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Ane Class Practice > Special Populations Final exam-cumulative > Flashcards

Special Populations Final exam-cumulative Flashcards

1
Q

Succinylcholine given to patient with myotonic dystrophy will cause?

A

a. Exaggerated contracture

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2
Q

What is true of ALS?

A

a. Progressive muscle decline leading to respiratory failure

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3
Q

Postural hypotension in elderly due to? Select 2

A

a. Stiffening of veins
b. Cardiac filling changes

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4
Q

Which of the following drugs would you give a patient with Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

a. Captopril (ACE inhibitor)

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5
Q

Infant born at term <46 weeks and premie <60 weeks needs to be kept how long postop to monitor for apnea?

A

a. 12 hours

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6
Q

Cardiac arrest occurs in MRI, what is the next step?

A

a. Drag the corpse out and then start CPR
b. It costs approx 100K to refill. Also, the helium released could asphyxiate everyone
if not vented properly.

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7
Q

Metabolic syndrome, which is not included in the diagnosis?

A

a. BP 120/82 (need 130/85 or higher)

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8
Q

Which medication increases cerebral blood flow?

A

a. Ketamine

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9
Q

Select 2 that will prolong seizure duration?

A

a. Etomidate
b. Hypocapnia

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10
Q

Contrast dye is injected to cerebral artery and the patient screams of burning, what is known about this reaction?

A

a. Burning can be normal

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11
Q

Which statements are true of MS? (select 2)
a. Autoimmune disease targeting T cells of myelin
b. Central nervous system disease
c. Pregnant patients decreased risk of relapse

A

a. Autoimmune disease targeting T cells of myelin
c. Pregnant patients decreased risk of relapse

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12
Q

Context sensitive 1⁄2 time?

A

a. 50% decrease in plasma concentration after stopping transfusion

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13
Q

Changes in old people, renal mass decreases by 20-25%, 1⁄2 of all glomeruli decreased by 80 reflects what?

A

a. Chronic dehydration state

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14
Q

Android obesity reflects?

A

a. Most dangerous
b. Increased CV disease
c. High rates of LV dysfunction

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15
Q

Obesity hypoventilation/long term OSA results in?

A

a. Pulmonary HTN
b. R sided heart failure (cor-pulmonale)

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16
Q

Most common indication for A tonsillectomy?

A

a. Obstructive sleep apnea

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17
Q

Mets are evaluated pre op and can reflect?

A

a. Cardiovascular reserve

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18
Q

Which med does not increase risk of postoperative cognitive dysfunction in 90 year old?
a. Glyco
b. Atropine
c. Ketamine
d. Demerol

A

a. Glyco

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19
Q

GFR decreases with aging and what other renal changes happen concurrently?
a. Increased risk of dehydration
b. Increased aldosterone secretion
c. Increased renal drug excretion

A

a. Increased risk of dehydration

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20
Q

What are important NORA considerations when choosing anesthetics? (choose 2)
a. Quick wake up
b. Post operative pain and agitation
c. Ability to void
d. PONV

A

a. Quick wake up
d. PONV

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21
Q

Most common complications of NORA? (choose 2)

A

a. Respiratory depression
b. Respiratory obstruction

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22
Q

CV changes with aging (pick 2)

A

a. Decreased beta receptor stimulation
b. Stiffening of myocardium, arteries and veins

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23
Q

Age where the protective effect of ischemic preconditioning is no longer present?

A

a. >65

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24
Q

What is GCS for opens eyes to voice, follows commands and talking but confused?

A

a. 13
GCS 15- normal
GCS 12-13 is verablly responsive
GCS 5-6 physically responsive

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25
Q

MAC decreases by how much per decade?

A

a. 6%

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26
Q

What does anesthesia do that can promote venous drainage?
a. Head position
b. Reverse trend
c. PEEP
d. Coughing

A

b. Reverse trend

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27
Q

MRI safety question what is not true?
a. Anesthesia is always exposed
b. Increase distance
c. Wear lead

A

a. Anesthesia is always exposed

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28
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

a. Choroid plexus

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29
Q

HR 30, BP 210/105, papilledema, trauma patient this is?

A

a. Increased ICP

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30
Q

How much dantrolene should be available in cart for 68kg patient with history of MH?
a. 36 vials
b. 8
c. 10

A

a. 36 vials

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31
Q

Surgeon is complaining that the brain needs to be relaxed. What do you do?

A

a. Mannitol
b. Lasix

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32
Q

STOP Bang score of 5 reflects

A

a. High risk

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33
Q

ECT what is true?
a. Toradol helps post-procedure myalgias
b. Mask ventilation is insufficient

A

a. Toradol helps post-procedure myalgias

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34
Q

Half life of Levodopa?

A

a. 6-12 hours

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35
Q

Guillian Barre syndrome what is true? (select 2)
a. Ascending skeletal muscle weakness
b. Caused by virus or bacteria
c. Chronic progressive paralysis

A

a. Ascending skeletal muscle weakness
b. Caused by virus or bacteria

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36
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, what is true?
a. Succ is the NMBA of choice
b. Increased in females
c. No dystrophin

A

c. No dystrophin

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37
Q

Something about Parkinsons and environmental exposure farming, beta blocker use, some other crap decreases dopamine.
What is T/f?

A

True

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38
Q

Why are elderly at increased risk for aspiration?
a. Decreased cough reflex

A

a. Decreased cough reflex

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39
Q

GLP-1 receptor agonists which is not true?
a. Enhance glucagon secretion by pancreas
b. Slow gastric emptying
c. Decreases gastric acid secretion

A

a. Enhance glucagon secretion by pancreas

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40
Q

1 degree drop in skin temp reflects what difference in core temp?

A

a. 0.2

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41
Q

Monro Kellie Doctrine, know the relationship between the contents of cranium and ICP. An increase in one will increase ICP unless there is an equal reduction in another
component. TRUE/FALSE

A

True

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42
Q

Gold standard of ECT treatment ?
a. Methohexital
b. Propofol
c. Etomidate
d. Something else

A

a. Methohexital

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43
Q

What is the dosage of Mannitol?
a. None of the above
b. 0.5 g/kg-1.5 g/kg
c. 1.5-2 mg/kg
d. Some other dosage

A

b. 0.5 g/kg-1.5 g/kg (should be GRAM)

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44
Q

Question about MS
a. Pregnancy is associated with a decrease risk of exacerbation
b. Autoimmune disease characterized by T-Cell mediated autoantibodies against myelin

A

It is Central automimmune disease NOT peripheral

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45
Q

Most important risk factor in CIN (all risk factors, but the most)
a. Previous renal surgery
b. Proteinuria
c. Chronic kidney disease
d. Diabetes

A

c. Chronic kidney disease

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46
Q

Patient ate a high carb meal and extreme exercise. What paralysis will happen?
a. Hypokalemic Paralysis
b. Hyperkalemic Paralysis

A

a. Hypokalemic Paralysis

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47
Q

Question regarding burn patient with increased 02 consumption, co2 production and enhanced blood flow to organs indicates what phase?

A

Hypermetabolic (flow phase) 48-72 hours after injury

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48
Q

Parkland formula question: Patient weight 70kg, 18% TBSA burn. How much fluid would you give patient?
a. 5L ( calculation is: 4x 70kg x 18=5040)
b. 500ml

A

5040

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49
Q

Healthy 23 year old male, with open eye injury on job site- plan all the following except?
a. RSI with propofol and suxx
b. Have atropine readily available
c. Avoid head down position

A

a. RSI with propofol and suxx (suxx can transiently increase IOP)

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50
Q

RA question, what is true (all below are true)
a. Larynx is affected causing limitation of vocal cord movement and laryngeal mucosal edema
b. Changes in TMJ can complicate DL and tracheal intubation
c. Autoimmune disorder Affects synovial fluid in joints

A
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51
Q

Scoliosis surgery indicated cobb angle of lower lumbar:

A

a. Greater than 40 degrees
b. Thoracic: greater than 50 degrees

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52
Q

Shoulder surgery, beach chair position include all except:
a. 20 mmHg increased cerebral
b. BP with this position
c. Easily convert from arthroscopy to open

A

a. 20 mmHg increased cerebral
b. BP with this position

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53
Q

While femoral block is considered best plan for total knee, you would use IPACK block to ?

A

a. Avoid quadricep weakness

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54
Q

Platelets are given to improve this part of the TEG ?

A

a. Maximum amplitude

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55
Q

All are included in lung protective ventilation except ?
a. Administer 100% FiO2
b. Permissive hypercapnea
c. Vt 6-8ml/kg
d. Plateau pressure less than or equal to 30

A

a. Administer 100% FiO2

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56
Q

Pregnant trauma patient decompensating?

A

a. LUD

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57
Q

What clinical sign would coincide with C3-5 injury?

A

a. Diaphragm weakness

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58
Q

Patient presents with wheezing, cough, and diminished breath sounds what is most likely the cause?

A

a. Foreign body aspiration

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59
Q

Patient is having ENT surgery on tonsils, appropriate FIO2 ?

A

a. 0.29%

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60
Q

Anesthesia is responsible for what part of the fire triangle ?

A

a. Oxidizer

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61
Q

Patient comes in with expected tension pneumo, where would a 16-18g cath be on the patient?

A

a. 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line

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62
Q

Rule of 9s, both anterior/exterior of lower extremities and trunk ?

A

a. 72%

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63
Q

The most common bleeding disorder is ?

A

a. vWB

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64
Q

Picture of eye block (Its a retrobulbar block) pick 2:
a. Less volume needed (2-4ml)
b. Quicker onset of block (2 min vs 10-20 min for peribulbar)

A
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65
Q

Picture of TEG
a. Which one shows hypercoagulability

A
66
Q

Sensory innervation of SLN INNER branch ?
a. Innervates mucosa above vocal cords
b. Criocoid is EXTERNAL branch

A

a. Innervates mucosa above vocal cords

67
Q

Spinal Cord Blood supply?

A

1 anterior artery supplies 2⁄3, posterior supplies 1⁄3
Artery of adamkawitz is posterior artery that supplies 2⁄3 anterior 1⁄3
posterior- distractor- AKA is ANTERIOR artery.

68
Q

T2 spinal cord injury, position prone for surgery, foley in place for surgery, patient becomes hypertensive and bradycardic with cutaneous vasoconstriction above T2 ?

A

a. Foley might be occluded (think autonomic hyperreflexia)

69
Q

SSEPS monitor ?

A

a. Dorsal proprioception

70
Q

Which part of the TEG indicates platelet function ?

A

a. MA line

71
Q

Patients with inhalational injuries need ____ % more IVF resuscitation?

A

a. 30-50%

72
Q

Patent receives an SF6 injection, what is your first priority?

A

a. Avoid administration of Nitrous oxide. (for at least 10 days)

73
Q

Interscalene block what can you mix with experal ?

A

a. Bupivicaine 0.5%

74
Q

Patient presents with hemoptysis, dyspnea, hoarseness, stridor, and subcutaneous emphysema ?

a. Upper and lower airway obstruction
b. Tension pneumo
c. Flail chest

A

a. Upper and lower airway obstruction

75
Q

Lefort III facial fracture ?

A

a. It runs parallel to the base of the skull, separating the midfacial skeleton from the base of the skull

76
Q

Criteria involved in GCS include the following Except?
a. Eye opening
b. Pupil response
c. Best motor response
d. Best Verbal response

A

b. Pupil response

77
Q

Broken hip, ORFI needs spinal, 30min prior received lovenox?
a. Wait ten hours and complete spinal
b. General anesthesia

A

b. General anesthesia

78
Q

Trauma pt has received multiple blood transfusions and fluids, has received phenylephrine as well but patient continues to be hypotensive, what is your plan?
a. Administer Ca chloride
b. Give more phenylephrine
c. Start vasopressin drip

A

a. Administer Ca chloride

79
Q

Severely injured trauma patient experiencing bleeding, what is the first thing to administer?
a. TXA
b. platelets
c. DDAVP

A

a. TXA

80
Q

Afferent pathway of oculocardiac reflex ?

A

a. Trigeminal nerve
Vagus is efferent

81
Q

Patient experiencing pain how do you know she is experiencing acute compartment syndrome?

A

a. Pain out of proportion to the injury

82
Q

What is responsible for attaching platelets to collagen?

A

a. vWB

83
Q

Lethal Triad of trauma Triad of Death?

A

a. Dilutional coagulopathy
b. Hypothermia
c. Acidosis

84
Q

Deficiency in factors VIII, XIII, vWB, what do you give?

A

a. Cryo

85
Q

NIMS tube positioning?

A

a. Secured midline
b. Must be positioned at the level of the vocal cords

86
Q

Echothiophate eye medication affects which drug?

A

a. Anticholinesterase miotic prolongs duration of succinylcholine

87
Q

Primary hemostasis (unstable platelet plug) what 3 steps?

A

a. Adhesion
b. Activation
c. Aggregation

88
Q

Hypoxia, mitochondria …
a. Metabolic acidosis

A
89
Q

Trali (Transfusion related acute lung injury) all true except ?
a. No evidence of atrial hypertension
b. Hypoxemia
c. fever
d. Within 6 hours of transfusion
e. Hypertension

A

e. Hypertension

90
Q

Scenario where O+ donor blood is available, who do you not give it to ?

A

a. RH- mom, with second baby who is RH+. Do not give + blood to mom.

91
Q

All tests will show biliary obstruction EXCEPT: ?
a. ALP
b. GGT
c. 5’ NT
d. Aspartate aminotransferases

A

d. Aspartate aminotransferases (AST)

92
Q

Patient getting an exploratory lap for bowel obstruction, you notice the patient now has tachycardia, hypotension and facial flushing. What do you give?
a. Octreotide
b. Fentanyl
c. NSAIDS

A

c. NSAIDS

93
Q

These cells get rid of bacteria in the liver ?

A

a. Kupffer cells

94
Q

T/F: liver enzyme reactions Phase I reactions conjugates to glutathione and increases water solubility and Phase II reveals a functional group ?

A

FALSE

95
Q

T/F: Pericentral hepatocytes have a greater quantity of cytochrome P450 enzymes and are the site of anaerobic metabolism

A

TRUE

96
Q

Carcinoid tumors give off histamine and serotonin, the other humoral agent is ?
a. Kallikrein
b. Norepi
c. Epi

A

a. Kallikrein

97
Q

LeFort III fracture: ?
a. Nasal base and optic ridge / bone
b. Cribiform plate to ethmoid bone
c. Mandible is most likely to fracture

A

a. Nasal base and optic ridge / bone

98
Q

Treatment for Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS): ?

A

a. Liver transplant

99
Q

True of hepatitis:
a. Halothane hepatitis is immune mediated
b. Hep A commonly causes cirrhosis
c. Acute alcohol cause cirrhosis
d. Hepatitis is commonly caused by blood transfusions

A

a. Halothane hepatitis is immune mediated

100
Q

Severe Reverse T-burg ?
a. Increased CI
b. Increase SVR
c. Increased venous return

A

b. Increase SVR

101
Q

Your patient is on IV heparin, it has been stopped for 4 hours. You give the person a regional block. When can you restart the heparin gtt?
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours

A

a. 1 hour

102
Q

Patient getting surgery for open globe eye injury, and severe PONV. What is part of your plan?
a. Sugammadex 16mg/kg
b. Cyclopen…drops 1-2%
c. Scopolamine patch
d. Eye block and MAC

A

a. Sugammadex 16mg/kg

103
Q

DOD says to give what? With refractory hypotension ?
a. Vasopressin
b. Neo
c. Ephedrine

A

a. Vasopressin

104
Q

20 year patient getting T&A and has Type 1 diabetes?
a. Decadron
b. fiO2 < 0.3
c. Epinephrine

A

b. fiO2 < 0.3

105
Q

Orthopedic procedure, what is not something that is commonly done:
a. Controlled hypertension

A

a. Controlled hypertension

106
Q

Liver patient you will see:
a. Increased cardiac output

A
107
Q

Another liver question related to cirrhosis “physiology”
a. Increased cardiac output (also the answer)

A
108
Q

Causes of hypercarbia in lap sx: (select 3)
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Atelectasis
c. Sub q emphysema
d. increased TV

A

a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Atelectasis
c. Sub q emphysema

109
Q

T5-7 injury you will see (select 2):

A

a. Decreased vital capacity
b. Ineffective cough

110
Q

Above T5 injury (or maybe it was block) you will see:
a. Hypotension

A
111
Q

Peritonsillar abscess, these are TRUE (pick 2):
a. They need drainage via surgery
b. You will not have an obstructed view for DL or view of cords

A
112
Q

T/F: Your patient has seizures, neurogenic pulmonary edema, hypertension, and bradycardia these are signs of intracranial hypertension?

A

TRUE

113
Q

Tension pneumothorax s/s: ?

A

neck vein distention, tracheal deviation, cyanosis, tachycardia

114
Q

You patient has muffled heart tones, pulsus paradoxus, tachycardia what is happening?

A

a. Pericardial tamponade

115
Q

Scenario where patient is swimming in barrel of whiskey. Patient has some s/s of tension pneumothorax
a. Insert 14G at 2nd mid clav line
b. Give 200mg propofol
c. Give 4 versed and 100mcg fentanyl

A

a. Insert 14G at 2nd mid clav line

116
Q

Patient got a T&A and is now rebleeding, but has been NPO the whole day…what is true?
a. She has been NPO for long enough
b. You can estimate blood loss
c. 75% of rebleeds occur in first 6 hours

A

c. 75% of rebleeds occur in first 6 hours

117
Q

All are correct about TXA except: ?
a. Prevent PE
b. Prevents HTN
c. Prevent MI or something
d. Used for bleeding control

A

b. Prevents HTN

118
Q

30) Afferent nerve in oculocardiac reflex ?
a. Trigeminal
b. Vagus

A

a. Trigeminal

119
Q

31) Carboxyhemoglobin toxicity:
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

A

a. Metabolic acidosis

120
Q

Patient suffered a Maxillofacial injury, what is contraindicated?

A

a. Nasal intubation is contraindicated

121
Q

33) S/S of aspiration of foreign body include the following EXCEPT:
a. Erythema
b. Wheezing
c. Cough
d. Diminished breath sounds

A

a. Erythema

122
Q

T/F: Scoliosis is associated with obstructive respiratory disease

A

FALSE, it can cause restrictive lung disease

123
Q

C5 nerve INJURY results in what ?
a. Diaphragmatic paralysis
b. Deltoid immobility

A

a. Diaphragmatic paralysis
and impaired respiration

124
Q

Intraabdominal pressure from CO2 insufflation causes what (select 2)
a. Increase Alveolar arterial gradient
b. Increased FRC
c. Increased pleural pressure

A

a. Increase Alveolar arterial gradient
c. Increased pleural pressure

125
Q

Causes of hypoxia from lap sx include all EXCEPT ?
a. Hyperventilation
b. Endobronchial intubation
c. Atelectasis

A

a. Hyperventilation

126
Q

Base deficit is -8 ?
a. Moderate shock
b. Mild
c. Severe

A

a. Moderate shock

127
Q

Surgeon is injecting bubble of SF6, what do you do?
a. Turn off N2O

A
128
Q

Effects of hypercarbia in lap sx ?
a. Pulmonary vasoconstriction
b. Decreased RV afterload
c. Alkalosis
d. All of the above

A

a. Pulmonary vasoconstriction

129
Q

Orthopedic surgery? All are advantages of using regional anesthesia EXCEPT ?
a. Decreased nerve injury
b. Decreased Infection
c. Decreased LOS

A

a. Decreased nerve injury

130
Q

Something about endovascular aortic repair ?
a. Right radial art line
b. Get ready to cross clamp
c. Keep MAP 70

A

a. Right radial art line

131
Q

Deep dermis is burned ?
a. Deep partial thickness

A
132
Q

Lung injury with burn, you know the patient will have fluid requirements…which is true?
a. Increased fluids by 30-50%
b. Decrease fluids
c. Increase fluids by 10-20%

A

a. Increased fluids by 30-50%

133
Q

Which is NOT a risk factor for optic ischemia ?
a. Using a Jackson frame
b. Male
c. Obesity

A

a. Using a Jackson frame

134
Q

You think you have myocardial contusion, blunt cardiac injury, what would help you determine this?
a. EKG 12 lead
b. MRI
c. CT
d. INR

A

a. EKG 12 lead

135
Q

Local anesthetic? vasoconstriction and blocks norepinephrine and epinephrine from adrenergic ?
a. Cocaine 4%
b. Bupi 14%
c. Lido 0.4%

A

a. Cocaine 4%

136
Q

Lap sx: pneumoperitoneum insufflation will cause?
a. Parasympathetic response
b. Hypovolemia is less pronounced
c. Causes hyperthermia

A

a. Parasympathetic response

137
Q

Carbon Monoxide (CO) post inhalational burn injury shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the ____?

A

LEFT

Holds onto oxygen more

138
Q

Symptoms of what?
Autoimmune disease- T and B cell lymphocytes
Inflamed synovium
Morning stiffness more than 30 mins
Symmetrical
Extra articular movement
Affects TMJ and vocal cord movement which can cause airway obstruction/difficult intubation
Cardiovascular disease common

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

139
Q

Symptoms of what?
Chronic degenerative disease
Cartilage loss
Morning stiffness less than 30 mins
Asymmetrical

A

Osteoarthritis

140
Q

What vessel is responsible for blood supply to the Tonsils?

A

External Carotid

141
Q

Acute onset < 6hrs
Hypoxemia
Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
No evidence of left atrial HTN

All evidence of what?

A

TRALI

142
Q

Rhogam is only given to what moms?

A

Rh- negative

143
Q

What is the recommended initial intra- abdominal insufflation pressure for laparoscopy?
A. 5–10 mm Hg
B. 10–15 mm Hg
C. 15–20 mmHg
D. 20–25 mmHg
E. None of the above

A

B. 10–15 mm Hg

144
Q

What are the regional perfusion effects of intra-abdominal CO2 insufflation?
A. Splanchnic, renal, and cerebral perfusion
increase
B. Splanchnic, renal, and cerebral perfusion
decrease
C. Splanchnic and cerebral perfusion increase
while renal perfusion decreases
D. Splanchnic and renal perfusion decrease
while cerebral perfusion increases
E. None of the above

A

C. Splanchnic and cerebral perfusion increase
while renal perfusion decreases

145
Q

Sudden hypotension and a marked decrease in end-tidal CO2 during insufflation of the peritoneum with CO2 would most likely indicate?
A. A severe vagal reflex
B. A capnothorax
C. A pneumothorax
D. A CO2 embolism
E. None of the above

A

D. A CO2 embolism

146
Q

Shoulder pain after laparoscopy is likely the result of?
A. Excessive abduction of the arm during
surgery
B. Brachial plexus injury from shoulder
restraints used during steep Trendelenburg
C. Diaphragmatic irritation
D. Deltoid injury from arm restraints
E. None of the above

A

C. Diaphragmatic irritation

147
Q

Hypothermia is a significant risk during laparoscopy because of?
A. Large fluid replacement requirements
B. Room temperature insufflating gas
C. Evaporative losses from the peritoneum
D. Convection losses from the distended
abdomen
E. None of the above

A

B. Room temperature insufflating gas

148
Q

Under what condition would general anesthesia with muscle paralysis be preferred over regional anesthesia for a patient undergoing transurethral resection of a bladder tumor?
A. The tumor involves the lateral wall of the bladder
B. The tumor involves the posterior wall of the bladder
C. The tumor involves the anterior wall of the bladder
D. The tumor involves either ureteral inser- tion site in the bladder
E. None of the above.

A

A. The tumor involves the lateral wall of the bladder

149
Q

Correction of severe hyponatremia following transurethral resection of the prostate should not exceed:
A. 8 mEq/liter in a 24 hour period
B. 10 mEq/liter liter in a 24 hour period
C. 12 mEq/liter liter in a 24 hour period
D. 14 mEq/liter liter in a 24 hour period
E. None of the above

A

C. 12 mEq/liter liter in a 24 hour period

150
Q

Regional anesthesia is preferred to general anesthesia for transurethral resection of the prostate because:
A. mortality rate is lower
B. postoperative myocardial infarction rate is lower
C. TURP syndrome can be detected earlier
D. transfusion rates are less
E. None of the above

A

C. TURP syndrome can be detected earlier

151
Q

Five to ten percent of right sided renal cell carcinomas extend into:
A. the bowel
B. the adrenal gland
C. the aorta
D. the vena cava
E. None of the above

A

D. the vena cava

152
Q

The liver gets the majority of its blood flow from ?
a. Portal vein
b. Hepatic artery
c. Bilary artery
d. Celiac artery

A

a. Portal vein

153
Q

Pheochromocytoma would be most likely to coexist with which of the following?
a. hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)
b. carcinoid tumor
c. insulinoma
d. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
e. pituitary adenoma

A

d. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

154
Q

Hypoglycemia in the anesthetized patient ?
A. Is easily recognized under general anesthesia
B. Is confused for “light anesthesia.”
C. Is defined as a blood sugar <80 mg/dL.
D. Rarely presents in patients with renal
failure and diabetes.

A

B. Is confused for “light anesthesia.”

155
Q

Which of the following increases ionized serum Ca++?
A. Increase serum albumin
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Acute hypomagnesemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia

A

C. Acute hypomagnesemia

156
Q

Which of the following is the most potent anti-inflammatory corticosteroid?
A. Cortisol
B. Prednisone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Triamcinolone

A

C. Dexamethasone

157
Q

Which of the following is the most potent mineralocorticoid?
A. Cortisol
B. Prednisone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Triamcinolone

A

B. Prednisone

158
Q

Patients with mild to moderate hypothyroidism ?
A. Can be safely anesthetized without pre-operative thyroid supplement.
B. Are very sensitive to the sedative effects of anesthetics.
C. Who have coronary artery disease require urgent thyroid replacement.
D. Are a significant risk of requiring postoperative ventilatory support.

A

A. Can be safely anesthetized without pre-operative thyroid supplement.

159
Q

A 35-year-old male type 1 diabetic is in the postanesthetic care unit following a lumbosacral fusion. He has a seizure with a blood glucose 35 mg/dL and elevated serum ketones. Of the following, which is the most likely cause of these biochemical abnormalities?
A. Insulinoma
B. Hyperinsulinism
C. Adrenal Insufficiency
D. Hyperthyroidism

A

C. Adrenal Insufficiency

160
Q

A 40-year-old female presents for a thyroidectomy for Graves’ disease. Her preoperative preparation should include: ?
A. Administration of potassium iodide
plus propranolol for 10 days
B. A 1-week course of thyroxine (T4)
C. A three-day course of propylthiouracil
D. Iodine-131 treatment

A

A. Administration of potassium iodide
plus propranolol for 10 days

Ane Class Practice (26 decks)

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