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AIMS > Simulation 11_2023 > Flashcards

Simulation 11_2023 Flashcards

1
Q

SIADH is caused by?

A

Caused by: increased ADH secretion by neurohypophysis or ectopic areas. Ectopic secretion is more common, coming from neoplasias.
- Drugs liks: morphine, carbamazepine, haloperidol, TCA, SSRI, cancer drugs

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2
Q

Endopthalmitis is? Presents with? Is most frequently the subtype

A

It is a bacterial or fungal infection of the eye, particularly of the vitreous.
Presents with conjunctival, corneal edema, hypopyon, decreased vision and pain.
Most frequent subtype is exogenous post-op. (within 6 weeks of surgery)

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3
Q

what muscles are involved in polymyositis and dermatomyositis?

A

acute or subacute, symmetrical and diffuse muscular weakness, with a preference for the proximal muscles of the extremities (pelvic and shoulder girdle) of the trunk and neck.
In severe cases; dysphagia dur to esophagus and pharynx involvement

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4
Q

T/F polymyositis or dermatomyositis can be associated with neoplasia?

A

T
lung, ovarian, breast, GI and myeloproliferative

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5
Q

What are complication of sinusitis?

A

Meningitis
Subdural empyema
cervenous sinus thrombosis

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6
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ezetimibe

A

It inhibits the NPC1L1 protein.
Ezetimibe, a drug used in dyslipidemia, inhibits the absorption of exogenous cholesterol in a specific manner by inhibiting the NPC1L1 protein present at the apical level of enterocytes.

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7
Q

Examples of phosphorus chelators

A

sevelamer carbonate (Renvela©)
Magnesium hydroxide + aluminum hydroxide, more commonly known by the name of Maalox©
Sucroferric oxy-hydroxide (Velphoro©)
Ferric citrate (Fexeric©)

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8
Q

What is the Sarin classification

A

used for the description of esophageal varices

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9
Q

What pathological condition are the Dallas criteria diagnostic of?

A

acute myocarditis - is anatomic/pathological staging following endomyocardial biopsy

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10
Q

What is a long term complication of hemodialysis?

A

amyloidosis: bc accumulation of B proteins that common filters don’t remove
immunosuppression
CV death: is the leading cause of death in dialysis pts
Sarcopenia

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11
Q

T/F In the vast majority of cases, small perforations of the tympanic membrane heal spontaneously,

A

T

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12
Q

What are the most frequent fracture locations in the case of osteoporosis in the spine

A

The last dorsals D8-12 and the first lumbar L1-3.

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13
Q

Stewart-Treves syndrome

A

Is angiosarcoma arising on lymphedema.
Most common on women post lymphadenectomy after breast cancer

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14
Q

A gastric tumor that invades the peritoneum and adjacent structures is classified as:

A

T4B
(if it only infiltrated peritoneum it would have been T4A)

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15
Q

Lidocaine facts

A

is a local anesthetic
class of amino-amides
is metabolised at the liver level through a process of oxidative alkylation
has a low risk of inducing cardiotoxicity
like all local anaesthetics, it blocks the generation and propagation of nerve fiber impulses in a reversible manner, targeting the pharmacological action sodium channels of neuronal membranes

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16
Q

RECIST criteria

A

is a set of published rules that define when tumors in cancer patients improve (“respond”), stay the same (“stabilize”), or worsen (“progress”) during treatment.

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17
Q

Which hormones can typically be increased by the use of antipsychotic medications?

A

prolactin

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18
Q

What is the main cause of erectile dysfunction?

A

vascular

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19
Q

In electrical burns, respiratory arrest occurs above:

A

“20-50 milliamps”
above 2 amps the patient goes into cardiac arrest

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20
Q

How many tender points must be positive for evoking pain to be fibromyalgia?

A

11/18

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21
Q

Löffler’s cardiomyopathy

A

it is determined by the infiltration of eosinophilic leukocytes. It is a rare restrictive cardiomyopathy,

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22
Q

Eye infections

A

The patient with conjunctival inflammation and watery secretion in the context of an upper respiratory tract infection presents the typical features of viral conjunctivitis. The majority of cases this is caused by adenovirus, a frequent infection especially in settings such as primary schools. Symptoms are typically self-limiting and last a few days. In rare cases, bacterial superinfection can be observed with the appearance of pain and purulent secretions. Bacterial conjunctivitis is treated with topical antibiotic therapy, typically erythromycin (answer D), however uncomplicated viral conjunctivitis can be managed symptomatically with warm or cold gauze to relieve symptoms. Answer B: anti-viral therapy is used in case of herpetic keratitis, which would appear with pain, red eye, visual loss, corneal opacity and corneal ulcers. Answer C: Prednisolone eye drops are approved for inflammatory ocular and allergic conditions. Answer E: olapatadine eye drops, is indicated for allergic conjunctivitis.

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23
Q

Degree of ascites

A

mild (1): dx only with US
moderate (2): by a moderate and symmetrical increase in abdominal circumference
severe/tense: (3) significant increase in abdominal circumference
from 1-3 based on amount of effusion in the abdominal cavity

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24
Q

definitive diagnosis of pulmonary thromboembolism

A

CT angiography
(initial diagnostic approach to pulmonary thromboembolism includes history, physical examination, chest x-ray, arterial blood gas analysis, and ECG )

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25
Q

African, blood in urine, hypereosinophilia. What is suspect?

A

Bladder bilharzia, schistosomiasis.
Gotten due to contact with contaminated water
TX: Praziquantel

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26
Q

T/F obesity is not a RF for osteoporosis

A

t

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27
Q

microcytoma is diagnosed with Schwarz-Bartter syndrome

A

syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

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28
Q

PRES

A

The acronym PRES means Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome associated with cerebral edema
Needs MRI no contrast for diagnosis

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29
Q

Most frequent causes of neonatal meningitis are

A

Group B streptococci or Gram-negative bacilli or Listeria.

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30
Q

What antibiotic therapy would you set immediately after performing a lumbar puncture in suspect of neonatal meningitis

A

Ampicillin + cefotaxime.

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31
Q

Intrathecal methotrexate prophylaxis is typical of the treatment of which oncohaematological disease?

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia.

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32
Q

Among the following neoplasms, Melanoma is the least radiosensitive.

A

T

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33
Q

Which pharmacological agents is indicated in the case of vago-mediated atrial fibrillation?

A

disopyramide

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34
Q

CREST syndrome

A

CREST for limited cutaneous subset systemic sclerosis corresponds to: Calcinosis, Raynaud’s, alterations of esophageal motility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia.

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35
Q

T/F Both symptoms of inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity must necessarily be present for a diagnosis of ADHD

A

F

36
Q

What is Jacques sign

A

Jacques’ sign is in fact the most common sign of mastoiditis, in which the mastoid inflammation and subsequent tissue edema move the auricle forward

37
Q

What is the first-line medical therapy for asymptomatic, noncritical carotid stenosis?

A

An antiplatelet drug (ASA or Clopidogrel)

38
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalitis
Scombroid syndrome
Hepatitis A
S.Aureus enteritis
Are all foodborne diseases

A

T

39
Q

The diagnostic technique of choice in malignant gastric tumors is

A

“EGDS with biopsies”

40
Q

What drugs are used to treat ADHD

A

psychostimulants and non-stimulant drugs such as Atomoxetine are effective. The first line is represented by Methylphenidate, an amphetamine derivative; in other countries, similarly, dexamfetamine, and its prodrug lisdexamfetamine, is increasingly used.

41
Q

The Tenzel flap is used for the reconstruction of

A

the lower eyelid

42
Q

In coma due to mesencephalic lesion, the pupil:

A

It is mydriatic ipsilateral to the lesion. Direct parasympathetic innervation to the pupil comes from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the dorsal midbrain, through the nucleus of the third cranial nerve (oculomotor) to the pupillary constrictor muscle. Thus, a lesion at this level (midbrain) causes ipsilateral pupillary mydriasis!

43
Q

Saturnine colic is typical of intoxication from:

A

lead

44
Q

Burns

A

B) In the adult patient, in burns below 15% extension, systemic involvement is minimal
C) In the patient pediatric, in burns below 10% extension, systemic involvement is minimal.

45
Q

How many calories does 1 gram of protein provide?

A

4 kcal.gr

46
Q

SIADH is characterised by

A

Normovolemic hyposmolar hyponatremia.

47
Q

Pontine myelinolysis as a rapid correction of hyponatremia usually occurs

A

n a nuanced manner after a few days after the rapid correction of the sodium level.

48
Q

for suspected aortic aneuryms in ER, what exam do you order to confirm?

A

chest-abdomen CT with contrast medium

49
Q

(choilonychia)

A

Spoon nails in iron deficiency

50
Q

An 85-year-old man presents with locally advanced prostate cancer. What is the role of radiotherapy in prostate cancer?

A

Exclusive
Palliative
Neoadjuvant
Adjuvant

51
Q

Which is the most frequent clinical manifestation of recurrent polychondritis?

A

chondritis of the auricles.
is an uncommon inflammatory disease that affects the cartilaginous structures of the entire body, as well as the organs of hearing and vision, the kidney and the cardiovascular system.
First line treatment is high dose corticosteroids

52
Q

what are the 3 categories of personality disorders

A

Cluster A (“the bizarre”/paranoid), Cluster B (“the hyperemotional/narcissist”) and Cluster C (“the anxious”).

53
Q

tuberous sclerosis presents as

A

childhood seizures, early cognitive decline, sebaceous adenomas, fibroids, and intracranial calcifications visible on neuroimaging.
genetically determined by the mutation of the tumor suppression gene 1 on chromosome 9 and 2 on chromosome 16.

54
Q

What is pellagra

A

niacin (vb3) deficiency

55
Q

How is the severity of calcaneal-talar fractures measured?

A

Bohler angle

56
Q

Cobb and Metha angles are used to classify

A

scoliosis

57
Q

The Gustillo classification is used for

A

open fractures

58
Q

the Neer classification is used for

A

fractures of the proximal humerus

59
Q

Which diuretic drugs can lead to a condition of metabolic acidosis?

A

acetazolamide, spironolactone

60
Q

Podocytes at the glomerular level are also called:

A

visceral epithelial cells

61
Q

The Friedewald formula is used to calculate LDL cholesterol. It is

A

LDL cholesterol = total cholesterol - [HDL cholesterol + (triglyceridemia/5)].

62
Q

mnemonic to remember causes of acute pancreatitis

A

GET SMASHED
Gallstones
Ethanol (alcohol), Trauma, Steroids (steroid), Mumps (mumps), Autoimmune, Scorpion Sting (scorpion sting), Hypercalcemia or Hypertriglycerides (Hypercalcemia or hypertriglyceridemia), ERCP, Drugs (drugs such as azathioprine or bactrim).

63
Q

in the decorticated posture:

A

the arms are in a triple flexion attitude while the lower limbs are extended. The lesion is located cranial to the red nucleus of the midbrain (it can be cortical or brainstem up to the red nucleus).

64
Q

Decerebrate posture

A

arms and legs are extented

65
Q

Wallenberg syndrome is caused by a lesion

A

Lateral bulbar ischemic lesion by occulsion of the vertebral or PICA artery

66
Q

Le PeP is:

A

HIV post exposure prophylaxis
You take them once or twice a day for 28 days: For adults, the CDC recommends tenofovir, emtricitabine (these two drugs come in one pill), and a third drug, either raltegravir or dolutegravir

67
Q

mirizzi syndrome

A

is due to compression from the infundibulum of the gallbladder (therefore ab extrinseco) of a gallbladder stone on the main bile duct (Mirizzi I). In its evolution, it can cause a cholecysto-choledochal fistula (Mirizzi II).

68
Q

Zieve syndrome

A

is characterized by the triad of jaundice, hemolytic anemia, and hyperlipidemia secondary to alcoholic liver injury.

69
Q

Menetrier syndrome

A

is precancerous hyperplasia of the gastric mucosa.

70
Q

Q fever is caused by

A

Coxiella bunettii

71
Q

Otosclerosis facts

A

A) It can be stapedial or cochlear
B) It is bilateral in 80% of cases
D) It can be responsible for a conductive hearing loss
Is more common in females

72
Q

Newborn has congenital clubfoot. What will it most likely be characterized by?

A

Equinus-varus-supinated foot.

73
Q

Winterbottoms sign

A

refers to the swelling of the lymph nodes at the level of the posterior cervical triangle characteristic of African trypanosomiasis, particularly the western form caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma brucei subspecies gambiense.
Sleeping sickness

74
Q

T/F in the case of liver lesions suspected of metastasis, the first tumor to suspect is colon cancer:

A

T

75
Q

The PreP is:

A

HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis.

76
Q

Hunner’s ulcers are typical of which pathology?

A

interstitial cystitis

77
Q

idarucizumab

A

antidote for dabigatran.

78
Q

Antidote for morphine

A

naloxone

79
Q

Antidote for unfractionated heparin

A

protamine

80
Q

antidote for fondaparinzux/apixaban

A

andexanet alfa

81
Q

High frequency vibrations are more absorbed:

A

the hand-wrist joint level.

82
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur fun fact

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the cardiac and/or parasternal apex; what peculiarly distinguishes this pathology from others is, however, the modification of the murmur with dynamic maneuvers: it is reduced with the increase in preload and afterload and increases in intensity with the reduction in preload.q

83
Q

carpel tunnel syndrome involves which fingers

A

I, II, III and medial part of the fourth finger of the hand.

84
Q

T/F strong opiods have a max dose above which the alagesic effect does not increase

A

F
weak opiates have a max dose

85
Q

Which etiological agent is most frequently responsible for infectious complications in heart transplant patients?

A

CMV

86
Q

Which is are a contraindication to bariatric surgery?

A

major depressive disorder, terminal illness, decompensated hypothyroidism, BPD

87
Q

The oral loading dose of Clopidogrel is:

A

600 mg

AIMS (19 decks)

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