Airport Operations/Regulation and Procedures (ACS) Flashcards
(Airport Operations)
If an airport responds to a pilots radio comm with, “aircraft calling stand by.” Does this count as two way radio communication?
No
Response needs to acknowledge call sign or tail number for it to be two way radio communication.
(Airport Operations)
What is flight following?
Flight following allows ATC to keep an eye on VFR flights and give advisories when workload permits. There is no great reason to not use it outside of the departure airport.
ATC will be able to give traffic advisories, safety alerts like obstruction or low altitude, or radar vectors if wanted.
(Airport Operations)
If you want flight following how is it requested?
Contact tower before departure and they may coordinate by giving out a departure frequency and transponder code then hand you over after takeoff.
You can also pick up flight following inflight by contacting the local approach control or ARTCC.
(Airport Operations)
What is 121.5?
The emergency broadcast frequency. Can also be referred to as the guard frequency.
(Airport Operations)
What is a remote communications outlet used for?
RCO is a transceiver located at an airport on the ground meant to communicate with flight service stations prior to takeoff or after landing.
In small satellite airports without a control tower it maybe impossible for an aircraft on the ground to contact the FSS. When tuned into the RCO frequency, radio communications are relayed between an FSS briefer and the calling aircraft.
RCO’s are generally used for IFR operations like clearances, IFR cancellations, and departure authorizations.
VFR pilots can use the RCO to talk to an FSS and they can also be used to cancel a VFR flight plan after landing.
RCO frequencies can be found on sectionals and chart supplements.
(Airport Operations)
What is a Special VFR clearance?
Allows you to takeoff from or land at an airport that is below VFR weather minimums. Ceilings below 1,000’ AGL and visibility less than 3 statute miles.
Can only get a special VFR clearance in class B, C, D, or E airspace. It only applies to controlled airspace.
(Airport Operations)
How does a private pilot request special VFR?
request from ATC, it isn’t offered freely. Call up tower or approach control and ask for it. If you want one from a non towered airport, FSS can relay the request to the appropriate control center.
Private pilots can request special VFR between sunrise and sunset. To get one at night you need to be instrument rated and equipped.
(Airport Operations)
When approaching a towered airport of intended landing, your radio goes out. What do you do?
Squak 7600 on the transponder to let tower know that the radio is out.
Call the tower using the tower number in the chart supplement.
Look out for light signals
Use a backup radio when close enough for the signal to reach
(All are viable options and the AIM lays out more)
(Airport Operations)
What are the light gun signals in the air?
Solid green: cleared to land
Flashing green: return for landing
Solid red: continue circling
Flashing red: unsafe do not land
Alternating red and green: exercise extreme caution
(Airport Operations)
What are the light gun signals on the ground?
Solid green: cleared for takeoff
Flashing green: cleared to taxi
Solid red: stop
Flashing red: taxi clear of the runway
Flashing white: return to the starting place on the airport surface.
Alternating red and green: exercise extreme caution
(Airport Operations)
What is a PAPI and how can you tell if an airport has one?
Precision Approach Path Indicator lights gives the pilots visual path indication via a lighting system that is angled so that different colors show at different glide paths. For airport that have the standard glide path of 3 degrees it will show two white lights and two red lights when on a 3 degree glide slope which indicates the correct landing path.
PAPI presence will be noted on the chart supplement.
(Airport Operations)
What are the rotating beacon colors used at different airport classifications?
-Civil land airports: alternating white and green
-Water airports: white and yellow
-Heliports: green, yellow, and white
-Military: white and green. White flash goes twice before the green flash.
(Airport Operations)
What is the NTSB’s definition of an accident?
an occurence associate with an aircraft that happens between the time any person boards the aircraft with an intent to fly and when they disembark wherein. Any person dies, suffers serious injury, and or the aircraft receives substantial damage.
(Airport Operations)
Define Death, Serious Injury, and Substantial damage as it pertains to an accident.
Death: It must occur within 30 days of the accident
Serious injury: could mean any of the following; hospitalization for over 48 hours within seven days of the accident, a fracture of any bone except a simple fracture of fingers toes or nose, severe hemerages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage, internal organ damage or a second or third degree burn.
Substantial damage: refers to damage that affects performance, structural integrity, or anything that requires major repair or replacement of the affected components.
Substantial damage is not: engine failure or damage if only one engine is affected, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin or puncture holes, ground damage to the propeller or damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, or wing tips.
(Airport Operations)
What is the difference between an accident and an incident?
Incident: defined as anything other than an accident that affects or could affect the safety of operations.
-incident reports only need to be reported if requested.
-Serious incidents have their own set of requirements.
Accidents need to be immediately reported to the NTSB and a report filed within 10 days.
(Airport Operations)
If an aircraft is suspected to be missing how long does someone have to report it?
7 days. An aircraft suspected to be missing should be reported within seven days.
(Airport Operations)
What voluntary report might you want to file if you violate an FAA regulation?
File a report with the aviation safety reporting system ASRS.
It gives pilots the ability to report without the consequence being suspension or something else serious.
(Airport Operations)
If you accidentally hit a taxi light and cause 10,000 dollars worth of damage to the airport do you have to immediately send a report to the NTSB?
No. For an accident or serious accident the NTSB requires that you notify them immediately. Damage to property needs to exceed 25,000 dollars to require immediate notification.
(Airport Operations)
How is the weather gotten before arrival to an airport?
listen to the airports automated terminal information service as soon as it can be received. (ATIS)
ATIS is a continuous broadcast that has to do with weather, runways of use, important NOTAM’s, and any other pertinent information that the airport wants you to know.
(Airport Operations)
If youre landing at a nontowered airport how will you communicate with the other traffic?
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF). Report position and intent. Talk directly with traffic in the area by using tail numbers if necessary to maintain separation.
10 miles out
5 miles out
3 miles out
(Airport Operations)
How do you know which frequency is the CTAF?
CTAF can be found on the chart supplement and the sectional chart.
(Airport Operations)
When landing at a nontowered airport in class G or E airspace what approach and traffic pattern procedures should you follow?
follow the common traffic pattern procedure. Advisory circular AC90-66B discusses the indepth procedures when landing at a nontowered airport.
(Airport Operations)
What are the right of way rules as they pertain to the different categories of aircraft? What is the FAR?
FAR 91.113
Hot air balloon
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft
(Airport Operations)
What do you do if you are converging with, overtaking, or approaching head on to another aircraft?
Converging with: whichever aircraft is on the right has the right of way.
Overtaking: whichever aircraft being overtaken has the right of way. overtake on the right.
Approaching head on: each aircraft needs to alter course to the right.
(Airport Operations)
In what other circumstance would aircraft have the right of way over all other aircraft.
IT’S NOTHING TO DO WITH LANDING OR RUNWAYS!
All other aircraft must give the right of way to an aircraft in distress.
Aircraft in distress if it is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance. Squak 7700 when in distress.
(Airport Operations)
Who has the right of way when 2 or more aircraft are coming in for landing? What is a FAR you can reference for this?
FAR 91.113
An aircraft on final approach has the right of way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface. The aircraft on final approach cannot force a plane that just landed off the runway, if it is that close perform a go around or have an extended downwind to give enough time.
The aircraft at a lower altitude has right of way over other traffic in the pattern. Pilots must not use this rule in a way that will force other aircraft out of the way.
(Airport Operations)
What collision avoidance techniques will you use during aircraft operations?
See and avoid is the responsibility of all passengers. 91.113 states that maintaining vigilance for other aircraft is required by federal regulations.
-Keep your eyes outside.
-Pay special attention to ramp areas and intersections.
-Before entering the runway make sure you can get a look at the final approach path.
-Always use all available and appropriate aircraft lighting when entering the traffic/airport environment to increase visibility of your aircraft.
-Takeoff and Climb result in a very high amount of collisions and accidents.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?
Answer: Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as possible
(Regulations and Procedures)
Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of?
Answer: rising or falling
(Regulations and Procedures)
During the enroute phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised ‘Radar service terminated.’ What action is appropriate?
Answer: Resume normal position reporting
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?
Answer: 12,500’ MSL
91.211 (Oxygen supplementation FAR)
(Regulations and Procedures)
No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least:
Answer: Six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.
(Regulations and Procedures)
A pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating:
Answer: under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, and in a class A airspace.()
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flights at 10,500’ with a VFR on top clearance during daylight hours (class E airspace)?
Answer: 5111
5 SM, 1,000’ above, 1,000’ below, and 1 mile horizontal.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within class C airspace?
Answer: two way communication with mode C transponder
(Regulations and Procedures)
An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?
A. Radar altimeter
B. Dual VOR system
C. Gyroscopic direction indicator
Answer: (C) Gyroscopic direction indicator
(Regulations and Procedures)
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
A. Fixes selected to define the route
B. there are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC
C. at the changeover points
Answer: (A) Fixes selected to define the route
(Regulations and Procedures)
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if?
Answer: body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
(Regulations and Procedures)
What altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?
Answer: FL600
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?
VIP
Answer: VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.
(Regulations and Procedures)
While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under:
Answer: VFR and land as soon as practicable
(Regulations and Procedures)
In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500’ AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at or above?
Answer: 10,000’ AGL
(Regulations and Procedures)
Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?
Answer: PIC (91.7)
(Regulations and Procedures)
You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to posses at least what ratings?
Answer: A commercial pilot certificate with a single engine land rating an instrument rating
(Regulation and Procedures)
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of:
Answer: 4 NM from the course flown
(Regulations and Procedures)
To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, an aircraft must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those is:
Answer: a clock with sweep second pointer or digital presentation
(Regulations and Procedures)
what is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an upressurized aircraft without providing oxygen to passengers?
Answer: 15,000’ MSL (91.211)
(Regulations and Procedures)
what illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?
A. an upsloping runway
B. a wider than usual runway
C. a down sloping runway
Answer: an upsloping runway
(Regulations and Procedures)
If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within class B airspace:
A. the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace
B. ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.
C. Aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200’ AGL and proceed to destination
Answer: (B) ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is expected of you as a pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
A. If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline.
B. Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing.
C. Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.
Answer: (C) Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A. Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible.
B. Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C. Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
Answer: (C) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two way radio communications failure?
A. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
B. Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000’ above the highest obstacles along the route.
C. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance routes.
Answer: (A) Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is highest of the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1200’ AGL under special VFR in class E airspace during daylight hours?
Answer: 1 mile and clear of clouds
(Regulations and Procedures)
How can a pilot determine if a GPS installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?
Answer: Flight manual supplement
(Regulations and Procedures)
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered. The pilot should?
A. Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
B. Wait until the situation i immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
C. Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
Answer: (A) Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Where is DME required under IFR?
A. At or above 24,000’ MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
B. In positively controlled airspace.
C. Above 18,000’ MSL
Answer: (A) At or above 24,000’ MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause?
A. Coriolis illusion
B. False horizon
C. Elevator illusion
Answer: (A) Coriolis illusion
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?
A. Part 61
B. Part 91
C. NTSB Part 830
Answer: (C) NTSB Part 830
(Regulations and Procedures)
When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within class B airspace?
A. a request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before flight.
B. The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.
C. The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
Answer: (A) a request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before flight.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
A. Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
B. Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.
C. The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
Answer: (B) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?
A. When operating in class E airspace.
B. For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
C. For any flight above an altitude of 1,200’ AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.
Answer: (B) for a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must:
A. List an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to the airport.
B. List an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
C. Be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.
Answer: (C) Be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.
(Regulations and Procedures)
If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to maintain VFR conditions on top, the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the:
A. True course
B. Magnetic heading
C. Magnetic course
Answer: (C) Magnetic Heading
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist?
A. 18,000’ MSL
B. 14,500’ MSL
C. 14,000’ MSL
Answer: (B) 14,500’ MSL
(Regulations and Procedures)
What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight.
A. Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.
B. Private pilot with instrument rating.
C. Private pilot with appropriate category, class, and instrument ratings.
Answer: (A) Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.
(Regulations and Procedures)
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when?
Answer: average TAS changes 10 knots or more.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over non mountainous terrain?
A. 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
B. 2,000’ above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.
C. 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course.
Answer: (A) 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
(Regulations and Procedures)
How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument competency check if no further IFR flights are made?
A. 90 days
B. 6 calendar months
C. 12 calendar months
Answer: (B) 6 Calendar months
(Regulations and Procedures)
What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
A. VOR/LOC receiver, transponder and DME.
B. VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.
C. Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.
Answer: (C) Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Class G airspace is that airspace where?
A. ATC does not control air traffic
B. ATC controls only IFR flights
C. the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles
Answer: (A) ATC does not control air traffic.
(Regulations and Procedures)
A pilot or crew may not perform any activities except those required to safely operate the aircraft during:
A. The preflight walk around of the aircraft.
B. Fueling of the aircraft.
C. Critical phases of flight.
Answer: (C) Critical phases of flight
(Regulations and Procedures)
When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished when using to operate under IFR?
A. within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.
B. Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.
C. Within the preceding 30 days.
Answer: (C) Within the preceding 30 days
(Regulations and Procedures)
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000’ of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between:
A. 500’ per minute and 1,000’ per minute
B. 500 FPM and 1,500 FPM
C. 1,000 FPM and 2,000 FPM
Answer: (B) 500 FPM and 1,500 FPM
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the floor of class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?
A. 500’ AGL
B. 700’ AGL
C. 1,200’ AGL
Answer: (B) 700’ AGL
(Regulations and Procedures)
An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of?
Tumbling backwards
(Regulations and Procedures)
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL240?
Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What in flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500’ MSL in class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours?
1 mile; 1,000’ above; 2,000’ horizontal; 500’ blow
(Regulations and Procedures)
In the event of a two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue:
A. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
B. The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical
C. The flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.
Answer: (B) the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
(Regulations and Procedures)
A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least?
A. A type rating
B. A first class medical certificate.
C. An instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.
Answer: (C) An instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
To advise of changes in flight dat which affect instrument approach procedure, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publications.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum enroute altitude along a jet route is?
18,000’ MSL
(Regulations and Procedures)
What are the normal lateral limits of class D airspace?
A. 8 NM
B. 5 NM
C. 4 NM
Answer: (C) 4 NM
(Regulations and Procedures)
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
A. Surface to 700’ AGL.
B. 1,200’ AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
C. 700’ AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
Answer: (C) 700’ AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required from a VFR on top flight at 9,500’ MSL during daylong hours in class E airspace?
3 152
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is a good procedure for night lighting in the flight deck?
the use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to?
Controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before flight.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Tunnel vision and cyanosis are symptoms of?
Hypoxia
(Regulations and Procedures)
Runway illusion: narrow runway.
higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500’ MSL in class G airspace during daylight hours?
5 miles; 1,000’ above; 1 mile horizontal; 1,000’ below
(Regulations and Procedures)
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach.
(Regulations and Procedures)
In addition to a VOR receiver and two way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in class B airspace?
An operable coded transponder having mode C capability.
(Regulations and Procedures)
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of?
being in a nose attitude.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which report should be made to ATC without the specific request when not in radar contact?
A. Entering instrument meteorological conditions
B. When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach
C. Correcting on ETA, any time a previous ETA is in error in excess of 2 minutes
Answer: (B) When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is?
A. 3,000’ over all terrain
B. 3,000’ over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000’ over terrain elsewhere
C. 2,000’ above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000’ above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
Answer: (C) 2,000’ above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000’ above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
(Regulations and Procedures)
How long before the altimeter needs to be inspected?
24 calendar months
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
A. The class E airspace extending upward from 700’ or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
B. That class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.
C. The class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200’ AGL, where designated.
Answer: (A) The class E airspace extending upward from 700’ or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Having appropriate instrument lighting will?
A. enable better recognition of outside references.
B. make a proper instrument scan difficult.
C. result in unnecessary eye strain.
Answer: (A) Enable better recognition of outside references.
(Regulations and Procedures)
A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as?
A. Elevator illusion
B. Autokinesis
C. False horizon
Answer: (C) False horizon
(Regulations and Procedures)
Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least:
A. DME
B. dual VOR receivers
C. Slip skid indicator
Answer: (C) Slip skid indicator
(Regulations and Procedures)
What does declaring ‘minimum fuel’ to ATC imply?
A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
B. Emergency handing is required to the nearest useable airport.
C. Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
Answer: (C) Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively provide the latest status of airport conditions?
Chart supplements and Distant D NOTAMs
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within class B airspace.
A. A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.
B. A VOR receiver with DME.
C. A 4096 code transponder.
Answer: (A) A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an Instrument rating?
A. that person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.
B. the carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.
C. the carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
Answer: (C) the carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
(Regulations and Procedures)
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace:
A. at and above 10,000’ MSL, excluding at and below 2,500’ AGL.
B. at and above 2,500’ above the surface.
C. below 10,000’ MSL, excluding at and below 2,500’ AGL.
Answer: (A) at and above 10,000’ MSL, excluding at and below 2,500’ AGL.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What conditions allow a pilot who is exercising the privileges of BasicMed to act as PIC under IFR?
A. Flight in IMC is not permitted under BasicMed.
B. When the PIC is instrument rated and current.
C. When there is a safety pilot who shares the PIC responsibilities.
Answer: (B) When the PIC is instrument rated and current.
(Regulations and Procedures)
What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency.
A. The approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.
B. At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown.
C. At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flow.
Answer: (A) The approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.
(Regulations and Procedures)
MOA’s are established to?
A. prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.
B. separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
C. restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities.
Answer: (B) separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain?
A. 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of course.
B. 2,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM of course.
C. 2,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
Answer: (C) 2,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
(Regulations and Procedures)
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?
FAA AFSS/FSS
(Regulations and Procedures)
What is the upper limit altitude of class D airspace?
2,500’ AGL
(Regulations and Procedures)
If you enter VMC while on an IFR flight plan you must?
See and avoid other traffic
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
A. All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground reference?
B. Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
C. Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions
Answer: (B) Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
(Regulations and Procedures)
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
A. Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions
B. Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions
C. Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions
Answer: (A) Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions
