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Comp review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the most important determinants of level in a spinal ? (Select 2)
a. Baricity
b. Dosage
c. Volume

A

a. Baricity
b. Dosage

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2
Q

What changes happen during pregnancy ? (Select 3)
a. Increase fibrinogen and factor X
b. Mild low platelet from dilution and increased rate of breakdown
c. TEG
d. Prolonged PTT

A

a. Increase fibrinogen and factor X
b. Mild low platelet from dilution and increased rate of breakdown
c. TEG

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3
Q

Image of pressure volume loops: select the one for aortic regurg

A
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4
Q

Aortic stenosis results in what ? (Select 2)
a. Increased pressures
b. Concentric hypertrophy
c. Eccentric hypertrophy

A

a. Increased pressures
b. Concentric hypertrophy

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5
Q

What cranial nerve is triggered by an oral airway causing gagging?

A

a. Glossopharyngeal (IX)

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6
Q

What drug has orphan use for fibromyalgia, HIV, other pain things?
a. Capsaicin

A

a. Capsaicin

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7
Q

What reflex has a venous response from increased volumes causing increased HR?
a. Bainbridge
b. Oculomotor
c. Celiac

A

a. Bainbridge

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8
Q

How would you label a ruptured achilles tendon?
a. Time sensitive
b. Elective
c. Urgent
d. Emergent

A

a. Time sensitive

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9
Q

What is the second most common cause of lawsuits from out of OR anesthesia?
a. cautery burn
b. hypoxia
c. awareness under anesthesia

A

a. cautery burn

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10
Q

What is the most important factor for preventing local anesthetic buildup in the fetus?
a. Fetal acidosis
b. Fetal alkalosis
c. Maternal alkalosis
d. Maternal acidosis

A

a. Fetal acidosis

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11
Q

What would cause a CVP waveform to have an absent A wave and enlarged C wave?
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Vfib
c. sinus tachy

A

a. Atrial fibrillation

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12
Q

Patient was in lithotomy and now has medial leg weakness and numbness. What kind of injury do they have?
a. Obturator
b. Lateral femoral
c. Femoral
d. Sciatic

A

a. Obturator

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13
Q

T/F: The saphenous nerve is the only posterior branch of the femoral nerve and is sensory only.

A

True

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14
Q

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus is what 2 nerves?
a. Radial
b. Axillary
c. Median
D. Musculocutaneous

A

a. Radial
b. Axillary

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15
Q

What nerve is innervated by C6-C8 and T1?
a. Median
b. Ulnar

A

a. Median

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16
Q

Most common nerve injury?
a. Ulnar
b. Radial
c. Common peroneal

A

a. Ulnar

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17
Q

What kind of cell is responsible for acute inflammation?
a. Neutrophil

A

a. Neutrophil

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18
Q

Which is not a H2 antagonist?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Famotidine
c. Cimetidine

A

a. Diphenhydramine

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19
Q

How many chiral carbons in a linear glucose molecule?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1

A

a. 4

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20
Q

What is true about EtCO2?
a. It is 2-5 lower than PaCO2
b. It is 2-5 higher than PaO2
c. It is 2-5 higher than PaCO2

A

a. It is 2-5 lower than PaCO2

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21
Q

What is true about epidurals?
a. They are volume based

A

a. They are volume based

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22
Q

What side effect of Kava-kava?
a. Sedation
b. Edema
c. HTN

A

a. Sedation

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23
Q

What is not true about crystalloids?
a. Transient improvement of vitals
b. Transient improvement of BP
C. Cause edema
D. Decrease GFR

A

D. Decrease GFR

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24
Q

What is the side effect of valerian root?
a. Sedation
b. increase BP

A

a. Sedation

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25
Q

Patient has decreased FEV and other lung stuff. What is the most appropriate drug prior to induction?
a. Decadron
b. Neostigmine
c. Labetalol

A

a. Decadron

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26
Q

What Cranial nerve is the most susceptible to cranial nerve palsy after neuraxial?
a. VI

A

a. VI
abducens

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27
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus is what type of shunt?
a. Right to left
b. Left to right

A

b. Left to right

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28
Q

What does the ductus arteriosus connect
a. Aorta and Pulmonary Artery

A

a. Aorta and Pulmonary Artery

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29
Q

T/F: Foramen Ovale closes when LA pressure > R atrial closes, most infants still have it, 50% of children under 5 still have it, and 20-30% of adults.

A

True

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30
Q

Where is the most common Diaphragmatic hernia ?

A

a. Bodachecks posterolateral

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31
Q

Most common cause of morbidity and mortality of Tracheoesophagel fistula?
a. Aspiration
b. obstruction
c. pneumothorax

A

a. Aspiration

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32
Q

Pyloric Stenosis is a _____ and requires _____
a. Medical emergency, electrolytes normalized

A

a. Medical emergency, electrolytes normalized

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33
Q

How would you induce anesthesia for a epiglottitis kid?
a. Sitting
b. laying
c. prone

A

a. Sitting

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34
Q

What size ETT for a 1 year old
a. Answer was 5mm but rational had a 4 year old
b. Should be 3mm?

A
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35
Q

Asthmatic 5 year old 23 kg what kind of anesthesia. Recent URI and history of asthma. Surgery is for leg repair?
a. LMA 2.5
b. Answers for GETA were wrong 5.5 uncuffed, 4.5 cuffed

A

a. LMA 2.5

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36
Q

Size of aortic stenosis for severe
a. <1cm

A

a. <1cm

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37
Q

Which drugs can cause respiratory depression/arrest?
(select 2)
a. Fentanyl
b. Sevoflurane
c. Ketamine
d. Dexmetomidine

A

a. Fentanyl
b. Sevoflurane

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38
Q

What % of CO is atrial kick
a. 20-30%
b. 40%
c. 60%

A

a. 20-30%

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39
Q

How is CPP measured?

A

a. Aortic diastolic pressure- LV end diastolic pressure

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40
Q

Given Art line reading what can be measured under the wavelength?
a. MAP and stroke volume

A

a. MAP and stroke volume

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41
Q

Law of Laplace with increased wall tension you see ?
a. Increase in ventricular wall thickness as compensatory

A

a. Increase in ventricular wall thickness as compensatory

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42
Q

K+ out of the cells represents ?
a. Repolarization
b. Depolarization

A

a. Repolarization

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43
Q

Important cellular function of Calcium?
a. Acts as a second messenger

A

a. Acts as a second messenger

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44
Q

Question about baroreceptors
a. Impulses from the carotid sinus and aortic arch reach the medullary vasomotor center by the glossopharyngeal (IX) and vagus (X) nerves– TRUE
b. Valsalva can be used to test for autonomic stability → TRUE
c. BP least important thing baroreceptors react to → FALSE

A
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45
Q

What leads for inferior MI (pick 2?)
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. v1

A

II & III

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46
Q

What does the V wave indicate on an CVP waveform?
a. Atrial filling
b. Ventricle contraction
c. Ventricle relaxation

A

a. Atrial filling

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47
Q

List Propofol, Thiopental, Midozalam and Fentanyl in Contact sensitive half life order?
Longest to shortest

A

a. FTMP

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48
Q

CSHT for Opioids
Fentanyl, alfental, Sufenatil, Remifentanil ?
Longest-short

A

Fentanyl, alfental, Sufenatil, Remifentanil

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49
Q

For every 1 degree Celsius drop in brain temp CRMO decreases by ?
a. 6%
b. 7%
c. 10%

A

a. 6%

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50
Q

What med causes the greatest amount of coronary steal ?
a. Sodium Nitroprusside
b. Metoprolol
c. Propofol

A

a. Sodium Nitroprusside

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51
Q

Early sign of LAST ?
a. Tinnitus
b. Tachycardia
c. dyspnea

A

a. Tinnitus

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52
Q

Why are peds more resistant to succs? (SATA)
a. Faster onset
b. Higher Vd
c. Slower clearance
d. ED90 10x more

A

a. Faster onset
b. Higher Vd

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53
Q

What BIS is needed to prevent recall?
a. 80
b. 50
c. 30

A

a. 80

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54
Q

Parts of circle system? (Select 3)
a. APL
b. Reservoir bag
c. Oxygen analyzer
d. Y piece

A

a. APL
b. Reservoir bag
d. Y piece

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55
Q

What increases upper airway resistance? (Select 2)
a. Laryngospasm
b. Downward displacement of tongue
c. Changing from supine to lateral position

A

a. Laryngospasm
b. Downward displacement of tongue

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56
Q

What is dibucaine number is prolonged block for 8 hours with succs?
a. 20
b. 50
c. 80

A

a. 20

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57
Q

What will you see in PACU with LAST ?
(select 2)
a. Slurred speech
b. Skeletal muscle twitching
c. Hypertension

A

a. Slurred speech
b. Skeletal muscle twitching

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58
Q

Which two LA last the longest?
a. Bupivacaine
b. Tetracaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Procaine

A

a. Bupivacaine
b. Tetracaine

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59
Q

Uterine blood flow decreased due to increase in uterine vascular tone caused by ?
a. Endogenous catecholamines from stress
b. Compression on spiral arteries during contraction

A

a. Endogenous catecholamines from stress
b. Compression on spiral arteries during contraction

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60
Q

Which patients are at risk for hypothermia? (SATA)
a. Old people due to loss of fat
b. Acute intoxication due to vasodilation and impaired regulation
c. Pts. taking NSAIDs or something else
d. Ortho surgery of lower extremity
e. Neonates due to lower

A

a. Old people due to loss of fat
b. Acute intoxication due to vasodilation and impaired regulation
c. Pts. taking NSAIDs or something else

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61
Q

Mom starts hyperventilating this would cause an oxyhemoglobin shift to the ___ ?
a. Right
b. Left

A

b. Left
called Bohr effect

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62
Q

All are risk factors for PONV except?
a. Women
b. Smoker
c. Surgical duration

A

b. Smoker

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63
Q

Antiphospholipid pregnant person at risk for ? (select 3)
a. Venous and arterial thrombosis
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Decreased a Cl levels
d. Cerebral infarction
e. Fetal loss

A

a. Venous and arterial thrombosis
b. Pulmonary embolism
d. Cerebral infarction

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64
Q

Arachnoiditis ? (select 2)
a. Old people at higher risk
b. Slow onset of permanent quadriplegia
c. Accidental injection of chloroprocaine with antioxidant and preservative into epidural space

A

b. Slow onset of permanent quadriplegia
c. Accidental injection of chloroprocaine with antioxidant and preservative into epidural space

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65
Q

Which nerve is monitored to recover/extubate safest?
a. Adductor pollicis
b. orbicularis oris

A

a. Adductor pollicis

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66
Q

Nerves arising from L3, 4, 5
a. Femoral
b. Obturator
c. Lateral femoral cutaneous

A

a. Femoral
b. Obturator
c. Lateral femoral cutaneous

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67
Q

What reads oxy and deoxyhemoglobin 1:1 and causes a sat of 85% ?
a. Methemoglobin

A

a. Methemoglobin

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68
Q

Electron transport chain occurs where ?
a. Inner membrane of mitochondria
b. outer membrane of mitochondria

A

a. Inner membrane of mitochondria

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69
Q

Full Oxidation of ethanol
a. Acetic acid

A

a. Acetic acid

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70
Q

Greatest heat loss in pediatric patient ?
a. Radiation
b. convection

A

a. Radiation

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71
Q

Heat loss comes from radiation, convection, evaporation and ___?

A

a. Conduction

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72
Q

What interferes with pulse ox reading ? (select 2)
a. Nail polish
b. Indigo carmine

A

a. Nail polish
b. Indigo carmine

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73
Q

What dye causes the greatest amount of interference with pulse ox ?
a. Methylene blue

A

a. Methylene blue

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74
Q

3 oscillations on your art line after flushing whats happening?
a. Underdamping
b. Overdamping

A

a. Underdamping

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75
Q

What do veins look like on ultrasound ?
a. Anechoic and compressible
b. Hyperechoic
c. Hypoechoic

A

a. Anechoic and compressible

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76
Q

T/F: Should stop smoking 4-8 weeks before surgery. If pt. Smoked 24 hrs before, enough time to eliminate carboxyhgb but still at risk for postop respiratory issues?

A

True

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77
Q

Minimum Aldrete score for discharge?
a. 9
b.14
c.18

A

a. 9

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78
Q

What does the aldrete score test?
(select 3)
a. Activity
b. Respirations
c. O2
d. BP

A

a. Activity
b. Respirations
c. O2

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79
Q

What is true of substantia gelatinosa? (select 3)
a. Contains C and A-delta fibers
b. Next to marginal layer
c. Contains WDR neurons
d. Senses mostly somatic nociceptive thermo something or other

A

a. Contains C and A-delta fibers
b. Next to marginal layer
d. Senses mostly somatic nociceptive thermo something or other

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80
Q

T/F: A- delta fibers are responsible for sharp fast pain?

A

a. True

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81
Q

(SATA) What is true of baroreceptors?
a. Carotid and aortic bodies respond to decrease in PaCO2
b. Carotid and aortic bodies response to decrease in PaO2
c. Respond to increases in CaCO2

A

a. Carotid and aortic bodies respond to decrease in PaCO2
b. Carotid and aortic bodies response to decrease in PaO2

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82
Q

What to expect with interscalene block?
a. Twitches of hands and arms
b. Phrenic something
c. Trapezius stimulation

A

a. Twitches of hands and arms

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83
Q

Most common nociceptor?
a. Polymodal mechanical heat

A

a. Polymodal mechanical heat

84
Q

How to treat Laryngospasm in PACU? (select 2)
a. Succs 0.1mg/kg
b. Prop 0.5mg/kg
c. PPV
d. Succs 1 mg/kg

A

a. Succs 0.1mg/kg
b. Prop 0.5mg/kg

85
Q

What is true/important with gastroschisis? (SATA)
a. Lack of amnion
b. Assoc. With multiple issues
c. Avoid hypothermia, infection, dehydration
d. Avoid HYPERthermia, infection, dehydration

A

a. Lack of amnion
c. Avoid hypothermia, infection, dehydration

86
Q

What nerve for Adductor Canal block?
a. Saphenous

A

a. Saphenous

87
Q

Which of the following best prevents transfer of drug from fetus to mom?
a. Fetal acidosis

A

a. Fetal acidosis

88
Q

4 year old getting ankle surgery or something, 23 kg i think.. What is the plan?
a. GA w/ LMA 2.5

A

a. GA w/ LMA 2.5

89
Q

What parts inside the machine/circuit can cause hypoxic mixture? (select 3)
a. Expiratory valve issue
b. Empty oxygen cylinder
c. Switched cylinders
d. Disconnected hose
e. Pipe gas switch
f. Check valve closed

A

a. Expiratory valve issue
b. Empty oxygen cylinder
c. Switched cylinders

90
Q

What is NOT detected by infrared light
a. Answers were diatomic molecules like helium, nitrogen, oxygen

91
Q

Which of the following maintain bone integrity?
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoclasts
c. Osteoblasts

A

a. Osteocytes

92
Q

What decreases uterine blood due to increased vascular resistance? (select 2)
a. endogenous catecholamine release from stress
b. endometrial spiral arteriole contraction
c. Bearing down during second stage of labor

A

a. endogenous catecholamine release from stress
b. endometrial spiral arteriole contraction

93
Q

What is true about parturient physiology? (select 2)
a. Higher pain threshold during delivery
b. Decreased uptake of volatile anesthetics
c. MAC decreases up to 40%

A

a. Higher pain threshold during delivery
c. MAC decreases up to 40%

94
Q

How long should surgery be delayed for a bare-metal stent?
a. 30 days
b. 3 months
c. 6 months

A

a. 30 days

95
Q

How should the nasopharyngeal airway be measured?
a. Nares to thyroid notch

A

a. Nares to thyroid notch

96
Q

What is considered moderate OSA?
a. 15-29 episodes of apnea/hr
b. 30+

A

a. 15-29 episodes of apnea/hr

97
Q

Neurotransmitters that inhibit pain in the medulla and pons? (select 2)
a. Serotonin
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine

A

a. Serotonin
b. Norepinephrine

98
Q

Calculate first order kinetics
a. Use Ln(2)/ k
b. 30 hours i think, it was 2160 minutes

99
Q

T/F: Poiseuille’s law→ change in pressure is inversely proportional to flow rate?

A

a. False, directly proportional

100
Q

Infrared Analyzers cannot detect?
a. Oxygen, Nitric, Xenon

A

a. Oxygen, Nitric, Xenon

101
Q

What nerves arise from L2-L4
a. Obturator
b. Femoral

A

a. Obturator
b. Femoral

102
Q

Downside to pressure controlled ventilation?
a. Inconsistent tidal volumes

A

a. Inconsistent tidal volumes

103
Q

What is true about VCV?
a. Inspiratory flow set
b. Set tidal volume regardless of pressure

A

a. Inspiratory flow set
b. Set tidal volume regardless of pressure

104
Q

Which of the following would increase ETCO2?
a. shivering
b. hyperthermia

A

a. shivering

105
Q

What do you want to avoid in PNB?
a. Prolonged motor block

A

a. Prolonged motor block

106
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of hypocalcemia?
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Seizures
c. Confusion

A

a. Nausea and vomiting

107
Q

After thyroidectomy, pt develops Chovekstic sign, what should be checked?
a. Serum calcium

A

a. Serum calcium

108
Q

Haldane effect promotes?
a. Unloading of CO2 in high O2

A

a. Unloading of CO2 in high O2

109
Q

How long on a tank of O2 do you have when you have 1000 PSI remaining and running at 5L/min?

A

a. 1 hour

660L/1900 x 1000= 347/5L

110
Q

What is not seen in cardiac tamponade?
a. Increased stroke volume

A

a. Increased stroke volume

111
Q

Which causes less stimulation, hoarseness, etc?
a. LMA
b. ETT

112
Q

What is released from the adrenal medulla?
a. Epinephrine
b. Cortisol

A

a. Epinephrine

113
Q

Which is a phenanthrene immediately reversed by naloxone?
a. morphine

A

a. morphine

114
Q

Renin is directly responsible for what?
a. Synthesis of angiotensin I

A

a. Synthesis of angiotensin I

115
Q

What enzymes is released from kidneys with a drop in BP?
a. Renin
b. erythropoeitin

116
Q

Albumin ? (select 3)
a. Provides colloid osmotic pressure
b. synthesized in the liver
c. carrier for drugs that have lower water solubility.

A

a. Provides colloid osmotic pressure
b. synthesized in the liver
c. carrier for drugs that have lower water solubility.

117
Q

What controls emotions?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Pons
c. Midbrain

A

a. Hypothalamus

118
Q

What can assess your inspiratory oxygen? (select 3)
a. Galvanic
b. Polarographic
c. Infrared analyzer

A

a. Galvanic
b. Polarographic
c. Infrared analyzer

119
Q

Corticosteroids block what for synthesis of prostaglandins (rate limiting step) ?
a. Phospholipase A2

A

a. Phospholipase A2

120
Q

This drug is used for acute hypertension crises with pheochromocytomas ?
a. Phentolamine
b. Metoprolol
c. Nifidipine

A

a. Phentolamine

121
Q

What increases gastric motility by lowering the threshold? (select 2)
a. Motilin
b. Gastrin
c. Secretin
d. Somatostatin

A

a. Motilin
b. Gastrin

122
Q

T/F: The DISS is used to prevent hypoxic mixtures by attaching to cylinders?

A

a. False, PISS does this

123
Q

Height difference for BP from arm to brain ?
a. 2mmHG per inch

A

a. 2mmHG per inch

124
Q

What is a sign of dysfunction of cranial nerve VII ?
a. Unable to smile
b. Unable to open mouth

A

a. Unable to smile

125
Q

T/F: Your patient has VC of >10mL/kg. Is this part of extubation criteria?

126
Q

T/F: The Herring-Breuer reflex prevents overexpansion of the lungs?

127
Q

CO2 waveform does not go back to 0 what’s happening?

A

a. Rebreathing of CO2

128
Q

Midazolam and swallowing question ?
a. Can inhibit swallowing for up to 2 hours

A

a. Can inhibit swallowing for up to 2 hours

129
Q

Preoxygenation can get rid of up to ____ % of nitrogen ?
a. 95
b. 80
c. 75

130
Q

T/F: Helium will be more dissolvable in 25 degrees versus 50 degrees?

131
Q

What drug has the most potent alpha-1 agonist action?
a. Phenylephrine
b. Dexmetomidine
c. Isoproterenol
d. Dobutamine

A

a. Phenylephrine

132
Q

What is NOT true about a piston vent? (Select 2)
a. Uses more oxygen - this because bellows use oxygen to drive bellows so if leak they use more oxygen but not piston
b. Supplies consistent tidal volume
c. Cannot cause barotrauma
d. Doesn’t use oxygen to drive

A

a. Uses more oxygen - this because bellows use oxygen to drive bellows so if leak they use more oxygen but not piston
c. Cannot cause barotrauma

133
Q

T/F: Mapleson circuit D is the bains and delivers fresh gas near the patient and bag away from?

A

True
D= distal

134
Q

Which are true about neostigmine? (select 3)
a. Can cause vagal stimulation so give with anticholinergic
b. Increases Ach
c. Ceiling effect, max dose of 70 mcg/kg
d. Prevents breakdown of acetylcholinesterase
e. Is a tertiary amine so crosses BBB and glyco must be given

A

a. Can cause vagal stimulation so give with anticholinergic
b. Increases Ach
c. Ceiling effect, max dose of 70 mcg/kg

135
Q

What is forceful expiration after max inspiration?
a. Forced vital capacity
b. Vital capacity
c. FEV

A

a. Forced vital capacity

136
Q

What increases SSEPs ? (select 2)
a. Ketamine
b. Etomidate
c. Propofol
d. Fentanyl

A

a. Ketamine
b. Etomidate

137
Q

T/F: A-delta fibers control fast, first pain?

138
Q

Potency of LA related to what?
a. Octanol solubility

A

a. Octanol solubility

139
Q

Which of the following is least important in determining speed of onset of volatiles?
a. Fat
b. Muscle
c. Endocrine organs

140
Q

Patient in on a MAOI and drinks wine and has cheese. What should you do first?
a. Check blood pressure
b. Check glucose
c. Chest temperature

A

a. Check blood pressure

141
Q

Patient has a really severe history of difficult airway. What surgery would be most appropriate for a regional?
a. Ortho leg repair

A

a. Ortho leg repair

142
Q

Which of the following (select 2) can cause main stem intubation?
a. Neck flexion
b. trendelenburg

A

a. Neck flexion
b. trendelenburg

143
Q

What class of drugs is best for moderate permissive hypotension?
a. Beta blockers
b. Opioids
c. Hypnotics

A

a. Beta blockers

144
Q

What is true of extrajunctional receptors? (select 3)
a. Gamma replaces epsilon
b. Pore opens 10x longer
c. Resistant to the nondepolarizers

145
Q

Which of the following prevents electrocution?
a. None of the above

A

a. None of the above

146
Q

Threshold for vib when shock on skin?
a. 100 mA → skin so its a macroshock

A

a. 100 mA → skin so its a macroshock

147
Q

MAC case, pt. Responds to touch and is breathing spontaneously ?
a. Moderate sedation
b. Analgesia
c. Light sedation

A

a. Moderate sedation

148
Q

Fill in the blank: the ————– recommends ——— in the OR
a. National Fire Protection Agency, 25 rotations/hour
b. National Fire Protection Agency, 25 rotations/day

A

a. National Fire Protection Agency, 25 rotations/hour

149
Q

Match oil gas coefficients?
a. Nitrous 1.4, Des 19, Sevo 49, Iso 91
b. Nitrous 19, Des 49, Sevo 1.4, Iso 91
c. Nitrous 91, Des 49, Sevo 1.4, Iso 19

A

a. Nitrous 1.4, Des 19, Sevo 49, Iso 91
Oil:gas = potency

150
Q

T/F: End tidal CO2 is accurate in predicting tracheal intubation with 3 consistent breaths. It does not tell you bronchial intubation though?

151
Q

Which stops all electricity leakage and protects the OR from shock?
a. None of the above - evidently theres always leakage
b. LIM

A

a. None of the above - evidently theres always leakage

152
Q

What could you expect from your patient if you give 5mg of atropine instead of 0.4mg?
a. Postop confusion

A

a. Postop confusion

153
Q

T/F: A common way to determine airway patency (something like that) prior to extubation is deflating cuff and checking for a leak?

154
Q

Which of the following are long-acting LA? (select 2)
a. Bupivacaine
b. Tetracaine
c. Procaine
d. lidocaine

A

a. Bupivacaine
b. Tetracaine

155
Q

Nose bleed is one of the cause of failed nasal fiberoptic intubation, what is other cause?
a. Foggy scope

A

a. Foggy scope

156
Q

pH is 7.2 or something, which way does the curve go?
a. to the right
b. to the left

A

a. To the right

157
Q

What does plasmin do?
a. Breaks down fibrin

A

a. Breaks down fibrin

158
Q

Patient is found down and they have no breathing, cessation of ventilatory effort at passive end expiration, VT= FRC
a. Apnea
b. Apneusis
c. biot

159
Q

Bupivacaine vs Ropivacaine?
a. Ropivacaine has a higher TI
b. Ropivacaine is pure R isomer
c. Ropivacaine is more cardiotoxic than B?

A

a. Ropivacaine has a higher TI

160
Q

T/F: Saphenous nerve is the only nerve that arises from the posterior femoral nerve and is sensory only?

161
Q

Which of the following would indicate damage to CN VII (trigeminal) ?
a. Unable to smile on one side
b. Unable to open mouth against resistance
c. Unable to swallow?

A

a. Unable to smile on one side

162
Q

Which arises from C6-T1 or something and runs along spiral groove of humerus?
a. Radial nerve
b. Median nerve

A

a. Radial nerve

163
Q

What is first line for renal failure?
a. Loop diuretics
b. Thiazides
c. Osmotics

A

a. Loop diuretics

164
Q

What is the cause of cervical tetraplegia?
a. Cervical hyperflexion
b. Cervical extension

A

a. Cervical hyperflexion

165
Q

Which is least likely to cross placenta and cause fetal toxicity?
a. Chloroprocaine
b. Bupivacaine

A

a. Chloroprocaine

166
Q

What is true regarding ester locals? (select 2)
a. Allergic to one ester means cant have any type of LA
b. They are broken down by butyrylcholinesterase
c. Cocaine is broken down by liver esterases

A

b. They are broken down by butyrylcholinesterase
c. Cocaine is broken down by liver esterases

167
Q

What is not a cause of hypernatremia?
a. Coagulopathy
b. GI losses
c. Osmotic diuresis

A

a. Coagulopathy

168
Q

What does flumazenil do?
a. Blocks GABA - A

A

a. Blocks GABA - A

169
Q

What is the ideal gas law?
a. PV=nRT

170
Q

If ______ stays the same, Boyle’s law states that pressure and volume are inversely proportional.
a. Temperature

A

a. Temperature

171
Q

The juxtaglomerular cells in kidney secrets what in response to decreased volume?
a. Renin

172
Q

Which is from endothelium and causes vasodilation?
a. Nitric oxide
b. beta blocker
c. calcium channel blocker

A

a. Nitric oxide

173
Q

How does pancuronium combat bradycardia from fentanyl?
a. Direct stimulation of cardiac muscarinic Ach

A

a. Direct stimulation of cardiac muscarinic Ach

174
Q

Ratio of bicarb to carbonic acid in the buffer system?
a. 20:1
b. 1:20

175
Q

Which is a NK1 antagonist for nausea?
a. Aprepitant
b. Zofran
c. Reglan

A

a. Aprepitant

176
Q

Which meds cause decrease glucose secretion, increase insulin sensitivity, increase peripheral uptake of glucose?
a. metformin

A

a. metformin

177
Q

Which anticancer meds cause dose-limiting renal toxicity?
a. Cisplatin

A

a. Cisplatin

178
Q

Tardive dyskinesia from antipsychotics will mimic which?
a. Dopamine

A

a. Dopamine

179
Q

What would read as low ischemia on SSEP?
a. Hypothermia
b. Low MAC

A

a. Hypothermia

180
Q

Which nerve innervates posterior 2⁄3 tongue, pharynx and anterior side of epiglottis?
a. CN IX - glossopharyngeal

A

a. CN IX - glossopharyngeal

181
Q

T/F: Target of epidural LA is the ventral horn?

A

a. False → dorsal horn

182
Q

What MP score can only see soft and hard palate?
a. MP III
b. MP II
c. MP I

A

a. MP III
PUSH

183
Q

Question regarding the long thoracic nerve? (select 2)
a. Presents as scapular winging
b. Originates from C5-C7

A

a. Presents as scapular winging
b. Originates from C5-C7

184
Q

Dibucaine number ?
a. Homogenous 20-30
b. Heterogenous atypical 40-60 (our notes say 50-60)
c. Remember Quality not quantity

A

a. Homogenous 20-30
b. Heterogenous atypical 40-60 (our notes say 50-60)
c. Remember Quality not quantity

185
Q

MI within <3 months = 30%
MI within 3-6 months = 15%
MI within > 6 months = 7%

A

Risk factor for reinfarction occurence

186
Q

The leftward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve by hypocarbia is known as what?
a. Fick Principle
b. Bohr effect
c. Haldane effect
d. Law of Laplace

A

b. Bohr effect

187
Q

Each of the following postoperative complications of thyroid surgery can result in upper airway obstruction except?
a. tracheomalacia
b. tetany
c. bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
d. bilateral superior laryngeal nerve injury

A

d. bilateral superior laryngeal nerve injury

188
Q

T/F:
In the OR electrical power is ungrounded, but the equipment is grounded?

189
Q

T/F: ADH vasopressin is produced in the hypothalamus then stored and release by the posterior pituitary?

190
Q

Coronary perfusion pressure equation?

A

CPP= DBP- RAP
normal is 60-80mmHg

191
Q

CO increases by what % in the Third trimester?
a. 30-50%
b. 60-80%
c. 10-25%

192
Q

Broken-down Heme porphyrin is converted into what?

193
Q

The greatest amount of lipid accumulation is where?
a. blood
b. coronaries
c. liver

194
Q

Cryoprecipitate has the greatest amount of what 2 things?

A

Fibrinogen
vWF

195
Q

Which device has the lowest probability of causing a laryngospasm?
a. ett tube
b. LMA
c. King airway

196
Q

Renal failure does not cause what?
a. Pruritis
b. Diabetes
c. Anemia

A

b. Diabetes

197
Q

Baby was last breastfed 2 hours ago, how much longer should procedure be delayed?

A

2 hours more.
4 hours total for breast milk

198
Q

Which nerve is injured the most from a Thyroidectomy procedure?
a. recurrent laryngeal
b. internal laryngeal
c. hypoglossal

A

a. recurrent laryngeal

199
Q

ARB drugs like losartan can cause what? (select 2)
a. upregulation
b. downregulation
c. increased circulating angiotensin II
d. decreased angiotensin converting enzyme

A

b. downregulation
c. increased circulating angiotensin II

200
Q

MI noticed in leads V1 and V2 where is this location?
a. anterior
b. lateral
c. septal

A

c. septal LAD

201
Q

Beachchair position for shoulder surgery, surgeon wants controlled hypotension, where would you place the level of the art-line ?
a. head
b. heart
c. shoulder

202
Q

Pregnant Mother has risk of bleeding, labs were done what should the CRNA know about the results of the labs?
a. Several Increased factors
b. Risk of bleeding
c. Decreased fibrinogen
d. decreased platelets

A

a. Several Increased factors

203
Q

Patient with pH 7.2, bicarb 24, Co2 60, what is patient in?
a. metabolic acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis

A

c. respiratory acidosis

204
Q

Pregnant mother diagnosed with pre-eclampsia what can we assume with this patient in response to her diagnosis?
a. increased SVR
b. Increased CO
c. increased platelets

A

a. increased SVR

205
Q

What does the C wave represent on a CVP monitor?
a. tricuspid valve open
b. tricuspid valve close
c. atrial systole
d. atrial diastole

A

a. tricuspid valve open

Ane Class Practice (29 decks)

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