(ACS) Cross Country Flight/Navigation Flashcards
(Cross Country)
What altitude is selected for the flight?
you’ll need to know weather and terrain.
- Cloud ceiling will need to be known to stay below it.
- Minimum altitudes are necessary to be known.
- Congested area locations and obstacles places should be known.
- Check the MEF for each quadrangle. It represents the highest obstacle in the quadrangle plus 100-200’
- Understand your gliding distances to see what options emergency situations will give you.
- Winds aloft and temperatures aloft
What airspace are you flying enroute?
Check PIREPS along the route.
If you are flying over 3,000 AGL:
- Magnetic compass 0-179 degrees fly odd thousands plus 500’
- Magnetic compass of 180-359 degrees fly even thousands plus 500’
(Cross Country)
How will you keep track of your flights progress?
Keep track of fuel burn
Keep track of headwind or tailwind
Know the checkpoints that are set and check the times with the estimated times of the flight plan.
(Cross Country)
How much fuel will you need for the cross country?
what are the fuel restrictions?
Daytime: fly to destination at normal cruising speed and have enough fuel to keep flying for 30 more minutes at cruise speed once the destination has been arrived at. (add ten minutes for SUU)
Nighttime: fly to destination at normal cruising speed and have enough fuel to keep flying for 45 more minutes at cruise speed once the destination has been arrived at. (add ten minutes for SUU)
The legal minimums are not the end all be all. Fuel time should take in to account the alternates and emergency procedures plus the performance of the aircraft.
(Cross Country)
Are you filing a VFR flight plan for the cross country flight?
Not required for most VFR operations. However, they are strongly recommended. They only cost time to make and are a way to be located if something bad happens along the planned route of a flight.
(Cross Country)
What are the elements of a VFR flight plan? (8 total)
- Aircraft identification, color, and type
- True airspeed
- Departure and arrival times
- ETA and time enroute
- Fuel onboard
- Route of flight
- Alternates
- Contact info and the number of souls on board
(Cross Country)
How do you file open and close a flight plan?
you can file a flight plan via phone, internet or EFB of choice.
Can be opened by calling an FSS after departure. Make sure to let the FSS know if the ETA changes. Close the flight plan on arrival either by phone, internet, or radio.
If you don’t make it to the planned destination within 30 minutes of arrival time search and rescue will be contacted.
(Cross Country)
Explain NOTAM’s and describe their categories.
Notice to air missions is a notice containing information essential to personnel concerned with flight operations, but not known far enough in advance to be publicized by other means. NOTAMS are either notices of a fairly temporary nature or notices that are long term or permanent but haven’t yet been incorporated into other sources of information.
NOTAM D: (Distant) NOTAM’s that apply to not only your local area but the entire national airspace system. Give information to changes in navaids and civil public use airports. Can include airport, runway, taxi way closures, airport lighting outages, obstructions, and more.
Flight Data Center or FDC NOTAM’s: List changes to instrument approach procedures, airway changes, and temporary flight restrictions.
Pointer NOTAM’s: don’t necessarily point out NOTAMS that are directly associated with a certain airport or navaid but might be important to pilots using those facilities.
Special Activity Airspace NOTAM’s: issued when special activity/use airspace is active outside of its published times.
Military NOTAM’s: pertain to military operations that don’t pertain to civil operations
GPS NOTAM’s and ADSB NOTAM’s as well as many others can be found.
(Cross Country)
What information does a pilot need to have become familiar with before departing for a flight?
NWKRAFT
NWKRAFT (FAR 91.103)
N- NOTAMS
W- Weather reports and forecasts
K- Known delays published by ATC
R- Runway lengths of intended use
A- Alternate destinations in case the flight cannot be completed as planned
F- Fuel requirements for planned flight
T- Takeoff and landing distances
T- TFR’s (temporary flight restrictions)
(Cross Country)
How do you know if there are any runway closures at your destination?
NOTAMs will be a good place to look specifically NOTAM D’s give information relevant to this question. ATC can update you on any NOTAM updates.
(Note: NOTAMs that are more than 30 days old won’t be posted anymore)
(Cross Country)
What is the minimum height that can be flown?
FAR 91.119
FAR 91.119 the main goal is to protect people, places, and things on the ground. nobody other than the PIC should be put at risk. Anytime you are in the air and not taking off or landing you need to be at an altitude where should your engine fail you can make an emergency landing without risking harm to people and property on the ground.
If you’re flying over a congested area like cities and open air gatherings you need to be 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within 2,000’ horizontally of the plane.
If you are not over a congested area you need to be at least 500’ in height unless over open water or over a sparsely populated area in which case you only need to be 500’ away from persons, property, or vessels.
(Navigation)
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system?
A. 4 degrees between the two indicated bearings of a VOR.
B. Plus or minus 4 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR.
C. 6 degrees between the two indicated radials of a VOR.
Answer: 4 degrees between the two indicated bearings of a VOR.
(Navigation)
Hand held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as?
A. the principal reference to determine enroute waypoints.
B. an aid to situational awareness
C. the primary source of navigation
Answer: (B) an aid to situational awareness
(Navigation)
While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against another?
A. Plus or minus 4 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR.
B. 4 degrees between the two indicated bearings to a VOR
C. Plus or minus 6 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR
Answer: (B) 4 degrees between the two indicated bearings to a VOR
(Navigation)
You have been given the following approach clearance: “N69US, you are cleared for the ILS runway 7 left approach, side step runway 7 right.” At what point are you expected to commence the side step maneuver?
A. At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach
B. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
C. At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.
Answer: (B) As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
(Navigation)
On a WAAS capable GPS approach, what is the significance of :NAV+V being displayed?
A. Advisory vertical guidance is provided to the pilot that must be used in lieu of published step down fixes on the instrument approach.
B. Advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the pilot during the descent to the runway.
C. Approved vertical guidance to descent to the decision height is provided to the pilot.
Answer: (B) Advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the pilot during the descent to the runway.
(Navigation)
To correctly use a VOT for a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered with a TO indication and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the:
A. 090 radial
B. 180 radial
C. 360 radial
Answer: (C) 360 radial
(Navigation)
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
A. No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
B. Coded identification, but no navigation indications.
C. A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.
Answer: (A) No coded identification but possible navigation indications
(Navigation)
As part of you GPS preflight planning, RAIM prediction should be verified. This means that:
A. RAIM availability is assured for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your destination.
B. RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your destination.
C. If RAIM is predicted to be available, you must still have ILS capability to use a GPS approach.
Answer: (B) RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your destination.
(Navigation)
Is a hand held GPS authorized for IFR use?
No
(Navigation)
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?
A. A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.
B. A reporting point defined by the intersection of two VOR radials.
C. A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals.
Answer: (A) A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.
(Navigation)
When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between:
A. 5 degrees and 6 degrees
B. 8 and 10 degrees
C. 10 and 12 degrees
Answer: (C) 10 and 12 degrees
(Navigation)
Your avionics system offers advisory VNAV functions, but does not use WAAS or BARO VNAV systems. Which statement is true?
A. You may use your avionics system to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV minimums
B. Your avionics system cannot be used to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV minimums
C. You may use your avionics system to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV and LPV minimums
Answer: (B) Your avionics system cannot be used to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV minimums
(Navigation)
A VOR receiver with normal five dot course sensitivity shows a three dot deflection at 30 NM form the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?
A. 2 NM
B. 3 NM
C. 5 NM
Answer: (B) 3 NM
(Navigation)
For operations off established airways at 17,000’ MSL in the contiguous US (H) class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than?
A. 75 NM
B. 100 NM
C. 200 NM
Answer: (C) 200 NM
(Navigation)
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
A. The VOR and the DME components are operative
B. VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service.
C. The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.
Answer: (C) The DME component is operative and VOR component is inoperative.
(Navigation)
Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?
A. The first flickering of the TO-FROM indicator and the CDI as the station is approached.
B. The first full scale deflection of the CDI
C. The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator
Answer: (C) The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator
(Navigation)
Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle?
A. deflects from left side of the scale to the right side of the scale
B. deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale
C. deflects from half scale left to half scale right
Answer: (B) deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale
(Navigation)
While on a GPS approach, you receive a RAIM annunciation about the status of RAIM reliability. You:
A. execute an immediate missed approach regardless of where you are on the approach path.
B. execute an immediate missed approach only if you are past the FAWP
C. Continue the approach since you have up to 5 minutes of GPS accuracy to complete the approach after you receive the annunciation.
Answer: (A) execute an immediate missed approach regardless of where you are on the approach path.
(Navigation)
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni bearing selector and the OBS indicator should read:
A. Within 4 degrees of the selected radial
B. Within 6 degrees of the selected radial
C. 0 degrees TO, only if you are due south of the VOR
Answer: (B) Within 6 degrees of the selected radial
If no check signal or point is available while in flight, select a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an established VOR airway and maneuver the aircraft directly over a prominent ground point. Note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver. The maximum permissible variation between the published radial and the indicated bearing is +/- 6
(Navigation)
An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?
A. 1 1/2 miles
B. 2 1/2 miles
C. 3 1/2 miles
Answer: (B) 2 1/2 miles
Aircraft displacement from course is approximately 200’ per dot per nautical mile.
(Navigation)
What is the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?
A. Provides optimal routing and altitudes
B. Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized
C. Standard terminal arrival routes and departure procedures are not required
Answer: (A) Provides optimal routing and altitudes
(Navigation)
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot should?
A. Use a navigation or approach system other than GPS for an approach
B. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured
C. Continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF
Answer: (A) Use a navigation or approach system other than GPS for an approach
(Navigation)
How wide is the SDF course?
A. Either 3 or 6 degrees
B. Either 6 or 12 degrees
C. Varies from 5 to 10 degrees
Answer: (B) Either 6 or 12 degrees
(Navigation)
Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?
A. 360 TO and 003 TO, respectively
B. 001 FROM and 005 FROM, respectively
C. 176 TO and 003 FROM, respectively
Answer: (C) 176 TO and 003 FROM, respectively
(Navigation)
When tracking inbound on the localizer, what is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?
Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading correction no greater than 2 degrees.
(Navigation)
What are the main differences between SDF and the localizer of an ILS?
A. the useable off course indication are limited to 35 degrees for the localizer and up to 90 degrees for the SDF.
B. the SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.
C. the course width for the localizer will always be 5 degrees while the SDF course will be between 6 degrees and 12 degrees.
Answer: (B) the SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.
(Navigation)
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?
A. two miles or more for each 1,000’ of altitude above the facility
B. One or more miles for each 1,000’ of altitude above the facility
C. No specific distance is specified since the reception is line of sight.
Answer: (B) One or more miles for each 1,000’ of altitude above the facility
(Navigation)
Describe the typical warning message in a technically advanced aircraft.
Flashing red indication with a repeating tone.
(Navigation)
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A. set the OBS on the 180 plus or minus 4 degrees; the CDI should center with a FROM indication
B. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 degrees of that radial with a FROM indication
C. With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000 degrees, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4 degrees of that radial with a TO indication.
Answer: (B) Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 degrees of that radial with a FROM indication
(Navigation)
If the ILS outer marker is inoperative you may substitute:
A. a compass locator or precision radar
B. VOR radials that identify the location
C. Distant measuring equipment (DME)
Answer: (A) a compass locator or precision radar
(Navigation)
In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoints for a particular airport be found?
A. Aeronautical information manual
B. Enroute low altitude chart
C. Chart supplements US
Answer: (C) Chart supplement US
(Navigation)
What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?
A. the date, place, bearing error, and signature
B. the date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature
C. the date, place, bearing error, aircraft total time, and signature.
Answer: (A) the date, place, bearing error, and signature
in other words: place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature
(Navigation)
When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have:
A. authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics systems
B. a GPS approach that is anticipated to be operational and available at the ETA.
C. an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
Answer: (C) an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
(Navigation)
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and the displayed distance?
A. high altitudes far from the VORTAC
B. high altitude close to the VORTAC
C. low altitudes far from the VORTAC
Answer: (B) high altitudes close to the VORTAC
(Navigation)
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by?
A. removal of the navigational feature
B. broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel
C. removal of the indication feature
Answer: (C) removal of the indication feature
(Navigation)
Changing the default sensitivity on you GPS approach will:
A. deselect the altitude mode
B. deselect the altitude and heading mode
C. disable the GPS annunciator
Answer: (C) disable the GPS annunciator
(Navigation)
How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?
A. IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box
B. LOC/DME are indicated on enroute low altitude frequency box
C. LOC/DME frequencies available in the airman’s information manual
Answer: (A) IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box
(Navigation)
On a GPS approach, the GPS/HSI shows an LNAV/VNAV flag. What should you do?
A. descend to the LNAV MDA missed approach point.
B. follow the glideslope to the LNAV/VNAV DA
C. Execute the missed approach
Answer: (C) Execute the missed approach
(Navigation)
During IFR enroute and terminal operations using an approved GPS for navigation, ground based navigational facilities:
A. are only required during the approach portion of the flight
B. must be operational for the entire route of flight
C. must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage
Answer: (B) must be operational for the entire route of flight
(Navigation)
Where can the VOT frequency be found?
Chart supplement US
(Navigation)
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000’ AGL?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 1.3
Answer: (B) 1
(Navigation)
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
A. the airplane is getting closer to the radial
B. the OBS is erroneously set on the reciprocal heading
C. the airplane is flying away from the radial
Answer: (C) the airplane is flying away from the radial
(Navigation)
You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18000’ MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route the maximum distance between NAVAIDs should be?
A. 40 NM
B. 70 NM
C. 80 NM
Answer: (C) 80 NM
