Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Flight Notes > Solo Stage Check > Flashcards

Solo Stage Check Flashcards

(Airworthiness, performance limitations, weight and balance, weather, airspace, and solo pilot privileges and limitations).

1
Q

What is the acronym SUU uses for airworthiness?

A

DIE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What makes up the acronym DIE?

A

Documents, inspections, and equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the documents the aircraft needs to be airworthy?

(ARROWGC)

A

Airworthiness Certification
Registration
Operations Limitations
Weight and Balance
Garmin Manual
Checklists (emergency and normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What documents does the pilot need to have to be airworthy?

(CLIMB)

A

-Currency Requirement logged
-License
-ID (gov. photo)
-Medical
-Biannual flight review current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the I in the DIE acronym?

A

Inspections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What inspection does the pilot need to perform on themself?

A

Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Emotions/Eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long does a pilot need to wait to fly after drinking?

A

8 hours and/or until the affects of the alcohol have worn off.

A hangover is still considered to be an affect of alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What inspections does the pilot need to have done on the aircraft?

A

Daytime VFR

-Transponder (24)
-Hundred hour (progressive)
ELT (12)
Airworthiness Directives
Annual (12)

Nighttime/IFR

Fuses (Circuit Breaker)
Landing light (for hire)
Anti-collision light
Position light
Source of power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three main types of AD’s?

A

-One time AD: Requires one time alteration.

-Recurring AD: Requires a check or service to be performed on an ongoing basis at specific intervals

-Emergency Airworthiness Directives: Absolutely must take care of this before flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Are AD’s mandatory?

A

Yes

Unless voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes an issuance of an AD?

A

When the FAA determines a product meets two criteria:

  1. An unsafe condition exists in a product.
  2. The condition is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Does an airworthiness certificate expire?

A

No, an airworthiness certificate (CoA) does not expire as long as the aircraft meets certain requirements:

The aircraft is registered in the United States

The aircraft is in good condition for safe operation and maintenance

The aircraft meets its approved type design

Preventative maintenance and alterations are performed in accordance with 14 CFR parts 21, 43, and 91

The aircraft undergoes an annual inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can an aircraft overfly a 100 hour?

A

yes

by 10 hours. Only for the purpose of flying to an area that will perform the hundred hour inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Can an aircraft overfly an annual inspection?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What equipment does the aircraft need to fly?

A

-Anti-collision Light
-Tachometer (each engine)
-Oil pressure Indicator (pressure system)
-Manifold Pressure Indicator (altitude engine)
-Altimeter
-Temperature Gauge (liquid cooled engine)
-Oil temperature indicator (air cooled engine)
-Fuel quantity gauge (each tank)
-Flotation Gear (over water)
-Landing Gear Position Indicator (retractable)
-Airspeed Indicator
-Magnetic Direction Indicator
-Emergency Location Transmitter
-Seatbelts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the equipment FAR?

A

91.205

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the nighttime VFR/IFR equipment list?

A

Fuses (circuit breakers)
landing light (hire)
Anti-collision light
Position light
Source of power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What makes the POH in the plane special?

A

It is serialized to the aircraft.
Comes with an as delivered weight and balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is the reference datum on the Cirrus SR20?

A

100” forward of the cabin firewall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a reference datum?

A

An imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a tare?

A

the weight of all items used to hold or position the airplane on the scales for weighting.
Tare includes blocks, shims, and chocks.
Tare weight must be subtracted from the associated scale reading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a Fuselage Station?

A

A location along the airplane fuselage measured in inches from the reference datum and expressed as a number.

Ex. a point measured 123” aft of the reference datum is FS 123.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is CG?

A

The center of gravity is a point on the airplane where if it were to be suspended it would balance.

Its distance from the reference datum is found by dividing the total moment by the total weight of the airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an Arm in regards to weight and balance?

A

the horizontal distance from the reference datum to the center of gravity of an item. The airplane’s arm is obtained by adding the airplane’s individual moments and dividing the sum by the total weight.

Weight X Arm = Moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the moment in regards to weight and balance?

A

The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Basic Empty Weight?

A

The actual weight of the airplane including all operating equipment that has a fixed location in the airplane. The basic empty weight includes the weight of the unusable fuel and full oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is maximum ramp weight?

A

the maximum weight approved for ground maneuver and includes the weight of the fuel used for startup and taxi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is maximum gross weight?

A

The maximum permissible weight of the airplane and its contents as listed in aircraft specifications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define maximum takeoff weight.

A

The maximum weight approved for the start of the takeoff run.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define maximum zero fuel weight.

A

the maximum permissible weight of the airplane and its contents minus the total weight of the fuel onboard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define useful load.

A

The basic empty weight subtracted from the maximum ramp weight.
It is the maximum allowable combined weight of the pilot, passengers, fuel, and baggage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define maximum landing weight.

A

The maximum weight approved for the landing touchdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a ferry permit/special flight permit?

A

A Special Flight Permit (SFP), commonly referred to as a Ferry Permit, may be issued to any U.S. registered aircraft that may not currently meet applicable Airworthiness Requirements but is capable of safe flight.

This is used when a flight needs to be made when overflying a hundred hour for example.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When does the registration for an airplane expire?

A

7 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What page is the KOEL on?

A

2-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the special use airspace acronym?

A

MCPRAWN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the seven types of special use airspace?

A

Military Operating Area
Controlled Firing Area
Prohibited Airspace
Restricted Airspace
Alert Area
Warning Area
National Security Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a Military Operating Area (Airspace)

A

Blocks of airspace that are established to separate certain military training activities from instrument flight rule traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a Controlled Firing Area (Airspace)

A

Contain activities which if not conducted ina controlled environment could be hazardous to non participating aircraft. Ex. Artillery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Prohibited Airspace?

A

A designated area within which the flight of aircraft are prohibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Restricted Airspace?

A

Areas within which the flight of aircraft is not wholly prohibited but subject to restrictions.

They contain activity that is hazardous to aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is an Alert Area? (Airspace)

A

Depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain high volume pilot training, parachute jumping, glider towing, or an unusual type of aerial activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a Warning Area? (Airspace)

A

Sections of airspace that contain activities that may be hazardous to non participating aircraft.

The purpose of warning areas is to warn non participating pilots of potential danger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are National Security Areas? (Airspace)

A

Established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety at ground facilities.

Depicted inside a magenta dash, similar as a class echo airspace extension to surface, but larger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the acronym for other airspace?

A

SWAMPTTOV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an MTR? (Other Airspace)

A

Military Training Route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What color is a MTR on a sectional?

A

Grey

48
Q

What are Temporary Flight Restrictions? (Other Airspace)

A

Areas that the FAA are imposing temporary flight restrictions.

49
Q

What section of the AIM can Airspace information be found?

A

Section 3

50
Q

What is the P in SWAMPTTO?

A

Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations

51
Q

What are all the Other
Airspaces?

A

Airport Advisory/Information areas

Military Training Routes

Temporary Flight Restrictions

Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations

Published VFR Routes

Terminal Radar Service Areas

Special Air Traffic Rules and Special Flight Rules Area

Washington Special Flight Rules Area

Other Non-Charted Airspace Areas

52
Q

Class A Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: Starts at 18,000’ MSL with a ceiling of FL600. Above this E starts again.

Entry Requirements: IFR rated in an IFR aircraft.

Equipment: IFR stuff

Pilot Qualifications: IFR

Speed Limit: MACH 1

Wx: N/A

53
Q

Class B Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: Not standard. it will be tiered/shelved like a wedding cake. It will top out at 10,000’. Built as needed to accommodate specific airspace and environment. There will also be a mode C veil that encompasses the whole thing prior to entry.

Entry Requirement: Specific clearance required, “tail number, cleared into the bravo airspace.” no clearance no entry.

Equipment: Mode C Transponder, ADS-B, and two way radio.

Pilot Qualifications: Private pilot or student pilot with endorsement.

Speed Limit: Below 10,000’ MSL remain below 250kts. Airspace underlying class B or a VFR corridor through class B, airspeed at or less than 200 kts.

Wx: 3 sm and CC

54
Q

Class C Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: simple wedding cake with the core being 5 nautical miles and the tier 10 nautical miles. Reference the chart for height.

Entry Requirements: Establish two way communication with ATC, no tail number no entry.

Equipment: ADS-B, mode C transponder, and two way radio.

Pilot Qualification: Any

Speed limit: less than 4 nautical miles and less than 2,500 AGL remain below 200 kts. Below 10,000’ MSL remain below 200 kts.

Wx: 3sm
1,000 Above
500 Below
2,000 Horizontal

55
Q

Class D Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: Cylindrical going up to a height of 2,500’ AGL with a diameter of 8-10 NM.

Entry Requirements: Establish two way radio communication with ATC; you need a tail number confirmation. No tail number, no entry.

Equipment: Two way radio, ADS-B, and mode C transponder.

Pilot Qualification: Any

Speed limit: if you are within 4 nautical miles and under 2,500 AGL remain below 200 kts. Additional to the normal, below 10,000’ remain below 250 kts. (FAR 91.117)

Wx: 3 152 (ABC)

56
Q

Class E Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: Everywhere, it exists between and around other airspace. The floor can be the surface, 700’, or 1,200 and extends up to 17,999.

Entry Requirements: No specific entry requirements

Equipment: ADS-B, Mode C transponder required above 10,000’ MSL or within 30 miles of a Class B airport, two way radio, VOR or TACAN for IFR flight.

Pilot Qualifications: Any

Speed limit:
- Below 10,000’ MSL no aircraft can operate at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kts.
- Underlying class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kts.

Wx:
Above 10,000’: 5 111
Below 10,000’: 3 152

57
Q

Class G Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: no dimensions, it will usually underlay E airspace between the surface and the floor of E. (700-1,200 AGL)

Entry Requirements: None

Equipment: No specific requirements

Pilot qualifications: None

Speed limit: Basic speed limit as per 91.117. Below 10,000’ less than 250 kts. Above 10,000’, mach one

Wx: (91.155)
Day:
-Below 1,200’ AGL 1 sm and cc

-Above 1,200’ AGL and below 10,000’ MSL: 1 sm vis, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal.

-Above 10,000’ MSL 5 sm, 1,000’ above, 1,000’ below, 1 sm across.

Night:
-3sm 152 (ABC)

58
Q

VMC

A

Visual meteorological conditions. This is a flight category wherein VFR is permitted.

59
Q

IMC

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions. An aviation flight category that describes weather conditions that require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments. (IFR)

60
Q

IFR, what does the acronym mean and what are the weather minimums as well as subcategory?

A

Instrument Flight Rules

IFR weather minimums:
500’-1,000’ AGL Ceiling and/or 1-3 miles visibility.

LIFR weather minimums:
Below 500’ AGL ceiling and/or less than 1 mile visibility.

61
Q

VFR, what does the acronym mean and what are the weather minimums as well as subcategory?

A

Visual Flight Rules

VFR weather minimums:
-Greater than 3,000’ AGL ceiling and greater than 5 sm visibility.

MVFR weather minimums:
- 1,000’-3,000’ AGL ceiling and/or 3-5 miles visibility.

62
Q

SR20 Emergency

Rough Engine

Checklist starts with; Mixture: set for altitude

A

Mixture: Set for Altitude
Fuel Pump: On
Fuel Quantity: Check
Fuel Selector: Switch Tanks
Magnetos: Cycle/Both
Alternate Air: On
Land: As Soon As Practical

63
Q

SR20 Emergency

Low Oil Pressure

A

Oil Temperature: Check
RPM: Reduce
Airspeed: Increase
Evaluate:
-Better: Moderate engine workload
-No change: Land As Soon As Possible

Expectation: Engine Failure

64
Q

SR20 Emergency

Icing

A

Pitot Heat: On
Exit Icing Conditions: Turn or Change Altitude as Appropriate
Alternate Air: On
Cabin Heat: Hot
Defrost: On
Alternate Static: As Required
Approach Speed: Increase by 10 kts

65
Q

SR20 Emergency

Static Blockage

A

Alternate Static: On
Cabin Air: Off

66
Q

SR20 Emergency

Flap Failure

A

Flaps: Up
Approach Speed: Add 10 kts

67
Q

SR20 Emergency

Prop Governor Failure

starts with RPM

A

RPM: Regulate with power lever
Land: As Soon as Practical

68
Q

SR20 Emergency

Electrical Failure

A

Affected Alternator: Off
Electrical Load: Reduce
Land: As Soon as Practical

69
Q

SR20 Emergency

CO Advisory

A

Cabin Heat: Cold
Cabin Air: On
Vents: Open
Land: As Soon as possible

70
Q

SR20 Emergency

Smoke

A

Identify: Type of Smoke
Isolate: Cabin Heat or Cold
Ventilate: Vents Open/Doors if Necessary

71
Q

SR20 Emergency

Fire (Engine)

A

Fuel Selector: Off
Throttle: Full
Mixture: Cut Off
Airspeed: 150 Knots (increase if necessary)
Evaluate:
Successful: Inflight Failure
Unsuccessful: Emergency Descent

72
Q

SR20 Emergency

Fire (Electrical)

A

Battery 1/(2 VMC): Off
Avionic Switch: Off
Switches: All Off
Evaluate:
-Unsuccessful:
Use Fire Extinguisher
Emergency Descent

-Successful:
Circuit Breakers: Check (do not reset)
Battery 2 then 1: On
Systems: On as Necessary, One at a Time

Note: If smoke returns undo any last action and isolate the system

73
Q

SR20 Emergency

Fire (Wing)

A

Landing Light: Off
Strobe Light: Off
Position Light: Off
Pitot Heat: Off
Side Slip: Away From Fire

74
Q

SR20 Emergency

Fire (Outside Source)

A

Identify: Source of Smoke
Proceed: Away from Affected Area

75
Q

SR20 Emergency

Emergency Descent

A

Throttle: Idle
Bank: 45 Degree Angle
Clear: Area Below
Identify: Best Place to Land
Airspeed: 164 kts (up to Vne in smooth air)

CAPS: If safe landing is in doubt, slow to 120, deploy CAPS above 1,000 AGL

76
Q

SR20 Emergency

Engine Failure (Takeoff Roll)

A

Control: Maintain Centerline
Brakes: As Necessary
Mixture: Cut Off
Ignition: Off and Out

77
Q

SR20 Emergency

Engine Failure (After Takeoff Below 600 AGL)

A

Airspeed: Flaps 50% 83 kts
Best Place To land: Select landing field
Mixture: Cutoff
Ignition: Off and Out
Seat Belt: Secure
Brakes: As Necessary After Landing

78
Q

SR20 Emergency

Engine Failure (In Flight Between 600 and 2,000 AGL)

A

CAPS: If a safe landing is in doubt, slow to 120, deploy CAPS immediately.

79
Q

SR20 Emergency

CAPS Deployment

A

Aircraft: Above 600 AGL, Below 133 kts
CAPS Handle: Pull
Mixture: Cut Off
Fuel Selector/Pump: Off
Radio/ELT: MAYDAY Call/On
Battery 1/2: Off
Seat Belt: Secure
Touchdown: Emergency Landing Position

Note: Figure on a best exit/evacuation plan and execute as safely as possible.

80
Q

SR20 Emergency

Engine Failure (In Flight Above 2,000 AGL)

A

Need Clearer Guidance. Ask Chance.

81
Q

What makes an aircraft or airman airworthy?

A

Having all the right documents, inspections, and equipment.

82
Q

What is the responsibility and authority of the pilot in command? (FAR 91.3)

A

(A) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

(B) In and in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.

(C) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph b of this section shall upon the request of the administrator, send a written report to that deviation to the administrator.

83
Q

What condition must an aircraft be in to be operated? (FAR 91.7)

A

(A) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition.

(B) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.

84
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to maintain an aircraft in an airworthy condition? (FAR 91.403)

A

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 of this chapter.

No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this subpart and other applicable regulations, including part 43 of this chapter.

85
Q

(FAR 21.197) What are the reasons a Special Flight Permit would be needed?

A

A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following purposes:

-Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage.

-Delivering or exporting the aircraft.

-Production flight testing new production aircraft.

-May also be issued to authorize the operation of an aircraft at a weight in excess of its maximum certificated takeoff weight.

86
Q

What is the FAR for the issuance of Special Flight Permits?

A

21.199

87
Q

Can an aircraft be operated without an ELT? (FAR 91.207)

A

No, with exceptions for:

-Ferry a newly acquired airplane from the place where possession of it was taken to a place where the emergency locator transmitter is to be installed.

-Ferry an airplane with an inoperative emergency locator transmitter to a place where repairs or replacements cannot be made to a place where they can be.

88
Q

How often does the ELT need to be inspected? (FAR 91.207)

A

12 calendar months

89
Q

When must the batteries used for the ELT be changed? (91.207)

A

when the transmitter has been used for more than 1 cumulative hour.

When 50 percent of the useful life has expired.

90
Q

What is the acronym that can be used to remember the ELT inspections and battery rules?

A

121.5

12 calendar month inspection.

1 hour cumulative use

.5 (50%) battery life

91
Q

What is a Final Rule Airworthiness Directive?

A

Final Rule: a legally enforceable regulation that requires aircraft owners and operators to take action to correct a known safety deficiency in an aircraft, engine, propeller, or appliance.

92
Q

What are Emergency Airworthiness Directives?

A

Emergency AD: issued when an unsafe condition exists that requires immediate action by an owner/operator.

93
Q

What is a notice of proposed rulemaking AD?

A

Notice of Proposed Rulemaking: an announcement that lets the public know what the agency is considering and provides an opportunity for feedback.

94
Q

What is a Biweekly Airworthiness Directive?

A

Biweekly AD: A publication that lists new and revised AD’s issued within the last two weeks.

95
Q

What are the three types of AD’s basically summed up?

A
  1. Emergency
  2. Standard
  3. Recurring
96
Q

What is the oil grade for the SR20?

A

15W-50

97
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

17,500

98
Q

What is the maximum takeoff altitude?

A

10,000

99
Q

What are the affects of a forward loaded CG?

A

-Increase stall speed
-Bad cruise performance
-Increase stall/spin recovery
-Increases stability/controllability

100
Q

What is the FAR for student solo limitations?

A

61.87

School SOP is also a good place to look for privileges and limitations for students.

101
Q

What are the affects of an aft loaded CG?

A

-Decreased stall speed
-Good cruise performance
-Decreased stall/spin recovery
-Decreased stability/controllability

102
Q

Is Vy based on elevation or weight?

A

Elevation (4-3 of the POH)

103
Q

What is the difference between a MEL and a KOEL?

A

MEL is a list of equipment that can be inoperative for a flight. A KOEL is a list of equipment that must be operative for a flight.

104
Q

What FAR should be looked for making equipment inoperative?

A

91.213

-Remove/disable
-Label inoperative
-Record in the maintenance logbook

105
Q

What is the flow for inoperative equipment?

A

-Check 91.205
-Check the KOEL
-Check the Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS)
-Check the AD’s

-Make a PIC decision

106
Q

What is the type of annual inspection done at SUU?

A

Progressive 800 hour inspection split into eight phases (50 flight hours).

1,2,3,2,4,2,5,2

Done this way an annual inspection will be completed in 800 hours or failing that what is left by 12 calendar months will be inspected for the annual inspection.

107
Q

What is basic med?

A

An alternate way for pilots to fly without holding an FAA medical certificate as long as they meet certain requirements.

  1. comply with basic med requirements.
  2. get a physical exam with a state licensed physician, using the comprehensive medical examination checklist.
  3. complete a basic med education course
108
Q

What are the aircraft and operating requirements under basic med?

A

-No plane over 6 occupants
-maximum certificated weight of 6,000 pounds
-operates under VFR or IFR, within the united states, at or below 18,000’ MSL, not exceeding 250 kts.
-cannot fly for compensation or hire

109
Q

What is a good FAR to reference for medical certificates as well as basic med?

A

61.23

61.23C for basic med

110
Q

Basic med advisory circular?

A

68-1A

111
Q

What is the alcohol and drugs FAR?

A

91.17

112
Q

SOP student solo limitations chapter 15

A
  1. shall not conduct flight in SVFR or IMC conditions
  2. shall not conduct emergency procedures or stall training
  3. shall not use any visual or audio recording device during flight
  4. shall not conduct flight in an aircraft that has an engine total time or time since overhaul of less than 25 hours
  5. all landings away from KCDC must be to full stop
  6. Solo flights can be done in aircraft on mineral oil with the exception to the first 25 hours out of overhaul, or where restricted to maintenance
  7. FAA written test requirements must be completed prior to taking the EOC for a course that will end in an FAA certification
113
Q

Operating procedures for students

A

students acting as PIC shall ensure that all procedures of chapters 2-15 and parts 61 and 91 are followed.

visibility must be greater than 5 SM
Ceilings must be at least 2,000’
Wind less than
15 knots total
10 knots crosswind
5 knot gust factor

Solo flights must change their call sign from T-bird to Solo flight.

114
Q

before solo flight the instructor must endorse the student. how long ago can that be to still be valid and for what specific kind of aircraft?

A

within the preceding 90 days

for the specific make and model

115
Q

what are the night limitations on students?

A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night unless that student has received:

A

flight training on night flying procedures that include takeoffs, approaches, landings, and go-arounds at night at the airport where the solo flight will be conducted.

Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport where the solo flight will be conducted

An endorsement in the student’s logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown for night solo flight by an authorized instructor within 90 days preceding the flight.

116
Q

prior to conducting a solo flight a student must have:

A

received and logged flight training for the maneuvers and procedures in this section that are appropriate to the make and model of the aircraft to be flown.

Demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorized instructor, on the maneuvers and procedures required by this section in the make and model of the aircraft or similar make and model aircraft to be flown

Flight Notes (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions