(ACS) Preflight and Weather Flashcards

Checkride Prep

1
Q

(Preflight Preparation)

What are the eligibility requirements to become a private pilot?

there’s three things, its a short list

A

-Must speak and write English.
-Must be over the age of 17.
-Valid and current medical certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(Preflight Preparation)

Which documents must you have with you for your private pilot checkride?

A

-Valid photo ID. Passports are okay.
-Pilot Certificate.
-Current Medical Cert. or Basic Med Cert.
-IACRA form filled out and endorsed.
-FTN and application number
-Airmen knowledge
-Logbook with instructor endorsement

-Review the aircraft maintenance records.
-Have the cross country flight plans ready.

AC61-65H covers the requirements as well.

3 hours of flight time within the previous 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(Preflight Preparation)

Which documents must you have with you to exercise private pilot privileges?

A

CLIMB

Currency
License
ID
Medical Certificate
Biannual Flight Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(Preflight Preparation)

What privileges and limitation apply to private pilots?

A

-Can be pilot in command of an aircraft and carry passengers.

-Acting as PIC for a charitable flight.

-Towing a glider or banner.

-Giving an aircraft sale demo flight.

-May not carry passengers for compensation or hire. Unless:
Common purpose for the travel and both/all are paying their fair share. (Ex. Lunch trip or visiting family.)

-May be reimbursed for search and rescue ops but not time.

FAR - 61.113 (Add more privileges later.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Does a private pilot certificate expire?

What are the recency/currency requirements to keep flying with it?

61.57 (recency/currency) 61.56 (flight review)

A

No

They can be suspended or revoked though.

Recency and currency to fly however:

PIC during the day:
-3 T/O’s and landings in the preceding 90 days.
-Sole manipulator of controls.
-Same A/C Category, Class, and Type rating.
-Full stop landings for tailwheels.

PIC during the night:
-3 T/O’s to a full stop in the preceding 90 days.
-Between the 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.
-Sole manipulator of the controls.
-Same A/C Category, Class, and Type rating.

Additionally: (FAR 61.56)
A flight review must be completed every 24 calendar months. This involves:
-1 hour of ground training.
-1 hour of flight training.
-CFI must endorse logbook.
-Practical test for another certificate can substitute for a flight review.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the classes, privileges, and limitations, of medical certificates?

A

3 classes:
-1st class
-2nd class
-3rd class

1st class:
-Allows you to exercise PIC privileges of an ATP Cert under part 121.
-Expiration - Under 40:
12th calendar month
-Expiration - Over 40:
6th calendar month

2nd class:
-Allows second in command privileges of an ATP cert under part 121
-Some airline and general commercial operations.
-Expiration - Under 40:
12th calendar month
-Expiration - Over 40:
12th calendar month

3rd class:
-Exercise the privilege of private, recreational, or student pilot. No flying for compensation or for hire.
-Expiration - Under 40:
60th calendar month
-Expiration - Over 40:
24th calendar month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Basic Medical?

A

FAR 61.23 C

-Allows a pilot who had a valid medical after July 15, 2006 to exercise many of the same privileges offered by a 3rd class medical cert. Think of basic med as a 3rd class cert lite edition.

-must have a physical exam every four years and the physician must fill out the FAA paperwork.

-Must complete training every 2 years.

Can fly VFR or IFR in a covered aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight of under 6,000 pounds. 6 seats or fewer. can’t fly faster than 250 IAS or above FL180. Cannot fly compensation or for hire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

(Preflight Preparation)

What do category, class, and type mean. In regards to aircraft?

A

Category:
-Means whether the aircraft in question is an airplane, glider, helicopter, hot air balloon, etc.

Class:
based on performance and design characteristics. Single engine land, multi engine land, single engine sea, and multi engine sea.

Type:
- Points directly to a specific make and model of aircraft. Only required for an aircraft 12,000 pounds or higher. Turbojet powered as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(Preflight Preparation)

If a pilot changes their permanent mailing address, how long do they have to update the FAA?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

What are the documents that must be onboard the aircraft before flight?

A

ARROW

Airworthiness Cert (Must be placed in view of passengers)

Registration Cert (Proof the aircraft is registered with the FAA. Expires every 7 years)

Radio operators Cert (only required for international operations)

Operating limitations (POH) FAR 91.9

Weight and Balance (POH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

When will an aircraft registration certificate expire?

A

7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

Does an Airworthiness Certificate ever expire? Bonus question: what are some of the different kinds of airworthiness certificates?

FAR 21.181 Duration of Airworthiness Certificates

A

Remains valid as long as the aircraft meets its approved type design; is in a condition for safe operation; and maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance 14CFR parts 21, 43, and 91.

No it doesn’t expire. For the airworthiness certificate to remain valid, the owner or operator needs to perform all maintenance and any modifications to FAA standards and be properly documented.

(a) Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a termination date is otherwise established by the FAA, airworthiness certificates are effective as follows:

(1) Standard airworthiness certificates, special airworthiness certificates—primary category, and airworthiness certificates issued for restricted or limited category aircraft are effective as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with Parts 43 and 91 of this chapter and the aircraft are registered in the United States.

§ 21.175 Airworthiness certificates: classification.

(a) Standard airworthiness certificates are airworthiness certificates issued for aircraft type certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category, and for manned free balloons, and for aircraft designated by the FAA as special classes of aircraft.

(b) Special airworthiness certificates are primary, restricted, limited, light-sport, and provisional airworthiness certificates, special flight permits, and experimental certificates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

What is preventive maintenance and who can perform it?

FAR 43 Appendix A

A

Sport, Recreational, or Private pilots and above can perform preventive maintenance.

The FAA definition of preventive maintenance is:
simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations.

Any work performed must be done to the same performance expectation of an aircraft mechanic.

FAR part 43 has a very detailed list of all the preventive maintenance that can be done.

All preventive maintenance needs to be documented in the maintenance logbook.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

What is the difference between AFM and POH?

A

Both AFM and POH satisfy the operating limitations documents necessary to have on board the aircraft.

The AFM or POH used must have the specific serial number and registration of the particular aircraft for it to be considered to be an approved FAA flight manual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition?

91.403

A

The owner or operator is responsible for the maintenance of any aircraft (91.403).

Before any flight it is the PIC who is responsible to deem an aircraft as airworthy (91.3 and 91.7).

91.7: Civil aircraft airworthiness. The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight.

91.3: Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command. The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

What are the required aircraft inspections?

A

AAV1ATE

Airworthiness Directives

Annual Inspection (12 calendar months)

VOR Very high frequency omni directional range. (only required for IFR)

100 Hour (For hire) an annual inspection can substitute for a 100 hour.

Altimeter. (91.411) only needed during IFR.

Transponder (24 calendar months)

ELT (12 calendar months)
-half the battery has been used.
-1 hour cumulative use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

Can you over fly an annual or a 100 hour inspection?

A

yes a 100 hour can be overflown by 10 hours. However, the flight in question must be to get to an area where the inspection will take place.

An annual requires a special flight permit to overfly. also known as a ferry permit from a FSDO. allows an aircraft that is safe to fly but in a legally unairworthy condition to make it to a location where the inspection can be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

What different kinds of Airworthiness Directives are there?

A

Emergency AD: Require immediate action by an owner or operator

1 time AD: These are AD’s that once complied with are no longer further obligations.

Recurring AD: These must be complied with at specified intervals.

Special Airworthiness Bulletins are similar to AD’s but are not regulatory.

Should be addressed by the maintenance team. Pilots should keep an eye out though.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(Airworthiness Requirement)

Do you need to have an ELT in the airplane today?

FAR 91.207

A

Almost always.

ELT’s are not required:
-Aircraft that can only carry one person.
-Aircraft operated by scheduled air carriers.
-Aircraft participating in training exercises within 50 nautical miles of an airport.
-Aircraft involved in flight operations for design testing.
-Brand new aircraft.
-Aircraft involved in flight operations for applying chemicals and other substances for agricultural purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(Airworthiness Requirement)

When does an ELT battery need to be replaced or recharged?

A

-1 hour cumulative use
-Expired battery
-50% of the battery has been used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(Airworthiness Requirement)

What equipment are you required to have in the plane for todays flight?

A

ATOMATOFLAMES (Daytime VFR)

-Airspeed indicator
-Tachometer
-Oil pressure gauge
-Manifold pressure gauge
-Altimeter
-Temperature gauge (needed for each air cooled engine)
-Oil temperature gauge
-Fuel gauge for each tank
-Landing gear position indicator
-Anti-collision light
-Magnetic compass
-ELT
-Seat belts

FLAPS (Night VFR)

-Fuses
-Landing light
-Anti-collision light
-Position indicator lights
(Red on the left, Green on the right, white on the tail.)
-Source of power

Note that FLAPS is in addition to ATOMATOFLAMES at night.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

What is a Minimum Equipment List?

A

MEL is a list of equipment and instruments that can be inoperative on a specific aircraft type without compromising safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(Airworthiness Requirements)

Can an aircraft owner change an MEL?

A

Yes

MEL’s are not set in stone. Can be changed, but the new MEL must be sent for approval by the FAA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(Weather)

What are the standard pressure and temperature values for sea level?

A

ISA (International Standard Atmosphere)

Pressure: 29.92
inches of mercury pressure at sea level.
Pressure: 1013.25
millibars pressure at sea level

Temperature: 15 degrees Celsius or 59 degrees Fahrenheit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(Weather)

What are the layers of the atmosphere aircraft fly in?

A

Troposphere, Tropopause, and Stratosphere

The Tropopause acts as a weather stop in the majority of cases. This is because of the very stable conditions the layer possesses which doesn’t usually allow the temperatures to change. Anvil tops to cumulus clouds are indicators of the tropopause.
Note: Some serious thunderstorms punch through the tropopause.

Stratosphere temperatures are relatively stable and do not follow the lapse rate of 2 degree decrease per thousand feet gained. In fact the temperature starts to increase with altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(Weather)

What is the composition of the atmosphere?

A

78% Nitrogen 21% Oxygen 1% Other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(Weather)

What causes weather?

A

Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.
Uneven heating causes pressure differences. Hot air is less dense and makes for an area of low pressure. Cold air is more dense leading to areas of high pressure.

The Coriolis effect deflects the movement of air to the right in the northern hemisphere.

Heat exchange is also an answer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(Weather)

What are Isobars? What does it mean when Isobars are close together?

A

lines on weather charts that indicate areas with equal atmospheric pressure.

When Isobars are close together it means the bigger the difference in pressure in a given region. This translates to stronger winds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(Weather)

What type of clouds, precipitation, or weather would you expect from stable/unstable air?

A

Stable air: Usually accompanied by strato-form clouds, relatively poor visibility, smooth air (little or no turbulence), and steady/continuous precipitation.

Unstable air: Usually forms cumulo-form clouds or other cloud types with vertical development (Ex. thunderstorms), visibility is good or even very good, Turbulence is usually found, precipitation is showery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(Weather)

What are the general characteristics of low and high pressure areas?

A

Low: The air converges inward and up in a counterclockwise motion. Higher pressure air flows into a low pressure area to replace the air that moves upwards. This makes for unstable conditions, as the air rises it creates more clouds as moisture cools down and brings with it a higher chance for precipitation.

High: The airmass descends spreads outwards and rotates in a clockwise motion. High pressure areas generally have dry and stable air.

Note: When flying go with the direction of the airmass. It will boost the groundspeed of the flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(Weather)

What conditions must be present for a thunderstorm to form?

A
  1. Unstable atmosphere. Temp is decreasing faster than normal with altitude. Faster than 2 degrees per 1,000 feet.
  2. Presence of a lifting force. Ex. heating from below or frontal lifting then there is Orographic lifting.
  3. Presence of moisture. As an air parcel saturated with moisture rises the water vapor within the parcel condenses. With enough condensation nuclei a cloud will form. The cloud continues to climb until the parcel of air reaches a point of temperature equilibrium with the surrounding air. This often happens at the Tropopause, since the air stops getting colder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(Weather)

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

A
  1. Developing: There are only updrafts feeding the storm
  2. Mature: precipitation marks the mature stage. There are updrafts and downdrafts.
  3. Dissipating: When downdrafts overpower the updrafts the thunderstorm enters the dissipating stage. Downdrafts in the dissipation stage can cause windspeeds of over 100ft and hour. Microbursts can even be 150ft per hour.

Rule of thumb with thunderstorms is to stay 20 nautical miles away from a thunderstorm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(Weather)

What is windshear? Why is it an operational hazard?

A

Wind shear is a sudden drastic change in wind speed or direction over a small area.

(Low level wind shear occurs within 2,000 feet of the Earth’s surface). If the wind speed changes at least 10 knots per hundred feet of elevation and this layer of shear is at least 200 feet in thickness it is considered low level wind shear.

Likely to encounter wind shear near thunderstorms, frontal systems, and temperature inversions where the upper winds are greater than 25 knots.

In the case of thunderstorms you will encounter convective wind shear when near downdrafts.
When a downdraft hits the ground it fans out. An aircraft depending on the approach will either hit performance adding headwinds or performance decreasing tailwinds (the tailwind takes away the relative wind that the wings are using for lift).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(Weather)

Name some types of fog and where they can be found.

A

Radiation Fog: Clear calm night in a low lying area. Often found in temperature inversions. Ground fog is a certain type of radiation fog. Clears in a couple hours after dawn.

Advection Fog: Occurs when moist warm air moves over colder land or water and condenses into fog. Often found on coastlines when sea breezes bring warm ocean air onto colder land. Can last for days. Requires wind to form, if it is over 15kts the fog tends to lift and form low lying stratos clouds.

Upslope Fog: Occurs when moist stable air is forced up a slope such as a mountain range. When the warm moist air cools to its due point it forms fog. Requires wind and can last for days. Can reach very high.

Precipitation Fog: Occurs when rain falls through cold air, causing water to evaporate and condense into fog.

Steam Fog: Occurs when cold dry air moves over warm water. The water evaporates and cools as it rises. This forms fog. often called sea smoke. Needs very cold conditions of -25 degrees Fahrenheit to form. Is associated with icing and turbulence.

Frontal Fog: Can be found around frontal zones. One example is when rain falls into a cold stable airmass raising the dew point. Frontal fog can also be formed through interactions between warm and cool airmasses, warm and cool ground temperatures, and increased moisture levels.

Freezing Fog: The temperature is so low that the water vapor present immediately crystalizes into ice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Radiation Fog?

A

Heat radiates from the earth. As the ground loses heat it starts to cool the surrounding air. The air cools until it reaches the dew point and then forms fog.

Radiation Fog: Clear calm night in a low lying area. Often found in temperature inversions. Ground fog is a certain type of radiation fog. Clears in a couple hours after dawn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is advection fog?

A

Advection Fog: Occurs when moist warm air moves over colder land or water and condenses into fog. Often found on coastlines when sea breezes bring warm ocean air onto colder land. Can last for days. Requires wind to form, if it is over 15kts the fog tends to lift and form low lying stratos clouds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is upslope fog?

A

Upslope Fog: Occurs when moist stable air is forced up a slope such as a mountain range. When the warm moist air cools to its dew point it forms fog. Requires wind and can last for days. Can reach very high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is precipitation fog?

A

Precipitation Fog: Occurs when rain falls through cold air, causing water to evaporate and condense into fog.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is steam fog?

A

Steam Fog: Occurs when cold dry air moves over warm water. The water evaporates and cools as it rises. This forms fog. often called sea smoke. Needs very cold conditions of -25 degrees Fahrenheit to form. Is associated with icing and turbulence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is frontal fog?

A

Frontal Fog: Can be found around frontal zones.
One example is when rain falls into a cold stable airmass raising the dew point.
Frontal fog can also be formed through interactions between warm and cool airmasses, warm and cool ground temperatures, and increased moisture levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is freezing fog?

A

Freezing Fog: The temperature is so low that the water vapor present immediately crystalizes into ice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

(Weather)

What is icing and how does it affect aircraft performance?

A

Structural and induction

Structural Icing: Icing that accumulates on the aircraft surface like wing and horizontal stabilizer leading edges or propellers. Icing needs freezing temperatures and moisture to be present.

Types of ice:

Clear: often clear and smooth. Caused by supercooled water hitting the aircraft and freezing. This is the most dangerous type of ice. Hard to see, thick, and it can run back from the leading edge of the wing. Generally forms when the temperature is between 0 and -10 degrees Celsius.

Rime: Can be found in slightly colder temperatures, usually -10 to -20 degrees Celsius. Rime ice is rough and white. Often found in stratus clouds.

Mixed (a combination of clear and mixed ice) The worst of both worlds.

Frost: Frost that forms on the wings while the aircraft is on the ground must be completely thawed before a flight can take place.

All ice that forms on the structure of an aircraft it will disturb the natural smooth airflow that is necessary to generate lift. Also creates extra drag. According to the AOPA a layer of ice no thicker than rough sandpaper can decrease lift by 30% and increase drag by as much as 40%. The stall speed can increase too. The critical angle of attack is lower.

Induction Icing: Ice that forms within the engine induction systems. Most commonly in carb. systems. Can also form in fuel injected systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

(Weather)

When planning your flight what information could you use to avoid icing?

A

The only way to avoid icing is to never approach or be in the conditions for icing by planning ahead. PIREPS, METARS and TAFS, and other weather data like airmets and sigmets.

Avoid visible moisture when the temperature is close to 0 degrees Celsius. Ice will not form without water and freezing temps.

Avoid flying through clouds.

Avoid freezing rain. It often occurs around warm fronts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

(Weather)

How do you exit icing conditions should you find that your aircraft is accumulating ice?

A

Divert to an area of better weather. Descend and or climb to warmer temperatures. Slow the plane down to decrease ice accumulation.

Be gentle on the bank angle and use minimum flaps on landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

(Weather)

What are the characteristics and What kind of weather will you experience when flying near or through a cold front?

A

Cold front:

-Fast moving can travel between 30 and 60 miles per hour.
-Towering cumulus and cumulo nimbus clouds often form. Bringing thunderstorms, heavy rain, hail, and tornadoes.
-Winds are gusty and variable.
-Look out for squall lines ahead of the front.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

(Weather)
What characteristics and what kind of weather will you experience in a warm front?

A

Warm Front:
-Slow moving
-Associated with a layer of stratiform clouds.
-Drizzly/steady rain in the warmer months.
-Snow or sleet in the winter.
-Poor visibility. Fog can form as well.
-Thunderstorms can form in warm fronts.
-Low to moderate turbulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

(Weather)

Can you use FIS-B to avoid thunderstorms?

A

No

FIS-B does not update fast enough to track thunderstorms reliably.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

(Weather)

What is a METAR and how often are they issued?

A

Meteorological Aerodrome Report is an hourly surface weather report at an airport.

Can be auto generated or hand generated.

If the weather changes faster than the regular hourly report than a SPECI is released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

(Weather)

What would the letters G and V represent in the winds section of a METAR?

A

G= Gusty/Gusting

V=Variable
The wind direction changes more than 60 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

(Weather)

What does -TSRA mean in a METAR?

A

Thunderstorm with light rain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

(Weather)

What is a PIREP? Why are they useful and where can you find them?

A

Weather reports generated by pilots while they are in flight.

Pilots usually give these reports to ATC while airborne. They can call them in when landed.

Inform pilots of conditions as the exist at present. Is not a forecast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

(Weather)

What is a TAF?

A

Terminal Aerodrome forecast for a particular airport. 5SM radius of the airport in question. Generated 4 times a day.

Each TAF is valid 24 or 30 hours depending on the airport.

TAF is in Zulu time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

(Weather)

What is an Airmet? What are the three types of an Airmet?

A

An airmet is an advisory of significant weather. Airmets are important for GA light aircraft in particular.

Issued every six hours.

Types of Airmet’s:

-Airmet Sierra. Defines areas of IFR or Mountain air weather.

-Airmet Tango. Defines areas of moderate turbulence. Winds up to 30 knots and wind shear not connected to convective activity.

-Airmet Zulu. Defines areas of moderate icing and freezing level heights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

(weather)
What is an AIRMET Sierra?

A

Defines an area of IFR or Moutain air weather.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

(Weather)

What is an AIRMET Tango?

A

Defines areas of moderate turbulence. Winds up to 30 knots and wind shear not connected to convective activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

(Weather)

What is AIRMET Zulu?

A

Defines areas of icing and freezing level heights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

(Weather)

What is a sigmet and what weather is it reporting?

A

SIGMETs (abbreviated WSs) are notices issued for non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft.

SIGMETs are unscheduled forecasts that are valid for 4 hours unless the SIGMET relates to a hurricane, in which case it is valid for 6 hours.

Sigmets include severe icing and turbulence not associated with thunderstorms, dust storms, or volcanic ash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

(Weather)
What is a convective SIGMET and what weather does it report?

A

Convective SIGMET
A Convective SIGMET (WST) is an in-flight weather advisory issued for hazardous convective weather that affects the safety of every flight. They are issued at 55 minutes past the hour but can be issued any time in the interim as needed.

They are valid for 2 hours.

Weather being reported includes:
- Embedded thunderstorms
- A line of thunderstorms
- Thunderstorms with heavy precipitation affecting 40% of an area at least 3,000 square miles
- Hail 3/4 or more inches in diameter
- Tornadoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

(Weather)

What are the ceiling and visibility criteria for the following flight rules categories (VFR, MVFR, IFR, LIFR)?

A

-VFR:
Ceiling greater than 3,000 AGL and/or visibility 5 miles.

-MVFR: (MarginalVFR)
Ceilings from 1,000-3,000 AGL and/or visibility between 3 and 5 statute miles.

-IFR:
Ceilings of 500-1,000 AGL and/or visibility from 1 to 3 statute miles.

-LIFR: (LowIFR)
Ceiling of less than 500 AGL or visibility of less than 1 statute mile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

(Weather)

What are personal minimums?

A

A pilot’s own personal customized conditions that they feel comfortable or confident to fly in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

(Weather)

What are some flight planning weather products that are available to pilots?

A

AviationWeather.gov

1800WXBrief.com

Aviation weather center

Flight service station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

(Weather)

What is a surface analysis chart?

A

A weather map that shows the conditions at the Earth’s surface at a specific time.

Published every 3 hours
UTC date and time on the bottom right. Top right will show when the chart is valid.
Chart indicates weather at the valid time not the issued time.

depicts four main groups of weather:
- Fronts
- Pressure
- Areas of precipitation
- Thunderstorms

Station points:
-visibility (in statute miles)
-Altimter setting
-Cloud ceiling
-Airport ID
*note that each weather service may have their own unique way of displaying station points and associated information.

https://pilotinstitute.com/surface-analysis-charts-explained/

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

(Weather)

what is frontogenesis?

A

The formation/creation of a front.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

(Weather)

What is frontolysis?

A

The dissipation or weakening of a front.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

(Weather)

How do you get updated weather during flight using an FSS?

A

A flight service station can be contacted while enroute. open up a sectional chart and look for a navaid box that will have an FSS frequency nearby will have an identifier as well as if it is receive only or two way.

You can also call an FSS via the number 1-800-WXBrief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

(Weather)

How do you get updated weather during flight using ADSB

A

Automatic dependent surveillance broadcast

From january 1 2020 is required in many airspaces. ADSB in is not required.

ADSB in allows pilots to receive Flight Information Service Broadcast (FIS-B) data. In practical terms this is METAR’s, TAF’s, Next rad weather, sigmets and convective sigmets, special use airspace status, airmets, notams, pireps, winds and temperature’s aloft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

(Weather)

What are some ways a weather report can be used to assess flight safety?

A

low clouds or low visibility on route or icing or thunderstorms or moderate to severe turbulence if the winds exceed personal minimums or aircraft crosswind component are indications that a flight should be delayed or the route be changed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

(Weather)
How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without tower or FSS?

A

Set the altimeter to 29.92 and read the altimeter’s indicated altitude.

69
Q

(Weather)
The three most important forces that affect air motions are?

A
  1. Pressure Gradient Force (primary driver of wind which is the horizontal movement of air).
  2. Coriolis Force
  3. Frictional Force
70
Q

(Weather)
What is an air parcel?

A

A volume of the atmosphere that is small enough so that its mass can be treated as if it were concentrated at a single point.

71
Q

(Weather)
What is a pressure gradient?

A

the difference in pressure between two points divided by the distance between points.

Horizontal pressure gradient is the movement of air parcels in the atmosphere towards each other. Air parcels will always move high pressure to low pressure.
Note: The pressure gradient force is always directed perpendicular to the isobars towards lower pressure.

72
Q

(Weather)
What is a Thermal Circulation?

A

The movement of air which results from differential heating.
Note: the stronger the temperature gradient, the stronger the pressure gradient, and the stronger the wind.

Thermal Circulations are made up of two horizontal branches an upper branch and a lower branch that serve as circulation.

Example is sea breeze and land breeze.

73
Q

(Weather)
What actions should a pilot take in the event of a suspected tailplane icing during an approach?

A. Leave the autopilot on to assist flying the approach.

B. Use partial or no flaps and no autopilot

C. Hand fly the approach until the IAF and then use the autopilot

A

Answer: (B) Use partial or no flaps and no autopilot.

When the autopilot is used in icing conditions it can mask changes in performance due to the aerodynamic effects of icing that would otherwise be detected by the pilot if the airplane were being flown by hand.
Reference: AC 91-74

74
Q

(Weather)
When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should:

A. Fly to an area with liquid precipitation.

B. fly to a lower altitude.

C. leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.

A

Answer: (C) Leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.

When icing is detected a pilot should do one of two things, particularly if the aircraft is not equipped with deicing equipment:
- leave the area of precipitation
- go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing

Note: this warmer altitude may not always be a lower altitude.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-15

75
Q

(Weather)
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A. A stable layer of air.

B. An unstable layer of air.

C. Air mass thunderstorm.

A

Answer: (A) A stable layer of air.

A temperature inversion occurs when the temperature increases with altitude. A stable layer of air is characterized by warmer air lying above colder air. With an inversion, the layer is table and convection is suppressed.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-28

76
Q

(Weather)
The presence of a standing lenticular altocumulus cloud is a good indication of:

A. A jet stream

B. Very strong turbulence

C. Heavy icing conditions

A

Answer: (B) Very strong turbulence

Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds are formed on the crests of waves created by barriers to the wind flow. The clouds show little movement, hence the name ‘standing.’ However, wind can be quite strong blowing through such clouds. The presence of these clouds is a good indication of very strong turbulence and they should be avoided.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-28

77
Q

(Weather)
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.

B. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.

C. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

A

Answer: (C) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

78
Q

(Weather)
An air mass is a body of air that?

A. Has similar cloud formations associated with it.

B. Creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth’s surface.

C. Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.

A

Answer: (C) Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.

79
Q

(Weather)
On initial climb out after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation you can expect?

A. Ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.

B. The autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the anti icing boots are working.

C. The increased airflow under the wings to prevent the accumulation of ice.

A

Answer: (A) Ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.

80
Q

(Weather)
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when?

A. Water vapor condenses.

B. Water vapor is present.

C. The temperature and dew point are equal.

A

Answer: (A) Water vapor condenses.

81
Q

(Weather)
A characteristic of the stratosphere is:

A. An overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.

B. A relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000’.

C. Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

A

Answer: (C) Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

82
Q

(Weather)
If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?

A. Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.

B. Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer.

C. Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20 degrees and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

A

Answer: (A) Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.

83
Q

(Weather)
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, with a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of:

A. 40 knots

B. 80 Knots

C. 90 Knots

A

Answer: (C) 90 Knots

Horizontal winds near the surface can be as strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90 knots shear across the microburst. These strong horizontal winds occur within a few hundred feet off the ground.

84
Q

(Weather)
While flying at 3 degree glideslope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

A. Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease ant there is a tendency to go below glide slope.

B. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.

C. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

A

Answer: (C) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

When an aircraft that is flying with a tailwind suddenly encounters calm air, it is the same as encountering a headwind. Initially, the IAS and pitch will increase an the aircraft will balloon above the glide slope.
Reference: AC 00-54

85
Q

(Weather)
If the temperature is +8 degrees at an elevation of 1350 feet and a standard temperature lapse rate exists, what will the approximate freezing level?

A. 3,350’

B. 5,350’

C. 9,350’

A

Answer: (B) 5,350’

Temperature normally decreases with increasing altitude throuhout the troposhere. This decrease of temperature with altitude is defined as lapse rate. The average decrease of temperature in the troposphere is 2 degrees per 1,000’.

An 8 degree loss is necessary to reach 0 degree celsius, or freezing, in this situation. At 2 degrees per 1000’ the amount of altitude gain would be:
1. 8 / 2 = 4 or 4,000’
2. 1,350’ MSL (altitude at 8 degrees Celsius) + 4,000’ (altitude gain necessary to reach 0 degrees) = 5,350’ MSL (approximate freezing level).

86
Q

(Weather)
The suffix ‘nimbus,’ used in naming clouds means:

A. Clouds with extensive vertical development.

B. Rain cloud.

C. Dark massive, towering cloud.

A

Answer: (B) Rain cloud

87
Q

(Weather)
What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000’ above the surface and the surface winds?

A. The winds at 2,000’ and the surface winds flow in the same direction but the surface winds are weaker due to friction.

B. The winds at 2,000’ tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle towards lower pressure and are weaker.

C. The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2,000’ and are usually weaker.

A

Answer: (B) The winds at 2,000’ tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.

88
Q

(Weather)
The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that produced by?

A. Radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

B. Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

C. The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

A

Answer: (A) Radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

89
Q

(Weather)
How should deicing boots be used after exiting flight in icing conditions?

A. Boots do not need to be operated after leaving icing conditions.

B. Continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation.

C. Only continue to cycle the boots if you are concerned ice may continue to accumulate.

A

Answer: (B) Continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation.

90
Q

(Weather)
What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?

A. The anvil top has completed its development.

B. Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.

C. A gust front forms

A

Answer: (B) Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.

91
Q

(Weather)
The strength and location of the jet stream is normally?

A. Stronger and farther north in the winter.

B. Weaker and farther north in the summer.

C. Stronger and farther north in the summer.

A

Answer: (B) Weaker and farther north in the summer.

In mid latitude, wind speed in the jet stream averages considerably stronger in winter than in summer. Also the jet shifts farther south in winter than in summer.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-28

92
Q

(Weather)
winds at 5,000’ AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to:

A. A stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.

B. Friction between the wind and the surface.

C. Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

A

Answer: (B) Friction between the wind and the surface.

93
Q

(Weather)
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of:

A. Stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.

B. Cummuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.

C. Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

A

Answer: (C) Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

Steady precipitation is a characteristic of stable air. Stratiform clouds are associated with stable air.

94
Q

(Weather)
Ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can?

A. Reduce lift by as much as 50% and increase drag by as much as 50%.

B. Increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25%.

C. Reduce lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%.

A

Answer: (C) Reduce lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%.

95
Q

(Weather)
While flying at 3 degree glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?

A. Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.

B. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

C. Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope.

A

Answer: (A) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.

96
Q

(Weather)
Frontal waves normally form on?

A. Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.

B. Slow moving war fronts and strong occluded fronts.

C. Rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.

A

Answer: (A) Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.

97
Q

(Weather)
What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?

A. Advective action.

B. Upward currents.

C. Cyclonic movement.

A

Answer: (B) Upward currents

Cloud particles collide and merge into a larger drop in the more rapid growth process. This process produces larger precipitation particles and does so more rapidly than the simple condensation growth process. Upward currents enhance the growth rate and also support larger drops.

98
Q

(Weather)
Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground:

A. During periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.

B. During periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys.

C. During periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

A

Answer: (C) during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

99
Q

(Weather)
A temperature inversion will normally form only when:

A. In stable air.

B. In unstable air.

C. When a stratiform layer merges with a cumuliform mass.

A

Answer: (A) In stable air

100
Q

(Weather)
What is the most hazardous aspect of structural icing?

A. it can cause breakage of antennas.

B. It can cause blockage of the pitot tube and/or static ports affecting aircraft instruments.

C. It can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift.

A

Answer: (C) It can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift.

101
Q

(Weather)
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?

A. Constand airspeed V(a).

B. Level flight attitude.

C. Constant altitude and constant airspeed.

A

Answer: (B) Level flight attitude

102
Q

(Weather)
In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?

A. Cumulonimbus clouds.

B. High humidity and freezing temperature.

C. Freezing rain.

A

Answer: (C) Freezing

103
Q

(Weather)
If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should:

A. First confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots.

B. Operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice.

C. Operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal.

A

Answer: (B) Operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice.

104
Q

(Weather)
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as?

A. 8,000 FPM

B. 7,000 FPM

C. 6,000 FPM

A

Answer: (C) 6,000 FPM

105
Q

(Weather)
Tail plane icing can be detected by?

A. A slow and steady decrease in altitude

B. Flaps failing to operate

C. A sudden change in elevator force or un-commanded nose down pitch.

A

Answer: (C) A sudden change in elevator force or an un-commanded nose down pitch.

106
Q

(Weather)
What are four families of clouds?

A

Answer: (C) High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

107
Q

(Weather)
Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?

A. Towering cumulus

B. Cumulonimbus

C. Altocumulus Castellanus

A

Answer: (B) Cumulonimbus

108
Q

(Weather)
Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?

A. Warm front

B. Squall line

C. Air mass

A

Answer: (B) Squall line

109
Q

(Weather)
If a pilot encounters freezing drizzle, he can assume that:

A. There is warm air above.

B. The freezing drizzle will accumulate as rime ice.

C. Since freezing drizzle is supercooled it is not a concern for structural icing.

A

Answer: (A) There is warm air above.

110
Q

(Weather)
Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate that:

A. Turbulence at and below the cloud level.

B. Poor visibility

C. Smooth flying conditions

A

Answer: (A) Turbulence at and below cloud level.

111
Q

(Weather)
Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?

A. low clouds

B. High clouds

C. Clouds with extensive vertical development.

A

Answer: (B) High clouds

112
Q

(Weather)
In which condition is advection fog most likely to form?

A. An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.

B. A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

C. Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions.

A

Answer: (A) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.

113
Q

(Weather)
Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

A. snow

B. hail

C. ice pellets

A

Answer: (C) Ice pellets

114
Q

(Weather)
The first place ice is likely to form on the aircraft is where?

A

Tail of plane

115
Q

(Weather)
What is an operation consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?

A. you have flown into an area of thunderstorms.

B. Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitudes.

C. You have flown through a cold front.

A

Answer: (B) Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitudes.

116
Q

(Weather)
Where do squall lines most often develop?

A. In an occluded front.

B. In a cold air mass.

C. Ahead of a cold front.

A

Answer: (C) Ahead of a cold front

117
Q

(Weather)
What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up a slope?

A. First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.

B. Vertical clouds with increasing height.

C. Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

A

Answer: (C) Stratified clouds with little vertical development

118
Q

(Weather)
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because:

A. Maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.

B. Amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.

C. Airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.

A

Answer: (B) Amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.

119
Q

(Weather)
What type of clouds will form when an unstable air mass is forced up a slope?

A. Layered clouds with little vertical development.

B. Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence.

C. Clouds with extensive vertical development.

A

Answer: (C) Clouds with extensive vertical development.

120
Q

(Weather)
A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes flight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as?

A. Light turbulence

B. Moderate turbulence

C. Light chop

A

Answer: (A) Light turbulence

121
Q

(Weather)
Which force, in the northern hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?

A. centrifugal

B. pressure gradient

C. Coriolis

A

Answer: (C) Coriolis

122
Q

(Weather)
The presence of ice pellets at the surface indicates that?

A

There is freezing rain at a higher altitude.

123
Q

(Weather)
A jet stream is defined as wind of:

A

50 knots or higher

124
Q

(Weather)
What is the most likely reason for buffeting or vibrations after extending the flaps during or exiting icing conditions?

A. Incipient tail plane stall.

B. Aerodynamic stall due to increased angle of attack.

C. Aerodynamic instability due to ice accumulation.

A

Answer: (A) Incipient tail plane stall

125
Q

(Weather)
Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?

A. Low level winds

B. Ambient lapse rate

C. Atmospheric pressure

A

Answer: (B) Ambient lapse rate

126
Q

(Weather)
When flying through supercooled water droplets, the first sign of structural ice accumulation would be:

A. The leading edge of the wings.

B. On probes and antennas.

C. The windshield.

A

Answer: (B) On probes and antennas

127
Q

(Weather)
What should pilots do if icing is detected while also experiencing a rolling condition?

A. lower the flaps to decrease airspeed.

B. Set power and angle of attack for a controlled descent.

C. Retract flaps and increase power.

A

Answer: (B) Set power and angle of attack for a controlled descent

128
Q

(Weather)
What is a high cloud mostly composed of?

A

Ice crystals

129
Q

(Weather)
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

Hint: there’s three things

A

Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action

130
Q

(Weather)
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

A. With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.

B. With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.

C. Turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions

A

Answer: (A) With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.

131
Q

(Weather)
What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?

A. the temperature is above freezing at your altitude.

B. the temperature is below freezing at your altitude.

C. you are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.

A

Answer: (A) the temperature is above freezing at your altitude.

132
Q

(Weather)
Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

A. Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.

B. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

C. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

A

Answer: (C) Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

133
Q

(Weather)
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.

B. When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.

C. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is colder than freezing.

A

Answer: (C) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is colder than freezing.

134
Q

(Weather)
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

A

Warm, most air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface.

135
Q

(Weather)
Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

A. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.

B. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.

C. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

A

Answer: (B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility

136
Q

(Weather)
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?

A. A wind change

B. An abrupt decrease in pressure

C. Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.

A

Answer: (A) A wind change

137
Q

(Weather)
What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

A. The method by which the air is being lifted.

B. The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

C. The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.

A

Answer: (B) The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

138
Q

(Weather)
What is the primary purpose of a weeping wing?

A

The weeping wing provides leading edge protection against icing.

139
Q

(Weather Service)
A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft at FL390 to be 300 degrees at 200 knots; temperature -54 degrees C. How would this data be encoded in the FB?

A. 300054

B. 809954

C. 309954

A

Answer: (B) 809954

Wind speed above 100 knots have 50 added to the direction code (first two digits). Wins speeds at 200 knots or greater are coded 99 (middle 2 digits). Temperatures above 24,000’ are negative so the minus sign is omitted (last 2 digits).

140
Q

(Weather Service)
Pilots on IFR flights seeking ATC in flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind that:

A. ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service.

B. Circumnavigating severe weather can only be accommodated in the en route areas away from terminals because of congestion.

C. ATC narrow band radar does not provide the controller with weather intensity capability.

A

Answer: (A) ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service.

141
Q

(Weather Service)
The low level significant weather prognostic chart depicts weather conditions:

A. That are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart.

B. As they existed at the time the chart was prepared.

C. That existed at the time shown on the chart which is about 3 hours before the chart is received.

A

Answer: (A) That are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart.

142
Q

(Weather Service)
What is the maximum forecast period for AIRMET’s?

A. 2 hours

B. 4 hours

C. 6 hours

A

Answer: (C) 6 hours

143
Q

(Weather Service)
A “VRB” wind entry in a TAF will be indicated when the wind is:

A. 3 knots or less

B. 6 knots or less

C. 9 knots or less

A

Answer: (B) 6 knots or less

144
Q

(Weather Service)
What information is provided by a convective outlook?

A. It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours.

B. It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.

C. It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere.

A

Answer: (B) It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.

145
Q

(Weather Service)
What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR?
METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42.

A. Runway ceiling is 2700’

B. Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800’

C. Measured ceiling is 300’ and overcast

A

Answer: (B) Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800’

146
Q

(Weather Service)
A prognostic chart depicts the conditions:

A. Existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.

B. Which presently exist from the 1,000 millibar to 700 millibar level

C. Forecast to exist at a specific time in the future

A

Answer: (C) Forecast to exist at a specific time in the future

147
Q

(Weather Service)
Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airport’s runway complex?

A. Area forecast

B. Weather depiction charts

C. Terminal aerodrome forecast

A

Answer: (C) Terminal aerodrome forecast

148
Q

(Weather Service)
A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?

A. Low level significant weather prognostic chart, and the area forecast.

B. The area forecast, and the freezing level chart.

C. Pilot weather reports (PIREP), AIRMET, and SIGMET.

A

Answer: (C) Pilot weather reports, AIRMET, SIGMET

149
Q

(Weather Service)
The body of a TAF covers how much of a geographical area around the airport?

150
Q

(Weather Service)
What does a convective outlook (AC) describe for a following 24 hour period?

A. Areas of slight, moderate, or high risk of thunderstorms.

B. A severe weather watch bulletin.

C. When forecast conditions are expected to continue beyond the valid period.

A

Answer: (A) Areas of slight, moderate, or high risk of thunderstorms.

151
Q

(Weather Service)
What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?

A. Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.

B. Levels of widespread cloud coverage.

C. Winds and temperatures aloft.

A

Answer: (C) Winds and temperatures aloft.

152
Q

(Weather Service)
What wind direction and speed is represented by the entry 9900+00 for 9,000’, on a winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FB)?

A. Light and variable; less than 5 knots

B. Vortex winds exceeding 200 knots.

C. Light and variable; less than 10 knots.

A

Answer: (A) Light and variable; less than 5 knots.

153
Q

(Weather Service)
The use of airborne weather avoidance radar:

A. Provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

B. Assures the avoidance of hail.

C. Allows you to fly safely between echoes.

A

Answer: (A) Provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

154
Q

(Weather Service)
Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?

A. The radar scope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

B. The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.

C. The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between echoes.

A

Answer: (A) The radar scope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

155
Q

(Weather Service)
Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?

A. Widespread sand or dust storms affecting at least 3,000 square miles or an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations.

B. Moderate Icing

C. Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.

A

Answer: (A) Widespread sand or dust storms affecting at least 3,000 square miles or an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations.

156
Q

(Weather Service)
When does the National Weather Service release an Aviation Notification Watch Message (SAW)?

A. At 0000 (UTC)

B. 0000 and 1200 (UTC)

C. Unscheduled and issued as required

A

Answer: (C) Unscheduled and issued as required.

157
Q

(Weather Service)
AIRMET is issued on a schedule basis every?

A. 15 minutes after the hour only

B. 15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled

C. Six hours

A

Answer: (C) Six hours

158
Q

(Weather Service)
What all does a surface analysis chart show?

A. Actual pressure systems, frontal location, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.

B. Frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission.

C. Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.

A

Answer: (C) Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.

159
Q

(Weather Service)
When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as:

A. 6PSM

B. P6SM

C. 6SMP

A

Answer: (B) P6SM

160
Q

(Weather Service)
what conclusion can be drawn from a 500 millibar constant pressure chart for a planned flight at FL180?

A. Winds aloft at FL180 generally flow across the height contours.

B. Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated.

C. Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.

A

Answer: (B) Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated.

161
Q

(Weather Service)
Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts?

A. Magnetic direction and knots

B. Magnetic direction and MPH

C. True direction and knots

A

Answer: (C) True direction and knots

162
Q

(Weather Service)
When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitude omitted at a specific location or station in the winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FB)?

A. Less than 5 knots

B. Less than 10 knots

C. When the altitude is within 1,500’ of the station elevation

A

Answer: (C) When the altitude is within 1,500’ of the station elevation

163
Q

(Weather Service)
When is the temperature at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the winds and temperature aloft forecast (FB)?

A. When the temperature is standard for that altitude.

B. For the 3,000’ altitude or when the level is within 2,500’ of station elevation.

C. Only when the winds are omitted for that altitude.

A

Answer: (B) For the 3,000’ altitude or when the level is within 2,500’ of station elevation.

164
Q

(Weather Service)
What is the time frame for the validity of low level significant weather prognostic charts?

A. 12 to 24 hours in the future

B. From 3 hours before to 3 hours after the time on the chart.

C. Up to 48 hours in the future.

A

Answer: (A) 12 to 24 hours in the future.

165
Q

(Weather Service)
A ceiling is defined as?

A

The lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.

166
Q

(Weather Service)
If you encounter in flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that are expected to be used?

A. Light, moderate, severe, extreme

B. Trace, light, moderate, severe

C. Few, light, moderate, severe

A

Answer: (B) Trace, light, moderate, severe

167
Q

(Weather Service)
To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot should refer to?

A. Graphical forecasts for aviation (GFR).

B. Weather depiction charts

C. Satellite maps

A

Answer: (A) Graphical forecasts for aviation

168
Q

(Weather Service)
Interpret this PIREP:
MRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT

A. Ceiling 6,000’ intermittently below moderate thunderstorms; turbulence increasing westward.

B. FL600, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with wind.

C. At 6,000’; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.

A

Answer: (C) At 6,000’; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.