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Flight Notes > Solo Stage Check > Flashcards

Solo Stage Check Flashcards

(Airworthiness, performance limitations, weight and balance, weather, airspace, and solo pilot privileges and limitations).

1
Q

What is the acronym SUU uses for airworthiness?

A

DIE

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2
Q

What makes up the acronym DIE?

A

Documents, inspections, and equipment

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3
Q

What are the documents the aircraft needs to be airworthy?

(ARROWGC)

A

Airworthiness Certification
Registration
Operations Limitations
Weight and Balance
Garmin Manual
Checklists (emergency and normal)

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4
Q

What documents does the pilot need to have to be airworthy?

(CLIMB)

A

-Currency Requirement logged
-License
-ID (gov. photo)
-Medical
-Biannual flight review current

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5
Q

What is the I in the DIE acronym?

A

Inspections

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6
Q

What inspection does the pilot need to perform on themself?

A

Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Emotions/Eating

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7
Q

How long does a pilot need to wait to fly after drinking?

A

8 hours and/or until the affects of the alcohol have worn off.

A hangover is still considered to be an affect of alcohol.

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8
Q

What inspections does the pilot need to have done on the aircraft?

A

Daytime VFR

-Transponder (24)
-Hundred hour (progressive)
ELT (12)
Airworthiness Directives
Annual (12)

Nighttime/IFR

Fuses (Circuit Breaker)
Landing light (for hire)
Anti-collision light
Position light
Source of power

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9
Q

What are the three main types of AD’s?

A

-One time AD: Requires one time alteration.

-Recurring AD: Requires a check or service to be performed on an ongoing basis at specific intervals

-Emergency Airworthiness Directives: Absolutely must take care of this before flight.

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10
Q

Are AD’s mandatory?

A

Yes

Unless voluntary

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11
Q

What causes an issuance of an AD?

A

When the FAA determines a product meets two criteria:

  1. An unsafe condition exists in a product.
  2. The condition is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
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12
Q

Does an airworthiness certificate expire?

A

No, an airworthiness certificate (CoA) does not expire as long as the aircraft meets certain requirements:

The aircraft is registered in the United States

The aircraft is in good condition for safe operation and maintenance

The aircraft meets its approved type design

Preventative maintenance and alterations are performed in accordance with 14 CFR parts 21, 43, and 91

The aircraft undergoes an annual inspection

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13
Q

Can an aircraft overfly a 100 hour?

A

yes

by 10 hours. Only for the purpose of flying to an area that will perform the hundred hour inspection.

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14
Q

Can an aircraft overfly an annual inspection?

A

No

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15
Q

What equipment does the aircraft need to fly?

A

-Anti-collision Light
-Tachometer (each engine)
-Oil pressure Indicator (pressure system)
-Manifold Pressure Indicator (altitude engine)
-Altimeter
-Temperature Gauge (liquid cooled engine)
-Oil temperature indicator (air cooled engine)
-Fuel quantity gauge (each tank)
-Flotation Gear (over water)
-Landing Gear Position Indicator (retractable)
-Airspeed Indicator
-Magnetic Direction Indicator
-Emergency Location Transmitter
-Seatbelts

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16
Q

What is the equipment FAR?

A

91.205

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17
Q

What is the nighttime VFR/IFR equipment list?

A

Fuses (circuit breakers)
landing light (hire)
Anti-collision light
Position light
Source of power

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18
Q

What makes the POH in the plane special?

A

It is serialized to the aircraft.
Comes with an as delivered weight and balance.

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19
Q

Where is the reference datum on the Cirrus SR20?

A

100” forward of the cabin firewall

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20
Q

What is a reference datum?

A

An imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes.

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21
Q

What is a tare?

A

the weight of all items used to hold or position the airplane on the scales for weighting.
Tare includes blocks, shims, and chocks.
Tare weight must be subtracted from the associated scale reading.

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22
Q

What is a Fuselage Station?

A

A location along the airplane fuselage measured in inches from the reference datum and expressed as a number.

Ex. a point measured 123” aft of the reference datum is FS 123.

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23
Q

What is CG?

A

The center of gravity is a point on the airplane where if it were to be suspended it would balance.

Its distance from the reference datum is found by dividing the total moment by the total weight of the airplane.

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24
Q

What is an Arm in regards to weight and balance?

A

the horizontal distance from the reference datum to the center of gravity of an item. The airplane’s arm is obtained by adding the airplane’s individual moments and dividing the sum by the total weight.

Weight X Arm = Moment

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25
Q

What is the moment in regards to weight and balance?

A

The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm.

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26
Q

What is Basic Empty Weight?

A

The actual weight of the airplane including all operating equipment that has a fixed location in the airplane. The basic empty weight includes the weight of the unusable fuel and full oil.

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27
Q

What is maximum ramp weight?

A

the maximum weight approved for ground maneuver and includes the weight of the fuel used for startup and taxi.

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28
Q

What is maximum gross weight?

A

The maximum permissible weight of the airplane and its contents as listed in aircraft specifications.

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29
Q

Define maximum takeoff weight.

A

The maximum weight approved for the start of the takeoff run.

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30
Q

Define maximum zero fuel weight.

A

the maximum permissible weight of the airplane and its contents minus the total weight of the fuel onboard.

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31
Q

Define useful load.

A

The basic empty weight subtracted from the maximum ramp weight.
It is the maximum allowable combined weight of the pilot, passengers, fuel, and baggage.

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32
Q

Define maximum landing weight.

A

The maximum weight approved for the landing touchdown.

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33
Q

What is a ferry permit/special flight permit?

A

A Special Flight Permit (SFP), commonly referred to as a Ferry Permit, may be issued to any U.S. registered aircraft that may not currently meet applicable Airworthiness Requirements but is capable of safe flight.

This is used when a flight needs to be made when overflying a hundred hour for example.

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34
Q

When does the registration for an airplane expire?

A

7 years.

35
Q

What page is the KOEL on?

A

2-13

36
Q

What is the special use airspace acronym?

A

MCPRAWN

37
Q

What are the seven types of special use airspace?

A

Military Operating Area
Controlled Firing Area
Prohibited Airspace
Restricted Airspace
Alert Area
Warning Area
National Security Area

38
Q

What is a Military Operating Area (Airspace)

A

Blocks of airspace that are established to separate certain military training activities from instrument flight rule traffic.

39
Q

What is a Controlled Firing Area (Airspace)

A

Contain activities which if not conducted ina controlled environment could be hazardous to non participating aircraft. Ex. Artillery.

40
Q

What is Prohibited Airspace?

A

A designated area within which the flight of aircraft are prohibited.

41
Q

What is Restricted Airspace?

A

Areas within which the flight of aircraft is not wholly prohibited but subject to restrictions.

They contain activity that is hazardous to aircraft.

42
Q

What is an Alert Area? (Airspace)

A

Depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain high volume pilot training, parachute jumping, glider towing, or an unusual type of aerial activity.

43
Q

What is a Warning Area? (Airspace)

A

Sections of airspace that contain activities that may be hazardous to non participating aircraft.

The purpose of warning areas is to warn non participating pilots of potential danger.

44
Q

What are National Security Areas? (Airspace)

A

Established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety at ground facilities.

Depicted inside a magenta dash, similar as a class echo airspace extension to surface, but larger.

45
Q

What is the acronym for other airspace?

A

SWAMPTTOV

46
Q

What is an MTR? (Other Airspace)

A

Military Training Route.

47
Q

What color is a MTR on a sectional?

A

Grey

48
Q

What are Temporary Flight Restrictions? (Other Airspace)

A

Areas that the FAA are imposing temporary flight restrictions.

49
Q

What section of the AIM can Airspace information be found?

A

Section 3

50
Q

What is the P in SWAMPTTO?

A

Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations

51
Q

What are all the Other
Airspaces?

A

Airport Advisory/Information areas

Military Training Routes

Temporary Flight Restrictions

Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations

Published VFR Routes

Terminal Radar Service Areas

Special Air Traffic Rules and Special Flight Rules Area

Washington Special Flight Rules Area

Other Non-Charted Airspace Areas

52
Q

Class A Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: Starts at 18,000’ MSL with a ceiling of FL600. Above this E starts again.

Entry Requirements: IFR rated in an IFR aircraft.

Equipment: IFR stuff

Pilot Qualifications: IFR

Speed Limit: MACH 1

Wx: N/A

53
Q

Class B Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: Not standard. it will be tiered/shelved like a wedding cake. It will top out at 10,000’. Built as needed to accommodate specific airspace and environment. There will also be a mode C veil that encompasses the whole thing prior to entry.

Entry Requirement: Specific clearance required, “tail number, cleared into the bravo airspace.” no clearance no entry.

Equipment: Mode C Transponder, ADS-B, and two way radio.

Pilot Qualifications: Private pilot or student pilot with endorsement.

Speed Limit: Below 10,000’ MSL remain below 250kts. Airspace underlying class B or a VFR corridor through class B, airspeed at or less than 200 kts.

Wx: 3 sm and CC

54
Q

Class C Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: simple wedding cake with the core being 5 nautical miles and the tier 10 nautical miles. Reference the chart for height.

Entry Requirements: Establish two way communication with ATC, no tail number no entry.

Equipment: ADS-B, mode C transponder, and two way radio.

Pilot Qualification: Any

Speed limit: less than 4 nautical miles and less than 2,500 AGL remain below 200 kts. Below 10,000’ MSL remain below 200 kts.

Wx: 3sm
1,000 Above
500 Below
2,000 Horizontal

55
Q

Class D Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: Cylindrical going up to a height of 25,000’ AGL with a diameter of 8 SM.

Entry Requirements: Establish two way radio communication with ATC; you need a tail number confirmation. No tail number, no entry.

Equipment: Two way radio, ADS-B, and mode C transponder.

Pilot Qualification: Any

Speed limit: if you are within 4 nautical miles and under 2,500 AGL remain below 200 kts. Additional to the normal, below 10,000’ remain below 250 kts. (FAR 91.117)

Wx: 3 152 (ABC)

56
Q

Class E Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: Everywhere, it exists between and around other airspace. The floor can be the surface, 700’, or 1,200 and extends up to 17,999.

Entry Requirements: No specific entry requirements

Equipment: ADS-B, Mode C transponder required above 10,000’ MSL or within 30 miles of a Class B airport, two way radio, VOR or TACAN for IFR flight.

Pilot Qualifications: Any

Speed limit:
- Below 10,000’ MSL no aircraft can operate at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kts.
- Underlying class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kts.

Wx:
Above 10,000’: 3 152
Below 10,000’: 5 111

57
Q

Class G Airspace Specifications and Requirements

A

Dimensions: no dimensions, it will usually underlay E airspace between the surface and the floor of E. (700-1,200 AGL)

Entry Requirements: None

Equipment: No specific requirements

Pilot qualifications: None

Speed limit: Basic speed limit as per 91.117. Below 10,000’ less than 250 kts. Above 10,000’, mach one

Wx: (91.155)
Day:
-Below 1,200’ AGL 1 sm and cc

-Above 1,200’ AGL and below 10,000’ MSL: 1 sm vis, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal.

-Above 10,000’ MSL 5 sm, 1,000’ above, 1,000’ below, 1 sm across.

Night:
-3sm 152 (ABC)

58
Q

VMC

A

Visual meteorological conditions. This is a flight category wherein VFR is permitted.

59
Q

IMC

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions. An aviation flight category that describes weather conditions that require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments. (IFR)

60
Q

IFR, what does the acronym mean and what are the weather minimums as well as subcategory?

A

Instrument Flight Rules

IFR weather minimums:
500’-1,000’ AGL Ceiling and/or 1-3 miles visibility.

LIFR weather minimums:
Below 500’ AGL ceiling and/or less than 1 mile visibility.

61
Q

VFR, what does the acronym mean and what are the weather minimums as well as subcategory?

A

Visual Flight Rules

VFR weather minimums:
-Greater than 3,000’ AGL ceiling and greater than 5 sm visibility.

MVFR weather minimums:
- 1,000’-3,000’ AGL ceiling and/or 3-5 miles visibility.

62
Q

SR20 Emergency

Rough Engine

A

Mixture: Set for Altitude
Fuel Pump: On
Fuel Quantity: Check
Fuel Selector: Switch Tanks
Magnetos: Cycle/Both
Alternate Air: On
Land: As Soon As Practical

63
Q

SR20 Emergency

Low Oil Pressure

A

Oil Temperature: Check
RPM: Reduce
Airspeed: Increase
Evaluate:
-Better: Moderate engine workload
-No change: Land As Soon As Possible

Expectation: Engine Failure

64
Q

SR20 Emergency

Icing

A

Pitot Heat: On
Exit Icing Conditions: Turn or Change Altitude as Appropriate
Alternate Air: On
Cabin Heat: Hot
Defrost: On
Alternate Static: As Required
Approach Speed: Increase by 10 kts

65
Q

SR20 Emergency

Static Blockage

A

Alternate Static: On
Cabin Air: Off

66
Q

SR20 Emergency

Flap Failure

A

Flaps: Up
Approach Speed: Add 10 kts

67
Q

SR20 Emergency

Prop Governor Failure

A

RPM: Regulate with power lever
Land: As Soon as Practical

68
Q

SR20 Emergency

Electrical Failure

A

Affected Alternator: Off
Electrical Load: Reduce
Land: As Soon as Practical

69
Q

SR20 Emergency

CO Advisory

A

Cabin Heat: Cold
Cabin Air: On
Vents: Open
Land: As Soon as possible

70
Q
A
71
Q

SR20 Emergency

Smoke

A

Identify: Type of Smoke
Isolate: Cabin Heat or Cold
Ventilate: Vents Open/Doors if Necessary

72
Q

SR20 Emergency

Fire (Engine)

A

Fuel Selector: Off
Throttle: Full
Mixture: Cut Off
Airspeed: 150 Knots (increase if necessary)
Evaluate:
Successful: Inflight Failure
Unsuccessful: Emergency Descent

73
Q

SR20 Emergency

Fire (Electrical)

A

Battery 1/(2 VMC): Off
Avionic Switch: Off
Switches: All Off
Evaluate:
-Unsuccessful:
Use Fire Extinguisher
Emergency Descent

-Successful:
Circuit Breakers: Check (do not reset)
Battery 2 then 1: On
Systems: On as Necessary, One at a Time

Note: If smoke returns undo any last action and isolate the system

74
Q

SR20 Emergency

Fire (Wing)

A

Landing Light: Off
Strobe Light: Off
Position Light: Off
Pitot Heat: Off
Side Slip: Away From Fire

75
Q

SR20 Emergency

Fire (Outside Source)

A

Identify: Source of Smoke
Proceed: Away from Affected Area

76
Q

SR20 Emergency

Emergency Descent

A

Throttle: Idle
Bank: 45 Degree Angle
Clear: Area Below
Identify: Best Place to Land
Airspeed: 164 kts (up to Vne in smooth air)

CAPS: If safe landing is in doubt, slow to 120, deploy CAPS above 1,000 AGL

77
Q

SR20 Emergency

Engine Failure (Takeoff Roll)

A

Control: Maintain Centerline
Brakes: As Necessary
Mixture: Cut Off
Ignition: Off and Out

78
Q

SR20 Emergency

Engine Failure (After Takeoff Below 600 AGL)

A

Airspeed: Flaps 50% 83 kts
Best Place To land: Select landing field
Mixture: Cutoff
Ignition: Off and Out
Seat Belt: Secure
Brakes: As Necessary After Landing

79
Q

SR20 Emergency

Engine Failure (In Flight Between 600 and 2,000 AGL)

A

CAPS: If a safe landing is in doubt, slow to 120, deploy CAPS immediately.

80
Q

SR20 Emergency

CAPS Deployment

A

Aircraft: Above 600 AGL, Below 133 kts
CAPS Handle: Pull
Mixture: Cut Off
Fuel Selector/Pump: Off
Radio/ELT: MAYDAY Call/On
Battery 1/2: Off
Seat Belt: Secure
Touchdown: Emergency Landing Position

Note: Figure on a best exit/evacuation plan and execute as safely as possible.

81
Q

SR20 Emergency

Engine Failure (In Flight Above 2,000 AGL)

A

Need Clearer Guidance. Ask Chance.

82
Q
A
83
Q
A

Flight Notes (12 decks)

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