Instrument Ground School

Question 1

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is?

1. Deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
2. Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
3. Ability to resist precession 90 degrees to any applied force.

Answer 1

Answer: (2.) resistance to the deflection of the spinning wheel or disc

Explanation:
Any rotating body exhibits gyroscopic properties according to Newton’s laws of motion. The first law states: a body at rest will remain at rest; or if in motion in a straight line, it will continue in motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an outside force. The second law states: the deflection of a moving body is proportional to the deflective force applied and is inversely proportional to its weight and speed. A gyro is a wheel or disc designed to utilize these principles.

Question 2

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates?

1. Pressure altitude at field elevation.
2. True altitude at field elevation.
3. Pressure altitude at sea level.

Answer 2

Answer: (2) True altitude at field elevation.

Explanation:
The altimeter setting broadcast by each Flight Service Station is a computed correction for nonstandard surface pressure only, for a specific location and elevation. Consequently, altimeter indications based upon a local altimeter setting indicate true altitude at field elevation.

Question 3

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant?

1. The horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane.
2. A zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.
3. The altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

Answer 3

Answer: (3) The altimeter and airspeed indicator needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

Question 4

Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-and-slip indicator to determine if the?

1. needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.
2. ball will move freely from one end of the tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.
3. needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon.

Answer 4

Answer: (1) needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.

Question 5

If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?

1. 1 minute.
2. 1 minute 20 seconds.
3. 1 minute 30 seconds.

Answer 5

Answer: (3) 1 minute and 30 seconds

Explanation:
A standard rate turn is one during which the heading changes 3° per second. In this case, the aircraft is turning one-half that rate, or 1.5° per second. Therefore, a turn of 135° would require 135/1.5 or 90 seconds (1 minute 30 seconds).

Question 6

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

1. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
2. The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
3. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

Answer 6

Answer: (3) The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

When you are on a east or west heading, the compass indicates correctly as you start a turn in either direction.

Question 7

What force causes an airplane to turn?

Answer 7

Horizontal lift component.

An aircraft requires a sideward force to make it turn. In a normal turn, this force is supplied by banking the aircraft so that lift is exerted inward as well as upward. The horizontal lift component is the sideward force that causes the aircraft to turn.

Question 8

What CAS must be used to maintain a filed TAS of 180 knots at 12,000 MSL if the outside air temperature is +5 degrees C?

1. 154 KCAS.
2. 147 KCAS.
3. 150 KCAS.

Answer 8

147 KCAS.

Question 9

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090° to a heading of 300°?

1. 40 seconds.
2. 30 seconds.
3. 50 seconds.

Answer 9

50 seconds

Question 10

During flight if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?

Answer 10

airspeed indicator only

Question 11

What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

1. Power control.
2. Instrument cross-check.
3. Aircraft control.

Answer 11

Aircraft control.

The three fundamental skills involved in all instrument flight maneuvers are: 1. Instrument cross-check. 2. Instrument interpretation. 3. Aircraft control.

Question 12

What CAS must be used to maintain a filed TAS of 160 knots at 11,000 MSL if the outside air temperature is +5 degrees C?

1. 129 KCAS.
2. 139 KCAS.
3. 133 KCAS.

Answer 12

Answer: 133 KCAS

Question 13

The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to?

1. complacency.
2. resignation.
3. fatigue.

Answer 13

Answer: complacency

Question 14

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

1. The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative.
2. The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative.
3. The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.

Answer 14

Answer: the vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.

Explanation:
If the alternate static source is vented inside the airplane, where static pressure is usually lower than outside static pressure, selection of the alternate source may result in the following instrument indications: 1. The altimeter reads higher than normal; 2. Indicated airspeed greater than normal; and 3. The vertical-velocity indicator momentarily shows a climb.

Question 15

(Refer to Figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ‘E’ correspond?

1. 15
2. 5
3. 6

Answer 15

Answer: 6

Explanation:
HSI Indicator ‘E’ has a course selection of 360°, and the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the course arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the station, and is north of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar is to the left, which means the aircraft is east of R-000. The aircraft heading is 360°, which describes aircraft 6. See the figure.

Question 16

(Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation ‘B’ correspond?

1. 5 and 13.
2. 11
3. 7 and 11.

Answer 16

Answer: 5 and 13

Question 17

When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between?

1. 5° and 6°.
2. 10° and 12°.
3. 8° and 10°

Answer 17

Answer: 10 and 12

Explanation:
Course sensitivity may be checked by noting the number of degrees of change in the course selected as you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side. This should be between 10° and 12°.

Question 18

In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?

1. Airport/Facility Directory.
2. Aeronautical Information Manual.
3. En Route Low Altitude Chart.

Answer 18

Answer: Airport/Facility Directory

Explanation:
A list of VOR receiver check points and VOR Test Facilities (VOT) can be found in the back of the Airport/Facility Directory.

Question 19

What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?

1. The useable off-course indications are limited to 35° for the localizer and up to 90° for the SDF.
2. The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.
3. The course width for the localizer will always be 5° while the SDF course will be between 6° and 12°.

Answer 19

Answer: the SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.

Explanation:
The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider than an ILS localizer course. The ILS localizer course width varies between 3° and 6° and is tailored to provide 700 feet at the threshold (full-scale limits).

Question 20

(Refer to Figure 111.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

1. Southeast.
2. Northeast.
3. Northwest.

Answer 20

Answer: Northwest

Explanation:
The course selected is 360° and the TO/FROM indicator is pointing away from the course, which means the aircraft is north of the course. The CDI needle is deflected to the right, which means the aircraft is left (or west) of course. Therefore, the aircraft is northwest of the VORTAC. See the figure.

Question 21

(Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ‘I’ correspond?

1. 4
2. 11
3. 12

Answer 21

Answer: 11

Explanation:
HSI Indicator ‘I’ is set up with the head of the arrow pointing to 090°. The aircraft is to the north of the extended centerline on a heading of 270°. The CDI is using reverse sensing, so position #7 or #11 would be appropriate. See the figure.

Question 22

(Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ‘H’ correspond?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 8

Answer 22

Answer: 1

Explanation:
HSI Indicator ‘H’ is set up with the head of the arrow pointing to 270°. The CDI is deflected to the left, so the aircraft is to the north on a heading of 215°. Position #1 is the only position corresponding to the CDI presentation. See the figure.

Question 23

Your avionics system offers advisory VNAV functions, but does not use WAAS or baro-VNAV systems. Which statement is true?

1. You may use your avionics system to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV minimums.
2. Your avionics system cannot be used to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV minimums.
3. You may use your avionics system to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV and LPV minimums.

Answer 23

Answer: Your avionics system cannot be used to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV minimums.

Question 24

(Refer to Figures 139 and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated?

1. 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope.
2. 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide slope.
3. 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide slope.

Answer 24

Answer:
1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope.

Explanation:
With the CDI two dots to the right, we are to the left of course, and according to FAA Figure 139, at the 5.6 NM location 1,550 feet to the left of course. The glide slope indication is one dot below the glide slope and at the 5.6 NM mark, that would put you 210 feet below the glide slope.

Question 25

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL240?

1. Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made.
2. Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed.
3. Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

Answer 25

Answer: Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

Question 26

A flight is to be conducted in VFR-On-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

1. 3 miles; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal; 1,000 feet below.
2. 5 miles; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.
3. 5 miles; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal; 1,000 feet below.

Answer 26

5 miles; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal; 1,000 feet below.

Question 27

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category of aircraft: six instrument approaches,

1. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.
2. holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.
3. and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.

Answer 27

holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.

Explanation:
To act as pilot-in-command under IFR, a pilot must have logged, in the past 6 calendar months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in the appropriate category of aircraft for the instrument privileges sought.

Question 28

In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue

1. by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
2. the flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.
3. the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.

Answer 28

the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.

Explanation:
If a two-way radio communication failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

Question 29

Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?

1. Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.
2. Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.
3. The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation.

Answer 29

Answer: Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.

Question 30

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

1. 1 mile; 2,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.
2. 1 mile; clear of clouds/
3. 3 miles; clear of clouds.

Answer 30

Answer: 1 mile; clear of clouds

Question 31

What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?

1. At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.
2. At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown.
3. The approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.

Answer 31

Answer: the approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.

Explanation:
The minimum conditions necessary for the instrument approaches is to complete 6 within the past 6 months, to be completed in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.

Question 32

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during daylight hours?

1. 1 mile; 500 feet above; 1,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.
2. 1 mile; clear of clouds.
3. 3 miles; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.

Answer 32

1 mile; clear of clouds.

Question 33

Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least

1. a slip-skid indicator.
2. distance measuring equipment.
3. dual VOR receivers.

Answer 33

a slip-skid indicator.

Explanation:
For IFR flight, the following instruments and equipment are required: 1. Instruments and equipment specified for VFR flight (and those required for night flight, if applicable). 2. Two-way radio communications system and navigational equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used. 3. Gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator (with certain exceptions). 4. Slip-skid indicator. 5. Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure. 6. A clock displaying hours, minutes and seconds with a sweep-second pointer or digital presentation. 7. Generator or alternator of adequate capacity. 8. Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon). 9. Gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent).

Question 34

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?

1. The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.
2. The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
3. That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.

Answer 34

The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

Explanation:
The commercial pilot applicant must hold an instrument rating (airplane), or the Commercial Pilot Certificate that is issued is endorsed with a limitation prohibiting the carriage of passengers for hire in airplanes on cross-country flights of more than 50 NM, or at night.

Question 35

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?

1. 230 knots.
2. 200 knots.
3. 265 knots

Answer 35

265

Question 36

(Refer to Figure 47.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is

1. 6,400 feet.
2. 7,000 feet.
3. 6,500 feet.

Answer 36

6500’

Question 37

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately

-30 percent of the vertical speed.

-10 percent of the vertical speed.

-50 percent of the vertical speed.

Answer 37

10% of the vertical speed

Explanation:
The level-off from a descent at descent airspeed must be started before you reach the desired altitude. The amount of lead depends upon the rate of descent and control technique. With too little lead, you will tend to overshoot the selected altitude, unless your technique is rapid. An effective practice is to lead the altitude by 10 percent of the vertical speed shown. Assuming a 500-fpm rate of descent, lead the desired altitude by approximately 50 feet.

Question 38

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

-Centrifugal force acting on the compass card.

-The magnetic dip characteristic.

-Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes.

Answer 38

Magnetic dip characteristic

Explanation:
Northerly turning error is the most pronounced of the dip errors. Due to the mounting of the magnetic compass, its center of gravity is below the pivot point on the pedestal and the card is well balanced in the fluid. When the aircraft is banked, the card is also banked as a result of centrifugal force. While the card is in the banked attitude, the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field causes the north-seeking ends of the compass to dip to the low side of the turn, giving an erroneous turn indication.

Question 39

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

-The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

-The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

-The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

Answer 39

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

Explanation:
If on a southerly heading and a turn is made toward the east or west, the initial indication of the compass needle will indicate a greater amount of turn than is actually made. This lead diminishes as the turn progresses toward east or west where there is no turn error.

Question 40

The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for?

-more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.

-the cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.

-better vertical separation of aircraft.

Answer 40

Better vertical separation of aircraft.

Question 41

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will?

-decrease as the ground speed increases.

-remain the same regardless of ground speed.

-increase as the ground speed increases

Answer 41

Increase as the ground speed increases

Explanation:
The vertical speed required is dependent on the ground speed when flying on a fixed glide slope. For example, in order to stay on the glide slope, the vertical speed must be increased if the ground speed is increased.

Question 42

The primary flight display (PFD) receives attitude and heading data from the?

-vacuum system.

-pitot-static system.

-AHRS.

Answer 42

AHRS

Explanation:
The Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) is the engine that drives the attitude display. The AHRS unit is capable of precisely tracking minute changes in the pitch, bank, and yaw axes, thereby making the PFD very accurate and reliable.

Question 43

Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?

-Altimeter and VSI.

-Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.

-Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.

Answer 43

Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.

Question 44

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?

-Pitch controls, power control, and trim control.

-Attitude control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.

-Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

Answer 44

Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

Explanation:
During attitude instrument training, a pilot must develop three fundamental skills involved in all instrument flight maneuvers: 1. Instrument cross-check. 2. Instrument interpretation. 3. Aircraft control.

Question 45

If you need to use an alternate static source during level flight, you can expect to see?

-a lower indicated airspeed.

-a momentary descent on the VSI.

-a higher indication on the altimeter.

Answer 45

a higher indication on the altimeter.

Explanation:
If the alternate static source is vented inside the airplane, where static pressure is usually lower than outside static pressure, selection of the alternate source may result in the following instrument indications: 1. The altimeter reads higher than normal; 2. Indicated airspeed greater than normal; and 3. The vertical-velocity indicator momentarily shows a climb.

Question 46

The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will?

-remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.

-increase as angle of bank increases.

-indicate the angle of bank.

Answer 46

increase as angle of bank increases.

Explanation:
The miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator displays only rate-of-roll and rate-of-turn. It does not directly display the bank angle of the aircraft. The displacement of a turn coordinator increases as angle of bank increases.

Question 47

What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

-The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.

-The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.

-The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.

Answer 47

The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.

Question 48

If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?

-1 minute.

-1 minute 20 seconds.

-1 minute 30 seconds.

Answer 48

1 minute 30 seconds.

Explanation:
A standard rate turn is one during which the heading changes 3° per second. In this case, the aircraft is turning one-half that rate, or 1.5° per second. Therefore, a turn of 135° would require 135/1.5 or 90 seconds (1 minute 30 seconds).

Question 49

Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

-Slant range distance in NM.

-Slant range distance in SM.

-Line-of-sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.

Answer 49

Slant range distance in NM.

Question 50

(Refer to Figures 139 and 140.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?

-430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.

-710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope.

-710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.

Answer 50

710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.

Question 51

Your onboard GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit is IFR certified under TSO-C129 or TSO-C196. Your destination is below minimums for the GPS RNAV approach and you proceed to your filed alternate. You know that?

-if your aircraft is equipped with a second TSO-C129 certified GPS as a backup in place of a ground-based NAVAID receiver, you may complete the approach even if the IAP is based on ground-based NAVAIDS.

-GPS units certified under TSO-C129 are not authorized for alternate approach requirements; subsequently, you must use an approach procedure based on ground based NAVAIDS.

-once diverted to the alternate airport, you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup.

Answer 51

once diverted to the alternate airport, you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup.

Explanation:
Any required alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure other than GPS, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival and which the aircraft is equipped to fly.

Question 52

Changing the default sensitivity on your GPS approach will?

-deselect the altitude mode.

-disable the GPS annunciator.

-deselect the altitude and heading mode.

Answer 52

disable the GPS annunciator.

Question 53

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?

-176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.

-001° FROM and 005° FROM, respectively.

-360° TO and 003° TO, respectively.

Answer 53

176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.

Explanation:
To test for VOR receiver accuracy center the CDI needle. The omnibearing selector should read 0° with the TO/FROM flag showing FROM and 180° with the flag showing TO. The allowable bearing error is ±4°. Therefore, a 176° TO indication for one of the VOR receivers and a 003° FROM for the other VOR is an acceptable combination.

Question 54

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?

-4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR.

-6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.

-Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.

Answer 54

4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR.

Explanation:
If dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the pilot shall tune both systems to the same VOR ground facility and note the indicated bearings TO that station. The maximum permissible variation between the two indicated radials is 4° on the ground or in the air.

Question 55

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

-VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service.

-The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.

-The VOR and DME components are operative.

Answer 55

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.

Explanation:
VOR/DME, VORTAC, ILS/DME, and LOC/DME facilities are identified by synchronized identifications which are transmitted on a time-share basis. When either the VOR or the DME is inoperative, it is important to recognize which identifier is retained for the operative facility. A single-coded identification with a repetition interval of approximately 30 seconds indicates that the DME is operative.

Question 56

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off-airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?

-1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.

-1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course.

-2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.

Answer 56

1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.

Question 57

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?

-Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots.

-Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.

-The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.

Answer 57

The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.

Explanation:
In darkness, vision becomes more sensitive to light through a process called dark adaptation. Since any degree of dark adaptation is lost within a few seconds of viewing a bright light, the pilot should avoid it, or close one eye when using white light.

Question 58

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during daylight hours?

-3 miles; 1,000 feet above;
2,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.

-1 mile; clear of clouds.

-1 mile; 500 feet above; 1,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.

Answer 58

1 mile; clear of clouds.

Question 59

How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft? Within the previous 6 calendar months, logged

-6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

-six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved.

-six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems.

Answer 59

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems.

Question 60

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of?

-being in a noseup attitude.

-diving into the ground.

-spinning in the opposite direction.

Answer 60

being in a noseup attitude.

Question 61

Where is DME required under IFR?

-Above 18,000 feet MSL.

-In positive control airspace.

-At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

Answer 61

At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

Question 62

Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by?

-January 5, 2 years hence.

-January 31, 2 years hence.

-January 5, next year

Answer 62

January 31, 2 years hence.

Question 63

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?

-Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

-All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.

-Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.

Answer 63

Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.

Question 64

A flight is to be conducted in VFR-On-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

-5 miles; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.

-5 miles; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal; 1,000 feet below.

-3 miles; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal; 1,000 feet below.

Answer 64

5 miles; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal; 1,000 feet below.