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Flight Notes > Private Pilot Ground School > Flashcards

Private Pilot Ground School Flashcards

1
Q

Single Pilot Resource Management (SRM)

A

The art of managing all onboard and outside resources available to a pilot before and during a flight to help ensure a safe and successful outcome.

The six pillars of SRM:
1. ADM
2. Risk management
3. Task management
4. Automation management
5. Controlled flight into terrain awareness
6. Situational awareness

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2
Q

Crew Resource Management (CRM)

A

The effective use of all available resources for flight crew personnel to assure a safe and efficient operation, reducing error, avoiding stress and increasing efficiency.

5 elements of crew resource management:
1. Communication
2. Situational awareness
3. Decision making
4. Teamwork
5. Barriers

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3
Q

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)

A

A systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

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4
Q

ADM/Risk Management Process

six point list.

A

Identify hazards
Assess risks
Analyze controls
Make control decisions
Use controls
Monitor results

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5
Q

IMSAFE

A

I : Illness
M : Medication
S : Stress
A : Alcohol
F : Fatigue
E : Emotions
E : Eating

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6
Q

Hazardous Attitudes

A

Macho : Taking chances is foolish.
Invulnerability : It could happen to me.
Resignation : I am not helpless. I can make a difference.
Anti-Authority : Follow the rules. They are usually right.
Impulsivity : Not so fast. Think first.

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7
Q

PAVE

A

P : Pilot
A : Aircraft
V : Environment
E : External Factors

Aircraft: ARROW (required documents to fly)
A. Airworthiness Certificate
R. Registration Certificate
R. Radio Station License
O. Operating Manual
W. Weight and Balance

Pilot: IMSAFE
I. Illness
M. Medication
S. Stress
A. Alcohol
F. Fatigue
E. Emotions
E. Eating

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8
Q

5 P’s for risk evaluation

A

Plan
Plane
Pilot
Passengers
Programming

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9
Q

Do-List

A

A do list and a checklist are very similar both include a physical list that gets referenced. For the do list all the actions occur before referencing the checklist.

In this way the checklist acts as a redundancy.

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10
Q

Flow Pattern

A

A flow pattern is simply a logical pathway across the panel or panels that will guide you to the systems that need reconfiguring for each phase of flight. Each phase of flight will have a different flow pattern.

A flow pattern is a useful tool that can be used to enter a new phase of flight as well as perform routine checks on the aircraft. Essential in emergency procedures.

This type of ‘checklist’ should be used instead of consulting a written list in times that require speed.

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11
Q

Situational Awareness

A

Having an understanding of the current state and dynamics of a system and being able to anticipate future change and developments.

Simply:
Where are you
What are you doing
What should you be doing
What should you do next

The perception of the elements in the environment within a volume of time and space, the comprehension of their meaning and the projection of their status in the near future.

Four basic Elements:
- Extracting information from the environment

-Integrating this information with relevant internal knowledge to create a mental picture of the current situation

-Using this picture to direct further perceptual exploration in a continual perceptual cycle

-Anticipating future events

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12
Q

Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT)

A

occurs when an airworthy aircraft under the complete control of the pilot is inadvertently flown into terrain, water, or an obstacle.

Most CFIT accidents occur in the approach and landing phase of flight and are often associated with non precision approaches.

A loss of situation awareness is a primary cause for CFIT

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13
Q

Two primary purposes of a checklist

A
  • To make sure you don’t forget some critical item during any particular operation.
  • To make the operation redundant.
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14
Q

What is a Checklist/Do-list

A

Two types of checklists:
- Challenge and response checklists.
-Read and do lists

A written list that supports flight crew airmanship and memory and ensure that all required actions are performed without omission and in an orderly manner. (applies to both types of checklists.)

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15
Q

Define: Hazard

A

A real or perceived condition, event, or circumstance that a pilot encounters.

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16
Q

Define: Risk

A

An assessment of the single or cumulative hazard facing a pilot.

however, different pilots see hazards differently.

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17
Q

ATOMATOFLAMES

A

An acronym for the equipment needed on board an aircraft for VFR flight. FAR 91.205

A. Airspeed Indicator
T. Tachometer
O. Oil Pressure Gauge
M. Manifold Pressure Gauge
A. Altimeter
T. Temperature Gauge
O. Oil Temperature Gauge
F. Fuel Gauge
F. Flotation Devices (for flight ops that take the aircraft 50 NM from shore.)
L. Landing Gear Position Indicator
A. Anti-Collision Lights
M. Magnetic Compass
E. Emergency Location Transmitter (ELT)
S. Safety Belts

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18
Q

ATOMATOFLAMES - FLAPS

A

An acronym for the equipment needed on board an aircraft for VFR flight at night. FAR 91.205

F. Fuses
L. Landing Light
A. Anti-collision lights
P. Position lights
S. Source of power

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19
Q

AV1ATES

A

Is a system of reminders on the necessary inspection and maintenance tasks for keeping an aircraft airworthy.

A. Annual Inspection
V. VOR check (30 days)
1. 100 Hour Inspection
A. Airworthiness Directives
T. Transponder Check (24 months)
E. ELT (Inspected every 12, battery replaced at half it lifespan or after one hour of use.)
S. Static System Check

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20
Q

Preflight Actions - FAR 91.103

NWKRAFT

A

Used as a tool that assists pilots in remembering information such as runway lengths, weather conditions, and anything additional needed for their flight plans. Specifics can be found in the FAR/AIM.

N. NOTAMS
W. Weather
K. Known Air Traffic Control Delays
R. Runway Lengths
A. Alternate Airport
F. Fuel
T. Takeoff and Landing Distance

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21
Q

SAFETY

A

The acronym to use for a proper passenger briefing.

S. Seat Belts
A. Air Ventilation
F. Fire Extinguisher
E. Emergency Procedures
T. Air Traffic
Y. Your Questions

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22
Q

ANC

A

A. Aviate
N. Navigate
C. Communicate

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23
Q

5 T’s for Holds

A

T. Twist
T. Turn
T. Time
T. Throttle
T. Talk

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24
Q

DECIDE

A

D. Detect
E. Estimate
C. Choose
I. Identify
D. Do
E. Evaluate

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25
Q

Compass Error
Acceleration: ANDS

A

Accelerate North Decelerate South

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26
Q

Compass Error
Dips: UNOS

A

Undershoot North Overshoot South

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27
Q

Define: Trim Tabs

A

Small secondary flight control surfaces that are attached to the trailing edge of a larger, primary control surface such as an elevator or rudder.

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28
Q

Four forces of flight

A

Weight - Lift
Drag - Thrust

To be in unaccelerated flight all forces must be equal.

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29
Q

Axis of flight

A

Lateral - Pitch - Elevators

Longitudinal - Roll - Ailerons

Vertical - Yaw - Rudder

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30
Q

Define: Axes of Motion

A

Each axis of flight is an imaginary line around which an airplane can turn.

Think of an airplane rotating around an axis like a wheel rotates around an axle.

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31
Q

Rudder

Where is it located on the aircraft?

What is the primary purpose of a rudder?

A

The rudder is located on the tail of the aircraft.

Unlike a boat, however, it is not the primary method of steering. Its main purpose is to counteract the drag caused by the lowered aileron during a turn.

This adverse yaw, as it is known, causes the nose of the airplane to point away, or outwards, from the direction of the turn. The rudder helps to correct this by pushing the nose in the correct direction, maintaining what is known as coordinated flight.

Note: Rudder controls the Yaw of the aircraft.

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32
Q

Aileron/Roll

A

The ailerons are located at the rear of the wing, one on each side.

They work opposite to each other; so when one is raised, the other is lowered. Their job is to increase the lift on one wing while reducing the lift on the other. By doing this, they roll the aircraft sideways, which allows the aircraft to turn.

This is the primary method of steering a fixed wing aircraft.

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33
Q

Elevator/Pitch

Where is it located?

What are the two purposes an elevator serves?

A

The elevator helps elevate the aircraft. It is usually located on the tail of the aircraft and serves two purposes.

the first is to provide stability by producing a downward force on the tail. (Airplanes are traditionally nose heavy and the downward force is required to compensate for that.)

the second is to direct the nose of the aircraft either upwards or downwards, known as pitch, in order to make the airplane climb or descend.

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34
Q

Newtons first law of motion: the law of inertia

A

If a body is at rest or moving at a constant speed in a straight line, it will remain at rest or keep moving in a straight line at constant speed unless it is acted upon by a force.

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35
Q

Newtons second law of motion: force
Hint: Formula

A

Force = Mass(Acceleration)

F=MA

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36
Q

Newtons third law of motion: The law of action and reaction

A

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

If object A exerts a force on object B, object B also exerts an equal and opposite force on object A.

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37
Q

Ground Effect

A

The positive influence on the lifting characteristics of the horizontal surfaces of an aircraft wing when it is close to the ground.

Occurs when an aircraft flies over a surface at an altitude of less than half its wingspan.

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38
Q

Induced Drag

A

Created as a result of lift.

As your wing passes through the air, an area of lower air pressure is formed on top of the wing.

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39
Q

Wingtip Vortices

A

The result of high pressure air seeking equilibrium with the lower pressure air on top of the wing.

High pressure air below the wing creates vortices as it moves to the lower pressure air.

These vortices change the direction and speed of the airflow behind the trailing edge of the wing. The airflow deflects downward, which is called downwash.

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40
Q

Radiation Fog

A

Caused by cooling of the ground, which cools the surrounding air to its dew point.

Common both at night and dawn

This fog tends to burn off when the sun heats up the ground and air.

The best conditions for radiation fog to form are clear skies, little to no wind, and high relative humidity.

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41
Q

Advection Fog

A

Caused by moist air moving over cooler ground or water.

It’s most common along the coast, as sea breeze blows moist air over land.

This type of fog is very common in the pacific northwest, and is usually much more persistent than radiation fog.

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42
Q

Steam Fog

A

Steam fog forms when cold and dry air moves over warm water.

Common during cold weather months.

This type of fog tends to be very low level, affecting seaplane pilots and pilots flying on runways next to the water.

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43
Q

Upslope Fog

A

As moist, stable air moves up along terrain, it cools. This causes upslope fog.

Upslope fog can extend hundreds of feet above surrounding terrain.

44
Q

Precipitation Fog

A

Caused by warm rain falling through cool air.

This fog is dense and long lasting.

Mixed with rain, it can be tough to determine exactly where precipitation fog is and isn’t

45
Q

Freezing Fog

A

Freezing fog occurs when tiny droplets of water are supercooled in the air. Once they contact a surface (or condensation nuclei) the droplets freeze on contact.

It typically needs to be very cold or freezing fog to form, roughly 15 degrees Fahrenheit or colder.

46
Q

What happens when the Critical Angle of Attack is exceeded?

A

The velocity of the relative wind does not matter.

The airfoil will always stall when the critical AOA is reached.

It’s where the airflow separates from the wing causing lift to be degraded, can be exceeded in any attitude, and even at different airspeeds if there is more or less than 1 G on the airplane.

The airplane can even stall with the nose pitched below the horizon.

47
Q

Angle of Attack

A

Defined as the angle between the chord of an airfoil and the relative wind.

48
Q

Flight Path Angle

A

The angle between the flight path vector and the horizon.

Also the climb or descent angle.

49
Q

Pitch

A

The up or down attitude of the nose or wing.

50
Q

Flight Path

A

Is where the airplane is going.

The trajectory

51
Q

Skin Friction Drag

A

drag caused by the friction of a fluid against the surface of an object that is moving through it.

Directly proportional to the area of the surface in contact with the fluid and increases with the square of the velocity.

In aerodynamics the fluid is the atmosphere.

52
Q

Form Drag

A

The portion of the resisting force encountered by a body moving through a fluid that is due to the irregularity of shape of the body.

53
Q

Camber

A

A measure of the curvature of the airfoil.

54
Q

Chord Line

A

an imaginary straight line joining the leading edge and the trailing edge of an aerofoil.

55
Q

Relative Wind

A

The airflow relative to an airfoil and is created by movement of an airfoil through the air.

56
Q

Downwash

A

the air that is deflected by flowing around an airfoil

Created as a byproduct of the production of lift.

57
Q

Necessary Documents: CLIMB

A

C: Certificate
L: Logbook
I: ID
M: Medical
B: Biannual Flight Review

58
Q

Aircraft Airworthiness - Inspections Acronym

THEAA (VFR)

A

T: Transponder (24 Months) 91.413
H: Hundred Hour (For Hire) 91.409
E: ELT (12 Cal. Months) 91.207
A: Airworthiness Directives
A: Annual (12 Cal Months) Completed by IA.

IA= Inspector of Aircrafts

59
Q

Aircraft Airworthiness - Inspections Acronym

VIP (IFR)

A

V: VOR Check (30 days prior) 91.171
I: Instrument: Altimeter (24 Cal Months) 91.411
P: Pitot/Static (24 Cal Months) 91.411

60
Q

What should a pilot do if something is inoperative?

A

Placard and disable per 91.213 and 43.11

61
Q

What is an Alternate when it comes to flight planning?

A

Another airport that can be used in case the original destination is unreachable or otherwise less desirable.

62
Q

Fuel Requirements: 91.151

A

Simple Version:
VFR Day: A to B + 30 mins (FAA) + 10 mins (SUU)

VFR Night: A to B + 45 mins (FAA) + 10 mins (SUU)

No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing.

During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.

or at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

63
Q

How long is a METAR valid for?

A

Valid until next issued

64
Q

What area does a METAR cover?

A

Airport traffic area

65
Q

How often is a METAR issued?

A

Issued 50 to 55 minutes after the hour

66
Q

What is a TAF?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

Issued 4 times daily (0000z 0600z 1200z 1800z)

Covers only 5 Statute Miles around the airport traffic area

67
Q

How Long is a TAF valid for?

A

24 Hours.

68
Q

what is a rapid loss of lift?

A

A rapid loss of lift is a stall.

69
Q

what is the front end of an airfoil called?

A

Leading Edge

70
Q

What is the back end of an airfoil called?

A

Trailing Edge

71
Q

The straight line that can be traced from the leading edge to the trailing edge is called?

A

Chord Line

72
Q

What two things make up total wind?

A

Propwash and the relative wind.

73
Q

Define the Angle of Attack or AOA

A

The angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and the chord line.

74
Q

How to cause a stall?

A

Exceed the critical angle of attack.

75
Q

What is laminar air flow?

A

the smooth orderly movement of a fluid in parallel layers with minimal mixing between layers.

The air that flows over wings/Airfoils needs to be smooth to maintain that laminar flow.

Boundary layer separation occurs when the laminar flow is disrupted. Most commonly through stalling.

76
Q

what is a spin?

A

A spin is a aggravated stall where yaw is introduced which causes a downward corkscrew path.

77
Q

Can one wing stall more than another wing?

A

Yes.

This occurs during uncoordinated flight.

78
Q

How to slip in a turn?

A

Turn rate is faster than the bank angle, causing the inside wing to generate more lift and yaw the nose inside the turn.

Correction: increase the rate of turn or decrease the bank angle to correct the slipping tendency.

79
Q

How to skid in a turn?

A

Turn rate is slower than the bank angle, causing the outside wing to generate more lift and yaw the nose outside the turn.

Decrease the rate of turn or increase the bank angle to correct the skidding tendency.

80
Q

What is coordinated flight?

A

flight without slipping or skidding.

To maintain coordinated flight, a blended mix of rudder, elevator, and ailerons are needed.

81
Q

If the CG is too far forward?

A

The pilot may not have enough elevator authority when landing.

82
Q

If the CG is too far aft?

A

The pilot may not have enough rudder authority to recover from a spin.

As well the aircraft will be less stable at all speeds.

83
Q

What is empty weight made up of?

A

-Airframe
-Engine
-All fixed equipment
-Unusable fuel and undrainable oil

Note: Some aircraft manufacturers include all oil in the aircraft empty weight.

84
Q

The useful load includes?

A

-Pilot
-Passengers
-Baggage
-Fuel and Oil

85
Q

How to calculate takeoff weight

A

Takeoff weight is the empty weight plus the useful load.

86
Q

How to calculate the landing weight

A

The landing weight is the takeoff weight minus any fuel used.

87
Q

What is the standard weight of a person?

A

170 pounds

88
Q

What is the elevation of Cedar City airport? Field elevation.

A

5,622 feet

89
Q

Types of Altitude:
Indicated

A

What you read on the altimeter when it is correctly adjusted to show approximate height above mean sea level.

90
Q

Types of Altitude:
Calibrated

A

Indicated altitude corrected to compensate for instrument error.

91
Q

Types of Altitude:
Pressure

A

Displayed when altimeter is set to standard sea level. (29.92)

Vertical distance above standard datum plane.

92
Q

Types of Altitude:
Density

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

Used to determine aircraft performance.
High temp worsens performance
Low temp increases performance

93
Q

Types of Altitude:
True

A

Actual height above mean sea level.

Used on sectional charts

94
Q

Types of Altitude:
Absolute

A

Actual height above the earth’s surface.

95
Q

What is the acronym for standard temp?

A

ISA

International Standard Atmosphere

Sea level: 29.92 Temp.: 15C/59F

96
Q

What three factors make performance worse?

A

Heat
Height
Humidity

Each of these factors make air less dense. The less dense air is the less oxygen and air molecules there are relatively.

Less air for the engine means less power and less air for the wings means less lift.

96
Q

What is the rate of temperature loss for every 1,000 feet gained in altitude?

A

-2 degrees Celsius is lost for every 1,000 feet of altitude gained.

97
Q

What is the composition of the atmosphere?

A

78% Nitrogen
21% Oxygen
1% Trace gasses

98
Q

What temperature is high pressure?

A

Cold

99
Q

What temperature is low pressure?

A

Hot

100
Q

How high does the Troposphere extend?

A

From the surface of the earth to: 36,000 feet

101
Q

What is a temperature inversion?

A

A layer in the atmosphere where temperature increases with height instead of decreasing with height as it usually does.

102
Q

Temperature Inversions:
Ground or radiation inversion

A

The temperature inverses when the air near the ground is cooled off more rapidly than the layer above it.

103
Q

Temperature Inversions:
Turbulence or Vertical Advection

A

Turbulence inversion happens when stagnant air lids turbulent air. The turbulent layer transports heat downwards, cooling its upper layer (Vertical Mixing). But the layer of static air is unmixed and thus it’s warmer than below.

104
Q

Temperature Inversions:
Subsidence Inversion

A

When a significant layer of air descends due to high pressure, it warms up rapidly, and the air at lower altitudes remains colder.

105
Q
A

Flight Notes (8 decks)

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