SM_22b: Oral Cavity / Oropharynx Flashcards

1
Q

Person reports a history of wearing glasses for vision deficit, cataracts, hearing loss, and joint hyperflexibility and has a child with cleft palate. This person has ____ syndrome

A

Person reports a history of wearing glasses for vision deficit, cataracts, hearing loss, and joint hyperflexibility and has a child with cleft palate. This person has Stickler syndrome.

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2
Q

Environmental risk factors for cleft lip and palate are ____, ____, and ____

A

Environmental risk factors for cleft lip and palate are maternal medication ingestion, exposures, and maternal disease

  • Anticonvulsant medication
  • Medications derived from retinoic acid
  • Folic acid antagonists / deficiency
  • Corticosteroids
  • Tobacco / alcohol ingestion
  • Maternal diabetes
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3
Q

Cleft lip and palate have ____ and ____ risk factors

A

Cleft lip and palate have environmental and genetic risk factors

  • Association with syndromes: 30% of cleft lip ± palate and 50% of cleft palate alone
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4
Q

Stickler syndrome involves ____ and ____

A

Stickler syndrome involves cleft lip / palate and ocular abnormalities

  • Ocular abnormalities: myopia, glaucoma, cataracts, retinal detachment (higher chance with some types)
  • Hearing loss
  • Defects in collagen genes
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5
Q

Van der Woude Syndrome involves ____ and ____

A

Van der Woude Syndrome involves lip / palate and lip pits

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6
Q

22q11 deletion syndrome is ____, and DiGeorge syndrome involves ____, ____, and ____

A

22q11 deletion syndrome is autosomal dominant, and DiGeorge syndrome involves absent thymus (immunodeficiency), hypocalcemia, and cardiac defects

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7
Q

Goldenhar Syndrome (hemifacial microsmia) results from ____ and commonly presents with ____ and ____

A

Goldenhar Syndrome (hemifacial microsmia) results from abnormal unilateral craniofacial development of 1st and 2nd branchial arch derivatives and commonly presents with auricular (middle / inner ear) abnormalities and cervical vertebral anomalies

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8
Q

CHARGE syndrome commonly presents with ____ and ____

A

CHARGE syndrome commonly presents with cleft palate and linear antihelical fold

  • CHARGE: coloboma, heart defects, choanal atresia (nasopharynx), retarded CNS development, genitourinary abnormalities, and ear anomalies
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9
Q

Pierre Robin Sequence involves ____ and ____ and primarily presents as ____

A

Pierre Robin Sequence involves hypoplasia and retrognathia and primarily presents as airway distress in infancy

  • Initiating insult: mandibular hypoplasia -> displacement of tongue superiorly -> abnormal palate development (clefting)
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10
Q

An 83 year old male hospitalized for dehydrattion develops unilateral parotid swelling and tenderness. You express purulence from the parotid duct. Most likely etiology of his parotitis is ____

A

An 83 year old male hospitalized for dehydrattion develops unilateral parotid swelling and tenderness. You express purulence from the parotid duct. Most likely etiology of his parotitis is infectious

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11
Q

Infectious sialadenitis results from ____ and ____ is a common risk factor in the elderly

A

Infectious sialadenitis results from stasis of secretions in duct and dehydration is a common risk factor in the elderly

  • Other risk factors are postoperative, radiation / chemo, Sjogren’s
  • Swelling of gland (ear proptosis if parotitis), warmth, erythema, tenderness, purulence at salivary duct
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12
Q

Mumps presents as ____, ____, ____, ____, ____, and ____ and is common in ____

A

Mumps presents as parotid swelling, orchitis, fever, malaise, headache, abdominal pain and is common on college campuses

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13
Q

Autoimmune sialadenitis includes ____ and ____

A

Autoimmune sialadenitis includes uveoparotid fever (Heerfordt’s syndrome) and Sjogren’s syndrome

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14
Q

Uveoparotid fever (Heerfordt’s syndrome) presents with ____, ____, ____, ____, and ____

A

Uveoparotid fever (Heerfordt’s syndrome) presents with uveitis, parotid enlargement, facial nerve dysfunction in 50%, sensorineural hearing loss, and fever

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15
Q

Post-obstructive sialadenitis most commonly results from ____ stones

A

Post-obstructive sialadenitis most commonly results from submandibular stones

  • Higher incidence in gout and smoking
  • 90% of submandibular stones appear on imaging
  • 90% of parotid stones DO NOT appear on imaging
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16
Q

90% of ____ stones appear on imaging

A

90% of submandibular stones appear on imaging

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17
Q

90% of ____ stones DO NOT appear on imaging

A

90% of parotid stones DO NOT appear on imaging

18
Q

Post-radiation salivary gland fibrosis occurs in at around ____ Gy exposure and can result in significant ____

A

Post-radiation salivary gland fibrosis occurs in at around 40-50 Gy exposure and can result in significant xerostomia (dry mouth)

(treatment is hydration and oral lubricants)

19
Q

Pediatric obstructive sleep apnea is most commonly caused by ____

A

Pediatric obstructive sleep apnea is most commonly caused by hypertrophy of tonsils (palatine) and adenoids (in nasopharynx)

(sometimes lingual tonsils)

20
Q

Pediatric obstructive sleep apnea is characterized by ____, ____, ____, ____, ____, and ____

A

Pediatric obstructive sleep apnea is characterized by increased systemic inflammation, insulin resistance, hypertension, increased cardiac load, attention deficit disorders, and behavior issues

21
Q

Adult obstructive sleep apnea is most commonly caused by ____

A

Adult obstructive sleep apnea is most commonly caused by obesity

22
Q

A 27 year old woman presents to your clinic with this color change. You would refer her to ____

A

A 27 year old woman presents to your clinic with this color change. You would refer her to Gastroenterology to rule out Puetz-Jeghers syndrome and gastrointestinal polyps

23
Q

Oral cavity lesions can be categorized as ____, ____, or ____

A

Oral cavity lesions can be categorized as benign pigmented, infectious, or autoimmune / systemic

24
Q

Focal white lesions on the tongue are ____

A

Focal white lesions on the tongue are leukoplakia (benign pigmented)

  • 5-20% chance of premalignancy or malignancy
  • Consider malignant etiology especially with history of tobacco, betel nut, alcohol use
  • Can be due to local trauma (ill fitting dentures or appliances)
25
Q

Focal red lesions on the tongue are ____

A

Focal red lesions on the tongue are erythroplakia (benign pigmented)

  • 25% chance of malignancy
26
Q

Anemia can manifest on the tongue as a ____ lesion

A

Anemia can manifest on the tongue as a benign pigmented lesion

27
Q

Bismuth intoxication is ____

A

Bismuth intoxication is benign pigmented

  • Commonly used to treat dyspepsia and gastritis
28
Q

Lead intoxication is ____

A

Lead intoxication is benign pigmented

29
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is associated with ____ and ____

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is associated with gastrointestinal polyposis and increased risk of malignancy

(benign pigmented)

30
Q

Black hairy tongue involves ____ and occurs due to ____, ____, and ____

A

Black hairy tongue involves elongated filiform papillae and occurs due to smoking, immunocompromise, and poor oral hygeine (benign pigmented)

31
Q

Telangiectasia presents as ____ or ____

A

Telangiectasia presents as telangiectasias (capillary dilations) or arteriovenous malformation in respiratory tract, GI tract, brain and CNS, or liver

  • Benign pigmented
  • Epistaxis (nosebleeds), subclinical GI bleeds (resulting in anemia), hypoxemia, hemoptysis
32
Q

Addison’s Disease involves ____

A

Addison’s Disease involves hyperpigmentation

33
Q

Herpetic gingivostomatitis presents as ____, ____, ____, and ____ in primary infection and ____ in secondary infection

A

Herpetic gingivostomatitis presents as fever, malaise, anorexia and cervical adenopathy in primary infection and reactivation within trigeminal ganglion in secondary infection

  • Reactivation triggered by UV light, pregnancy, stress, immunosuppression, trauma, surgery
  • Treat with acyclovir and valacyclovir for prophylaxis in immunocompromised and acute treatment
34
Q

Oral candidiasis results from ____, ____, ____, ____, and ____

A

Oral candidiasis results from long-term antibiotics, immunosuppression, local or systemic corticosteroids, radiation and chemotherapy, local irritation, and young / old age

35
Q

____ and ____ branch at 90 degrees

A

Mucor and Candida branch at 90 degrees

36
Q

____ branches at 45 degrees

A

Aspergillus branches at 45 degrees

37
Q

Squamous papilloma due to HPV is the ____ of the oral cavity and is ____ and ____

A

Squamous papilloma due to HPV is the most common benign lesion of the oral cavity and is well demarcated and painless

38
Q

Syphilis is the ____

A

Syphilis is the great imitator (can be primary, secondary, or tertiary syphilis)

39
Q

Autoimmune causes of oral cavity lesions include ____, ____, ____, and ____

A

Autoimmune causes of oral cavity lesions include erythema multiforme, Stevens Johnson syndrome, lichen planus, and pemphigoid lesions

40
Q

Behcet’s Disease is an ____ that presents with ____ associated with ____ and ____

A

Behcet’s Disease is an idiopathic vasculitis involving large and small vessels that presents with recurrent painful aphthous ulcers associated with genital ulcers and ocular inflammation