

PYR (+)

276
Q

Examples of Enterococcus spp.

A
  • E. durans
  • E. avium
  • E. casseliflavus
  • E. gallinarum
  • E. raffinosus
277
Q

Infections associated with E. faecalis

A
  • Nosocomial Infections (UTI and bactermia)
  • Endocarditis in adult patients
  • Intraabdominal and pelvic wound infections
278
Q

Virulence Factors of Enterococcus faecalis

A
  • Extracellular surface adhesin proteins
  • Extracellular serine protease
  • Gelatinase
  • Cytolysin
279
Q

How are extracellular surface adhesin proteins, extracellular serine protease, and gelatinase virulent?

A

They colonize and adhere to heart valves and renal epithelial cells

280
Q

It is similar to bacteriocins produced by gram positive bacteria.

A

Cytolysins

281
Q

__________ group is divided into 4 DNA clusters.

A

S. bovis group

282
Q

S. bovis group is divided into _________.

A

4 DNA Clusters

283
Q

Streptococcus equinus belongs to DNA Cluster ___.

A

1

284
Q

______ is typically found in animal species.

A

S. equinus

285
Q

Which DNA cluster consists of mannitol fermenters?

A

DNA Cluster 2

286
Q

DNA cluster 2 consists of __________.

A
  • S. gallolyticus
  • S. gallolyticus subsp. gallolyticus
  • S. gallolyticus subsp. pasteurianus
  • S. gallolyticus subsp. macedonius
287
Q

Organisms from DNA cluster 2 are the common cause of _______.

A

Human endocarditis and colon carcinoma

288
Q

DNA Cluster 3 includes _________.

A
  • S. infantarius
  • S. infantarius subsp. infantarius
  • S. infantarius subsp. coli
289
Q

DNA Cluster 4 includes _______.

A

S. alactolyticus

290
Q

Specimens for collecting sample for Group D streptococci

A
  • Blood (if bacteremia)
  • Urine (if UTI)
  • Wounds
291
Q

Group D streptococci under direct microscopic examination

A

Gram (+) cocci

292
Q

Group D streptococci is cultured using _______.

A
  • Brain Heart Infusion (BHI)
  • Tryptic Soy Broth (TSB)
    both with 5% sheep’s blood
293
Q

Inhibitors present in the culture media used for Group D streptococci

A
  • Bile esculin azide
  • Colistin-nalidixic acid
  • Phenylethyl alcohol
  • Cephalexin azteronam-arabinose agar
294
Q

Standard incubation period for Group D streptococci

A

35 C in the presence of CO2 but does not require a high level of CO2

295
Q

Group D streptococci under macroscopic examination

A

Small, cream or white, smooth, entire with alpha-, beta-, non-hemolytic (usually)

296
Q

Group D streptococci under microscopic examination

A

Gram (+) cocci in short chains

297
Q

Biochemical tests associated with Group D streptococci

A
  • Acid production from carbohydrate
  • Arginine Hydrolysis
  • 0.04% tellurite tolerance
  • Pyruvate utilization
  • Resistance to 100-ug efrotomycin acid
  • (+) motility
298
Q

Motility: - or +

E. faecalis

A

-

299
Q

Motility: - or +

E. faecium

A

-

300
Q

Motility: - or +

E. durans

A

-

301
Q

Motility: - or +

E. avium

A

-

302
Q

Motility: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

+

303
Q

Motility: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

+

304
Q

Motility: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

-

305
Q

Mannitol: - or +

E. faecalis

A

+

306
Q

Mannitol: - or +

E. faecium

A

+

307
Q

Mannitol: - or +

E. durans

A

-

308
Q

Mannitol: - or +

E. avium

A

+

309
Q

Mannitol: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

+

310
Q

Mannitol: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

+

311
Q

Mannitol: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

+

312
Q

Sorbose: - or +

E. faecalis

A

-

313
Q

Sorbose: - or +

E. faecium

A

-

314
Q

Sorbose: - or +

E. durans

A

-

315
Q

Sorbose: - or +

E. avium

A

+

316
Q

Sorbose: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

-

317
Q

Sorbose: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

-

318
Q

Sorbose: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

+

319
Q

Arabinose: - or +

E. faecalis

A

-

320
Q

Arabinose: - or +

E.faecium

A

+

321
Q

Arabinose: - or +

E. durans

A

-

322
Q

Arabinose: - or +

E. avium

A

+

323
Q

Arabinose: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

+

324
Q

Arabinose: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

+

325
Q

Arabinose: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

+

326
Q

Raffinose: - or +

E. faecalis

A

-

327
Q

Raffinose: - or +

E. faecium

A

-

VARIABLE

328
Q

Raffinose: - or +

E. durans

A

-

329
Q

Raffinose: - or +

E. avium

A

-

330
Q

Raffinose: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

+

331
Q

Raffinose: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

+

332
Q

Raffinose: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

+

333
Q

Tellurite: - or +

E. faecalis

A

+

334
Q

Tellurite: - or +

E. faecium

A

-

335
Q

Tellurite: - or +

E. durans

A

-

336
Q

Tellurite: - or +

E. avium

A

-

337
Q

Tellurite: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

-

338
Q

Tellurite: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

-

339
Q

Tellurite: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

-

340
Q

Arginine: - or +

E. faecalis

A

+

341
Q

Arginine: - or +

E. faecium

A

+

342
Q

Arginine: - or +

E. durans

A

+

343
Q

Arginine: - or +

E. avium

A

-

344
Q

Arginine: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

+

345
Q

Arginine: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

+

346
Q

Arginine: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

-

347
Q

Pyruvate: - or +

E. faecalis

A

+

348
Q

Pyruvate: - or +

E. faecium

A

-

349
Q

Pyruvate: - or +

E. durans

A

-

350
Q

Pyruvate: - or +

E. avium

A

+

351
Q

Pyruvate: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

-

VARIABLE

352
Q

Pyruvate: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

-

353
Q

Pyruvate: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

+

354
Q

MGP stands for _______.

A

Methyl-α-D-glucopyranoside

355
Q

MGP: - or +

E. faecalis

A

-

356
Q

MGP: - or +

E. faecium

A

-

357
Q

MGP: - or +

E. durans

A

-

358
Q

MGP: - or +

E. avium

A

+

359
Q

MGP: - or +

E. casseliflavus

A

+

360
Q

MGP: - or +

E. gallinarum

A

+

361
Q

MGP: - or +

E. raffinosus

A

+

362
Q

These are previously known as nutritionally variant streptococci.

A

Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp.

363
Q

Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. are previously known as __________.

A

Nutritionally-variant streptococci

364
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. are non-fastidious.

A

False

365
Q

What requirement is needed by Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp.?

A

Sulfhydryl compounds

366
Q

The medium used for Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. contains __________.

A

10 mg/L pyridoxal hydrochloride

367
Q

What happens when there is no pyridoxal hydrochloride in the medium?

A

Satellitism on BAP with S. aureus

368
Q

Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. are normal flora of the _________.

A

Oral and GIT

369
Q

Infections associated with Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp.

A
  • Bacteremia
  • Endocarditis
  • Otitis media
370
Q

Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. are involved in the production of ___________.

A
  • α-galactosidase
  • β-galactosidase
  • β-glucoronidase
371
Q

Result of Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. in Hippurate Hydrolysis

A

(+)

372
Q

Result of Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. in Arginine Hydrolysis

A

(+)

373
Q

Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. is capable of acid production from _________ and ________.

A

trehalose and starch

374
Q

These are common airborne organisms.

A

Aerococcus spp.

375
Q

Aerococcus spp. are considered to be _________ pathogens.

A

opportunistic

376
Q

Infections associated with Aerococcus spp.

A
  • Bacteremia
  • Endocarditis
  • UTI
377
Q

Aerococcus spp. are similar to ____________ in culture.

A

streptococci

378
Q

Aerococcus spp. are similar to ___________ in microscopic exam.

A

staphylococci

379
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Aerococcus spp. are considered to be weak catalase or pseudocatalase.

A

True

380
Q

Aerococcus spp. can tolerate ______ NaCl.

A

6.5%

381
Q

Two most common species of aerococci

A

A. viridans and A. urinae

382
Q

A. viridans is _____ for both bile esculin and PYR.

A

(+)

383
Q

A. urinae is _______ for bile esculin and PYR.

A

(-)

384
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Aerococcus spp. also require sulfhydryl compounds for growth.

A

True

385
Q

They are similar to viridans streptococci in colonial morphology.

A

Gemella spp.

386
Q

Gemella spp. are similar to __________ in terms of colonial morpology.

A

Viridans Streptococci

387
Q

Hemolytic pattern of Gemella spp.

A

α-hemolytic or non-hemolytic

388
Q

Microscopic appearance of Gemella spp.

A

Gram (-) cocci in pairs, tetrads, clusters, or short chains

389
Q

Infections associated with Gemella spp.

A
  • Endocarditis
  • Wounds
  • Abscesses
390
Q

Most common species of Gemella spp.

A

Gemella haemolysans

391
Q

They are previously classified as Group N streptococci.

A

Lactococcus spp.

392
Q

Microscopic appearance of Lactococcus spp.

A

Gram (-) cocci in singly, pairs, or in chains

393
Q

Lactococcus spp. is physiologically similar to __________.

A

enterococci

394
Q

Hemolytic pattern of Lactococcus spp.

A

α-hemolytic or non-hemolytic

395
Q

Infections associated with Lactococcus spp.

A

UTI and endocarditis

396
Q

________ are physiologically similar to enterococci.

A

Lactococcus spp.

397
Q

How are Lactococcus spp. differentiated from Enterococcus spp.?

A

Lactococcus spp. are capable of acid production from carbohydrates

398
Q

These are catalase (-), gram positive cocci with irregular morphology.

A

Leuconostoc spp.

399
Q

Leuconostoc spp. are intrinsically resistant to __________.

A

Vancomycin

400
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Lactococcus spp. are found on plant surfaces and vegetables, and in milk products.

A

False (Leuconostoc spp.)

401
Q

Infections associated with Leuconostoc spp.

A
  • Meningitis
  • Bacteremia
  • UTI
  • Pulmonary infections
402
Q

They are facultative anaerobes, gram (+) cocci

A

Pediococcus spp.

403
Q

Pediococcus spp. grow at _______ C.

A

45 C

404
Q

Pediococcus spp. are intrinsically resistant to ________.

A

Vancomycin

405
Q

Pediococcus spp. are involved with __________.

A

Gastrointestinal abnormalities

406
Q

Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Result

Leuconostoc spp.

A

+

407
Q

Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Result

Pediococcus spp.

A

+

408
Q

LAP

Leuconostoc spp.

A

-

409
Q

LAP

Pediococcus spp.

A

+

410
Q

PYR

Leuconostoc spp.

A

-

411
Q

PYR

Pediococcus spp.

A

-

412
Q

6.5% NaCl

Leuconostoc spp.

A

+

413
Q

6.5% NaCl

Pediococcus spp.

A

+

414
Q

Gas (+) from Glucose Fermentation

Leuconostoc spp.

A

+

415
Q

Gas (+) from Glucose Fermentation

Pediococcus spp.

A

-

416
Q

Globicatella sanguis hemolytic pattern

A

α-hemolytic

417
Q

Globicatella sanguinis is PYR _______.

A

(+)

418
Q

Globicatella sanguinis is LAP _______.

A

(-)

419
Q

Globicatella sanguis is susceptible to ______.

A

Vancomycin

420
Q

Globicatella sanguis is _______ to vancomycin.

A

Susceptible

421
Q

Helcococcus kunzii is involved in _______ infections.

A

wound

422
Q

_______ is misidentified as A. viridans.

A

Helcococcus kunzii

423
Q

Helcococcus kunzii is misidentified as _______.

A

A. viridans

424
Q

It causes otitis media in children.

A

Alloiococcus otitidis

425
Q

Alloiococcus otitidis hemolytic pattern

A

non-hemolytic or α-hemolytic

426
Q

Alloiococcus otitidis is PYR _________.

A

(+)

427
Q

Alloiococcus otitidis is LAP _________.

A

(+)

427
Q

______ grow slowly in 6.5% NaCl

A

Alloiococcus otitidis

428
Q

Enterococcus spp. can tolerate _______ C

A

45