Patho final-S3 Flashcards
Which statement made by a student indicates the healthcare professional needs to describe the pericardium again?
a. The pericardium is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b. It is made up of connective tissue and a surface layer of squamous cells.
c. The pericardium protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d. It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood
pressure and heart rate.
b. It is made up of connective tissue and a surface layer of squamous cells.
Which cardiac chambers have the thinnest wall and why?
a. The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood.
b. The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart.
c. The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure.
d. The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation.
a. The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood.
Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures?
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle
c. Left ventricle
What is the process that ensures mitral and tricuspid valve closure after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a. Chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b. Increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the valves to close.
c. Trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d. Reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.
b. Increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the valves to close.
A student asks the healthcare professional to explain the function of the papillary muscles. What response by the professional is best?
a. The papillary muscles close the semilunar valves.
b. These muscles prevent backward expulsion of the atrioventricular valves.
c. They open the atrioventricular valves.
d. The papillary muscles open the semilunar valves.
b. These muscles prevent backward expulsion of the atrioventricular valves.
During the cardiac cycle, why do the aortic and pulmonic valves close after the ventricles relax?
a. Papillary muscles relax, which allows the valves to close.
b. Chordae tendineae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
c. Reduced pressure in the ventricles creates a negative pressure, which pulls the valves closed.
d. Blood fills the cusps of the valves and causes the edges to merge, closing the valves.
d. Blood fills the cusps of the valves and causes the edges to merge, closing the valves.
Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel?
a. Superior vena cava
b. Pulmonary veins
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Coronary veins
b. Pulmonary veins
A healthcare professional tells a student that a patient has lost atrial kick. What would the student expect to see when examining this patient?
a. Improvement in atrial dysrhythmias
b. Increased blood pressure
c. Signs of decreased cardiac output
d. Elevations in serum troponin levels
c. Signs of decreased cardiac output
Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which structures?
a. Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b. Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c. Upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d. Posterior interventricular sulcus and the smaller branches of both ventricles
a. Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
Where are the coronary ostia located?
a. Left ventricle
b. Aortic valve
c. Coronary sinus
d. Aorta
d. Aorta
The coronary sinus empties into which cardiac structure?
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Superior vena cava
d. Aorta
a. Right atrium
During the cardiac cycle, which structure directly delivers action potential to the ventricular myocardium?
a. Sinoatrial (SA) node
b. Atrioventricular (AV) node
c. Purkinje fibers
d. Bundle branches
c. Purkinje fibers
A patient has a problem with Phase 0 of the cardiac cycle. What electrolyte imbalance would the healthcare professional associate most directly with this problem?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hypomagnesemia
b. Hyponatremia
A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has a delay in electrical activity reaching the ventricle as seen on ECG. What ECG finding would the healthcare professional associate with this problem?
a. A prolonged ST interval
b. Variability in measurement with heart rate
c. PR interval measuring 0.28 sec
d. A QRS complex measuring 0.08 sec
c. PR interval measuring 0.28 sec
The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA) node because of what reason?
a. It has a superior location in the right atrium.
b. It is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization.
c. It has rich sympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve.
d. It depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart.
d. It depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart.
What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
a. Refractory
b. Hyperpolarization
c. Threshold
d. Sinoatrial (SA)
a. Refractory
A patient has a disorder affecting ventricular depolarization. What ECG finding would the healthcare professional associate with this condition?
a. Shortened PR interval
b. Prolonged QRS interval
c. QT interval variability
d. Absence of P waves
b. Prolonged QRS interval
What can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node?
a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Catecholamines
c. Vagal stimulation
d. Sinoatrial node (SA)
b. Catecholamines
A patient had a myocardial infarction that damaged the SA node, which is no longer functioning as the pacemaker of the heart. What heart rate would the healthcare provider expect the patient to have?
a. 60 to 70 beats/min
b. 40 to 60 beats/min
c. 30 to 40 beats/min
d. 10 to 20 beats/min
b. 40 to 60 beats/min
What is the effect of epinephrine on Beta-3 receptors on the heart?
a. Decreases coronary blood flow
b. Supplements the effects of both 1 and 2 receptors
c. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction
d. Prevents overstimulation of the heart by the sympathetic nervous system
d. Prevents overstimulation of the heart by the sympathetic nervous system
Where in the heart are the receptors for neurotransmitters located?
a. Semilunar and atrioventricular (AV) valves
b. Endocardium and sinoatrial (SA) node
c. Myocardium and coronary vessels
d. Epicardium and AV node
c. Myocardium and coronary vessels
What enables electrical impulses to travel in a continuous cell-to-cell fashion in myocardial cells?
a. Sarcolemma sclerotic plaques
b. Intercalated disks
c. Trabeculae carneae
d. Bachmann bundles
b. Intercalated disks
Within a physiologic range, what does an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) result in?
a. Increase in force of contraction
b. Decrease in refractory time
c. Increase in afterload
d. Decrease in repolarization
a. Increase in force of contraction
The healthcare professional explains to a student that the amount of volume of blood in the heart is directly related to the _____ of contraction.
a. Pressure
b. Strength
c. Viscosity
d. Speed
b. Strength
Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood?
a. Superior vena cava
b. Aorta
c. Inferior vena cava
d. Pulmonary veins
b. Aorta
A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures. What disorder would the professional assess the patient for?
a. Mitral regurgitation
b. Mitral stenosis
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Jugular vein distention
c. Pulmonary edema
The resting heart rate in a healthy person is primarily under the control of which nervous system?
a. Sympathetic
b. Parasympathetic
c. Somatic
d. Spinal
b. Parasympathetic
The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in which cardiac location?
a. Atria
b. Aorta
c. Sinoatrial (SA) node
d. Ventricles
a. Atria
A healthcare professional cares for older adults in a skilled nursing facility. What should the professional assess for in these individuals related to cardiovascular functioning?
a. Increased rate of falling and dizzy spells
b. Improved exercise tolerance
c. A gradual slowing of the heart rate
d. Progressive ECG changes
a. Increased rate of falling and dizzy spells
Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by what mechanism?
a. Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins
b. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins
c. Autonomic control of the heart only
d. Somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins
b. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins
What is the most important negative inotropic agent?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Dopamine
c. Acetylcholine
The right lymphatic duct drains into which structure?
a. Right subclavian artery
b. Right atrium
c. Right subclavian vein
d. Superior vena cava
c. Right subclavian vein
A patient had a motor vehicle crash and suffered critical injuries to the brainstem. What physiological responses would the healthcare professional expect to see?
a. Prolonged QRS segment
b. Shortened PR interval
c. Pulse and blood pressure changes
d. Fluid overload
c. Pulse and blood pressure changes
What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a. Arterial stiffening
b. Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c. Decreased aortic wall thickness
d. Arteriosclerosis
a. Arterial stiffening
What is the major determinant of the resistance that blood encounters as it flows through the systemic circulation?
a. Volume of blood in the systemic circulation
b. Muscle layer of the metarterioles
c. Muscle layer of the arterioles
d. Force of ventricular contraction
c. Muscle layer of the arterioles
What physical sign does the healthcare professional relate to the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel?
a. Increased blood pressure during periods of stress
b. Bounding pulse felt on palpation
c. Cyanosis observed on exertion
d. Murmur heard on auscultation
d. Murmur heard on auscultation
What is the major effect of a calcium channel blocker such as verapamil on cardiac contractions?
a. Increases the rate of cardiac contractions
b. Decreases the strength of cardiac contractions
c. Stabilizes the rhythm of cardiac contractions
d. Stabilizes the vasodilation during cardiac contractions
b. Decreases the strength of cardiac contractions
An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins is identified by which intracardiac pressure?
a. A wave
b. V wave
c. C wave
d. X descent
b. V wave
What is the area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules called?
a. Medulla
b. Cortex
c. Pyramids
d. Columns
b. Cortex
What is the functional unit of the kidney called?
a. Glomerulus
b. Nephron
c. Collecting duct
d. Pyramid
b. Nephron
What is the only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area called?
a. Proximal convoluted tubules
b. Distal tubules
c. Ascending loop of Henle
d. Descending loop of Henle
a. Proximal convoluted tubules
What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?
a. Macula densa
b. Visceral epithelium
c. Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
d. Filtration slits
c. Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?
a. Peripheral nerves
b. Parasympathetic fibers
c. Sympathetic nervous system
d. Tenth thoracic nerve roots
b. Parasympathetic fibers
How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness?
a. 75 to 100 mL
b. 100 to 150 mL
c. 250 to 300 mL
d. 350 to 400 mL
c. 250 to 300 mL
What is the trigone?
a. A smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter
b. The inner mucosal lining of the kidneys
c. A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra
d. One of the three divisions of the loop of Henle
c. A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra
The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?
a. Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries
b. Diffusion rate in the renal cortex
c. Diffusion rate in the renal medulla
d. Glomerular active transport
a. Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries
On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive?
a. 10% to 20%
b. 15% to 20%
c. 20% to 25%
d. 30% to 35%
c. 20% to 25%
What are blood vessels of the kidneys innervated by?
a. Vagus nerve
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
When renin is released, it is capable of which action?
a. Inactivation of autoregulation
b. Direct activation of angiotensin II
c. Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. Formation of angiotensin I
d. Formation of angiotensin I
A student asks the professor to explain what effect natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates. Which response by the professor is best?
a. Stimulates antidiuretic hormones
b. Inhibits antidiuretic hormones
c. Stimulates renin and aldosterone
d. Inhibits renin and aldosterone
d. Inhibits renin and aldosterone
What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?
a. Sodium retention
b. Sodium excretion
c. Water retention
d. Water excretion
b. Sodium excretion
What term is used to identify the movement of fluids and solutes from the tubular lumen to the peritubular capillary plasma?
a. Tubular secretion
b. Ultrafiltration
c. Tubular reabsorption
d. Tubular excretion
c. Tubular reabsorption
A patient’s urinalysis came back positive for glucose. What does the healthcare professional expect the patient’s blood glucose to be at a minimum?
a. 126 mg/dL
b. 150 mg/dL
c. 180 mg/dL
d. 200 mg/dL
c. 180 mg/dL
Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct?
a. Antidiuretic hormone
b. Aldosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
a. Antidiuretic hormone
Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis?
a. Uromodulin
b. Nephrin
c. Urodilatin
d. Cystatin
a. Uromodulin
What is the end product of protein metabolism that is excreted in urine?
a. Glucose
b. Ketones
c. Bile
d. Urea
d. Urea
What is the action of urodilatin?
a. Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.
b. It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.
c. Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.
d. It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.
d. It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.
The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?
a. Posterior pituitary
b. Thyroid
c. Parathyroid
d. Anterior pituitary
a. Posterior pituitary
What does the healthcare professional understand about urodilatin?
a. Urodilatin inhibits sodium chloride and water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
b. It inhibits antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to prevent water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
c. Urodilatin is stimulated by a rise in blood pressure and an increase in extracellular volume.
d. It is stimulated by a fall in blood pressure and a decrease in extracellular volume.
c. Urodilatin is stimulated by a rise in blood pressure and an increase in extracellular volume.
What substance stimulates renal hydroxylation in the process of producing vitamin D?
a. Erythropoietin
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Calcitonin
d. Parathyroid hormone
d. Parathyroid hormone
Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys?
a. Antidiuretic hormone
b. Aldosterone
c. Erythropoietin
d. Angiotensinogen
c. Erythropoietin
The student wants information about a patient’s renal function. What test does the healthcare professional tell the student to evaluate?
a. Glomerular filtration rate
b. Hourly urine output
c. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
d. The specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine
a. Glomerular filtration rate
Which renal change is found in older adults?
a. Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
b. Sharp decline in renal blood flow
c. Decrease in the number of nephrons
d. Decrease in urine output
c. Decrease in the number of nephrons
A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult. Understanding age-related renal changes, what urinalysis finding would the professional view as normal for an older patient?
a. pH 5.2
b. Moderate protein
c. Specific gravity 1.003
d. Positive for white cell casts
c. Specific gravity 1.003
What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?
a. Glomerular filtration
b. Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3
c. Increased heart rate
d. Compensatory hypertrophy
d. Compensatory hypertrophy
Which process makes it possible for ureters to be transplanted successfully?
a. Compensatory hypertrophy
b. Erythropoietin secretion
c. Peristalsis
d. Collateral circulation
c. Peristalsis
In the mouth and stomach, salivary alpha-amylase initiates the digestion of which nutrients?
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Fats
d. Fiber
b. Carbohydrates
Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
a. IgA
What effect is a result of inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system with a drug such as atropine?
a. Salivation becomes thinner.
b. Salivation decreases.
c. The pH of saliva changes.
d. Digestive enzymes are inhibited
b. Salivation decreases.
Food enters the stomach via which orifice or sphincter?
a. Cardiac
b. Upper esophageal
c. Gastric
d. Fundal
a. Cardiac
Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
a. Parietal
b. Chief
c. G
d. D
a. Parietal
Which cells in the stomach secrete histamine?
a. Oxyntic
b. Chief
c. D
d. Enterochromaffin-like
d. Enterochromaffin-like
Which gastric hormone inhibits acid and pepsinogen secretion, as well as decreases the release of gastrin?
a. Motalin
b. Histamine
c. Somatostatin
d. Acetylcholine
c. Somatostatin
Which enzyme breaks down protein-forming polypeptides in the stomach?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Pepsin
c. Gastrin
d. Secretin
b. Pepsin
Exposure to which substance protects the mucosal barrier of the stomach?
a. Prostaglandins
b. Acetylcholine
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Regurgitated bile
a. Prostaglandins
The ileum and jejunum are suspended by folds of the peritoneum that contain an extensive vascular and nervous network. What are these folds called?
a. Ligament of Treitz
b. Mesentery
c. Auerbach folds
d. Lamina propria
b. Mesentery
Where in the small intestines are lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages produced?
a. Brush border
b. Microvilli
c. Lamina propria
d. Crypts of Lieberkühn
c. Lamina propria
The student asks the professor why water and electrolytes are transported in both directions through tight junctions and intercellular spaces rather than across cell membranes. What response by the professor is best?
a. The intercellular hydrostatic pressure is inadequate to push the water and electrolytes across the cell membranes.
b. A balance of cations and ions among the electrolytes on each side of the cell membranes cannot be maintained.
c. The epithelial cell membranes are formed of lipids that are hydrophobic and therefore repel water.
d. Receptors on those cell membranes are occupied with a diffusion of amino acids and monosaccharides.
c. The epithelial cell membranes are formed of lipids that are hydrophobic and therefore repel water.
Which statement best describes the gastrointestinal tract?
a. The gastrointestinal tract is a muscular tube that transports food from the mouth to the stomach.
b. The gastrointestinal tract is a hollow tube that extends from the mouth to the anus.
c. The gastrointestinal tract is a baglike structure that propels partially digested food (chyme).
d. The gastrointestinal tract is 5 m long and consists of three segments.
b. The gastrointestinal tract is a hollow tube that extends from the mouth to the anus.
Glucose transport enhances the absorption of which electrolyte?
a. Sodium
b. Phosphate
c. Potassium
d. Chloride
a. Sodium
What process is capable of increasing both intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure, thereby facilitating defecation?
a. Relaxation of the internal anal sphincter
b. Intestinal peristalsis
c. Valsalva maneuver
d. Ileogastric reflex
c. Valsalva maneuver
Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates?
a. Trypsin
b. Amylase
c. Lipase
d. Chymotrypsin
b. Amylase
What is the formation of water-soluble molecules to facilitate the absorption of the byproducts of lipid hydrolysis accomplished by?
a. Micelles
b. Phospholipase
c. Chylomicrons
d. Colipase
a. Micelles
What is the primary source of physiologic iron?
a. Transferrin from plasma
b. Pepsin form pepsinogen
c. Bile from bilirubin
d. Heme from animal protein
d. Heme from animal protein
A professor has taught a class of students about the characteristics of vitamin B12. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for more education?
a. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum.
b. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in its free (unbound) form in small amounts.
c. Vitamin B12 is necessary for platelet maturation.
d. Vitamin B12 binds to intrinsic factor.
c. Vitamin B12 is necessary for platelet maturation.
Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
a. Vitamin B6
b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin K
d. Folic acid
a. Vitamin B6
Which vitamin facilitates the absorption of iron by the epithelial cells of the duodenum and jejunum?
a. B6
b. C
c. E
d. B12
b. C
What is the role of the normal intestinal bacterial flora?
a. Metabolizing bile salts, estrogens, and lipids
b. Breaking down proteins into amino acids
c. Facilitating the motility of the colon
d. Metabolizing aldosterone and insulin
a. Metabolizing bile salts, estrogens, and lipids
How are Kupffer cells best described?
a. Natural killer cells that produce interferon-gamma (IFN-)
b. Contractile and therefore capable of regulating the sinusoid blood flow
c. Bactericidal and therefore central to innate immunity
d. Able to metabolize estrogen, progesterone, and androgens
c. Bactericidal and therefore central to innate immunity
Bilirubin is a byproduct of the destruction of which aged cells?
a. Platelets
b. Protein
c. Leukocytes
d. Erythrocytes
d. Erythrocytes
The process of conjugation of bilirubin in the liver is best described as which transformation?
a. Unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into urobilinogen
b. Unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin
c. Conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin into unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin
d. Conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin into urobilinogen
b. Unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin
A professor has been teaching a class on gastrointestinal function. Which statement by a student indicates the need for more education?
a. Within 30 min of eating, the gallbladder forces bile into the stomach.
b. Cholinergic branches of the vagus nerve mediate gallbladder contraction.
c. Cholecystokinin provides hormonal regulation of gallbladder contraction.
d. The sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of bile from the gallbladder.
a. Within 30 min of eating, the gallbladder forces bile into the stomach.
Which structure synthesizes clotting factors and the vitamin K necessary for hemostasis?
a. Colon
b. Spleen
c. Gallbladder
d. Liver
d. Liver
How many days does it take for the entire epithelial population of the small intestines to be replaced?
a. 30 to 45
b. 15 to 25
c. 7 to 15
d. 4 to 7
d. 4 to 7
Which statement, made by a student, is correct regarding the state of the intestinal tract at birth?
a. The intestinal tract is colonized by Escherichia coli.
b. The intestinal tract is sterile.
c. Clostridium welchii is present in but in very small numbers.
d. Streptococcus colonization in the intestinal tract has begun.
b. The intestinal tract is sterile.
Which bone cells produce osteocalcin when stimulated by 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D and synthesize osteoid?
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteocytes
c. Fibrocytes
d. Osteoblasts
d. Osteoblasts
What happens to the original bone during the second phase of bone remodeling?
a. The original bone is replaced.
b. It hardens.
c. The original bone is resorbed.
d. It is synthesized.
c. The original bone is resorbed.
Which cells function to maintain bone matrix?
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteocytes
c. Osteoblasts
d. Osteophytes
b. Osteocytes
Which bone cells are large and multinucleated and contain lysosomes filled with hydrolytic enzymes?
a. Osteoblasts
b. Osteoclasts
c. Osteocytes
d. Fibrocytes
b. Osteoclasts
Which bone cell secretes hydrochloric acid to help dissolve bone minerals and collagenase, thus aiding in the digestion of collagen?
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoclasts
d. Osteophytes
c. Osteoclasts
Which glucoprotein is believed to inhibit calcium phosphate precipitation and play a part in bone resorption by recruiting osteoclasts?
a. Osteocalcin
b. Osteonectin
c. Laminin
d. Osteopontin
a. Osteocalcin
Which glucoprotein is thought to transport essential elements such as hormones, ions, and other metabolites to and from the bone cells?
a. Osteocalcin
b. Osteonectin
c. Laminin
d. Bone albumin
d. Bone albumin
How is the work function of a muscle usually calculated?
a. Muscle type
b. Calculating force x distance
c. Foot pounds
d. Kilograms
b. Calculating force x distance
What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?
a. Small channels called canaliculi
b. Osteocytes within the lacunae
c. Tiny spaces within the lacunae
d. Haversian system
d. Haversian system
Which part of an injured joint becomes insensitive to pain and regenerates slowly and minimally?
a. Synovium
b. Articular cartilage
c. Bursa
d. Tendon
b. Articular cartilage
The outer layer of the periosteum contains blood vessels and nerves that penetrate the inner structures of the bone by way of which structure?
a. Volkmann canals
b. Canaliculi
c. Sharpey canals
d. Trabeculae
a. Volkmann canals
What is the function of Sharpey fibers?
a. To anchor the outer layer of the periosteum to the inner layer
b. To contain blood vessels and nerves on the outer layer of the periosteum
c. To help attach tendons and ligaments to the periosteum
d. To attach muscles to the periosteum
c. To help attach tendons and ligaments to the periosteum
The student learns that after puberty, the epiphyseal plate calcifies and the epiphysis merges with which structure?
a. Epiphyseal line
b. Epiphyseal plate
c. Metaphysis
d. Articular cartilage
c. Metaphysis
The stage of healing in the bone that involves procallus formation entails which process?
a. Formation of a hematoma that allows the development of a fibrin network
b. Production of granulation tissue by fibroblasts, capillary buds, and osteoblasts
c. Development of a primitive bone matrix termed woven bone
d. Remodeling of the periosteal and endosteal bone surfaces
b. Production of granulation tissue by fibroblasts, capillary buds, and osteoblasts
The professor asks a student to describe the movement of a diarthrosis joint. What answer by the student is best?
a. Immovable joint
b. Slightly moveable
c. Variable movement
d. Freely moveable
d. Freely moveable
Which type of joint holds teeth in the maxilla or mandible?
a. Amphiarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Synarthrosis
d. Gomphosis
d. Gomphosis
The hyaline cartilage joints between the ribs and sternum are examples of which type of joint?
a. Synchondrosis
b. Symphysis
c. Gomphosis
d. Syndesmosis
a. Synchondrosis
The joint that contains a synovial membrane that lines the inner joint capsule is an example of which type of joint?
a. Amphiarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Synarthrosis
d. Biarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
What is the function of the synovial membrane’s type A cells within the intima?
a. To release mast cells, initiating the inflammatory process after joint injury
b. To ingest and remove bacteria and debris by phagocytosis in the joint cavity
c. To secrete hyaluronate, a binding agent that gives synovial fluid its viscous quality
d. To store fat cells and glycogen, providing adenosine triphosphate for joint activity
b. To ingest and remove bacteria and debris by phagocytosis in the joint cavity
The professor is quizzing student on synovial fluid. Which statement shows the students need further instruction?
a. It contains protein polysaccharides to repair the synovial membrane after injury.
b. It lubricates the joint surfaces, allowing ease of movement.
c. It nourishes the pad of the articular cartilage.
d. It contains leukocytes to phagocytize joint debris and microorganisms.
a. It contains protein polysaccharides to repair the synovial membrane after injury.
What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
a. Sharpey fibers
b. Collagen fibers
c. Glycoproteins
d. Elastin fibers
b. Collagen fibers
What controls the movement of synovial fluid through cartilage?
a. Cartiloregulins
b. Hyaluronate
c. Proteoglycans
d. Chondroitin
c. Proteoglycans
Which statement indicates that a student needs more information about muscles?
a. Muscle comprises 50% of an adult’s body weight and 40% of a child’s body weight.
b. Muscle is 75% water, 20% protein, and 5% organic and inorganic compounds.
c. Muscle contains 32% of all protein stores for energy and metabolism.
d. Muscles are encased in fascia.
a. Muscle comprises 50% of an adult’s body weight and 40% of a child’s body
weight.
Which characteristic of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers does the student learn?
a. Slow contraction speed
b. Fast conduction velocities
c. Profuse capillary supply
d. Oxidative metabolism
b. Fast conduction velocities
As the innervation ratio of a particular organ increases, what other property also increases?
a. Control
b. Movement
c. Coordination
d. Endurance
d. Endurance
Which statement describes a neuroregulin?
a. Chemical mediator that initiates signals from the anterior horn cell of the spinal card to the axon of motor nerve branches of groups of muscle fibers
b. Neurotransmitter that provides a means of reporting changes in length, tension, velocity, and tone in muscles
c. Proteoglycan secreted by neurons, which increases acetylcholine receptors
d. Mechanoreceptor that lies parallel to muscle fibers and responds to muscle stretching
c. Proteoglycan secreted by neurons, which increases acetylcholine receptors
Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?
a. Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation
b. Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling
c. Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction
d. Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation
d. Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation
Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium
c. Calcium
In which type of contraction does the muscle maintain a constant tension as it moves?
a. Isotonic
b. Isometric
c. Hypertonic
d. Hypotonic
a. Isotonic
Which term is used to identify a functional muscle contraction in which the muscle contracts but the limb does not move?
a. Isotonic
b. Isometric
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
b. Isometric
A student has learned about aging and the musculoskeletal system. What statement by the student indicates a need for more study on the topic?
a. Haversian system erodes, the canals nearest the marrow cavity widen, and the endosteal cortex converts to spongy bone.
b. The remodeling cycle increases because of a decreased ability of the basic multicellular units to resorb and deposit bone.
c. Cartilaginous rigidity increases because of decreasing water content and decreasing concentrations of glycosaminoglycans.
d. Muscle ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis declines, although the regenerative function of muscle tissue is reportedly normal in older adults.
a. Haversian system erodes, the canals nearest the marrow cavity widen, and the
endosteal cortex converts to spongy bone.
Which component is found in synovial fluid?
a. Protein polysaccharides
b. Water
c. Leukocytes
d. Chondrocytes
c. Leukocytes
What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?
a. Procallus
b. Joint capsule
c. Hematoma
d. Elastin fibers
b. Joint capsule
