SIMULATION 01_2023 Flashcards

Question

As an anesthesiologist, what TX do you 100% have to suspend before an intervention?

Answer 1

ACE i for HTN The intake of statins, fibrates, diuretics (such as furosemide and canrenone), clonidine should not be stopped in preparation for surgery

Answer 2

asymptomatic bacteriuria is at least 100,000 CFU per ml of urine - asymptomatic in 2 consecutive urine samples in women and in a single sample in men. The indications for screening and treatment in adults are represented by pregnancy and subjects who must undergo instrumental urological maneuvers.

Answer 3

increase temp, pCO2, H+, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

Answer 4

EGDS with biopsy

Answer 5

being a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, causes a reduction in bicarbonate reabsorption at the proximal tubule level

Answer 6

150 cc (is the area that doesn't participate in gas exchange)

Answer 7

at least 5 cm in a number of 30 followed by 2 ventilations , at a speed of approximately 100 per minute, therefore just under 2 compressions per second

Answer 8

T (such as constipation, polydipsia, vomiting, nausea, mental confusion) Diagnose with protein electrophoresis which will show a monoclonal peak, and immunofixation which will identify the type of CM.

Answer 9

Pernicious anemia represents the most frequent cause of vitamin B12 deficiency and is related to autoimmune atrophic gastritis which causes a deficiency of intrinsic factor, necessary for the absorption of cobalamin.

Answer 10

T IV or IM - note midazolam is not first line

Answer 11

hypocapnea and hypoxemia

Answer 12

0.5 mg boluses, repeatable up to 6 times. If doesn't work, use epinephrine 2-10 µg/min or isoprenaline at a dosage of 5 µg/min are administered in the second line

Answer 13

Distributive shock is caused by a relative inadequacy of the intravascular volume caused by vasodilation (arterial or venous) despite the presence of a preserved circulating blood volume. Note that DVT gives obstructive shock as there is a 'mechanical' factor

Answer 14

atenolol, betaxolol, bisoprolol, esmolol, acebutolol, metoprolol, and nebivolol. (Cardioselective means they target more B1 receptors)

Answer 15

AEIOU 'A' stands for 'severe metabolic acidosis' with pH<7.1 'E' stands for for 'electrolytes', i.e. hyperkalemia >6.5 mEq/L 'I' stands for 'ingestion' of toxic substances or overdose of digitalis 'O' for 'fluid Overload' 'U' for 'uremia with pericarditis and mental decline

Answer 16

Bronchiectasis

Answer 17

the His bundle determines the propagation of the impulse from the atrioventricular node towards the two ventricles.

Answer 18

Female sex, age >50 years, and low anterior chamber are all risk factors for an acute glaucoma attack. generally occurs after pupillary dilation It manifests itself with severe pain, blurred vision, pupil in medium reactive mydriasis, nausea and vomiting. (open angle glaucoma has slower onset) TX: Therapy in the acute phase consists of the instillation of miotics (pilocarpine) and ocular hypotensives such as osmotic diuretics (mannitol) and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide). Beta blockers can be used to reduce aqueous humor production.

Answer 19

(start of inotropic and diuretic treatment, urgent percutaneous revascularization, placement of a Swan-Ganz catheter), including the aortic counterpulsator, if it were not for the presence of aortic insufficiency. Remember: the latter and aortic dissection are contraindications to the use of this device.

Answer 20

NK1-antagonist + Ondansetron + Dexamethasone To reduce emesis

Answer 21

Risk is the product of Hazard x Exposure. R = P x E

Answer 22

acute, painless and unilateral visual loss together with the finding of “flame hemorrhages” on the ocular fundus

Answer 23

Intravitreal Dexamethasone

Answer 24

Every year unless otherwise decided by the competent doctor or specific directives

Answer 25

it involves the administration of drugs with anxiolytic action, such as benzodiazepines. By 'premedication' we mean the administration of drugs before the patient arrives in the operating room

Answer 26

First-line drugs are for example dimethyl fumarate, teriflunomide, glatiramer acetate or interferon. In the second line it recalls, for example, Natalizumab, Cladribine, Fingolimod.

Answer 27

T Due to rigor and tissue retraction/decay, the corpse tends to shorten as time passes.

Answer 28

Mammographic screening, in standard situations, consists of performing a bilateral mammogram every 2 years in patients aged 50 to 69 years inclusive.

Answer 29

An ABI value > or equal to 1 is normal < 1 indicates ischemia < 0.4 indicates severe ischemia.

Answer 30

Hodgkin's lymphoma is a neoplasm of mature B lymphocytes that has two peaks of incidence (20-30 years and 60 years). can be asymptomatic or present with B symptoms On lymph node biopsy, Reed-Stenberg cells, binucleated or multinucleated cells, which present large, intensely eosinophilic ("owl's eye") nucleoli

Answer 31

internal mammary artery

Answer 32

2 amps". In the event of electrocution with an amperage greater than 2 amperes, cardiac arrest occurs, while above 20-50 milliamps the patient goes into respiratory arrest.

Answer 33

mitral stenosis can be divided into 3 categories: mild with valve area between 1.5 and 2 cm2; moderate mitral stenosis with valve area between 1 and 1.5 cm2 and severe mitral stenosis with area <1cm2.

Answer 34

Rhinoscleroma is in fact a chronic granulomatous infectious disease that affects the mucosa of the upper airways

Answer 35

glucocorticoids

Answer 36

Cortisone is used in vasogenic edema, while mannitol in cytotoxic edema (extensive cerebral ischemia).

Answer 37

Echinocandins or fluconazole duration of therapy in the non-neutropenic patient will be 14 days from the first negative blood culture for candida. The duration in the neutropenic patient, however, must also take into account the resolution of the neutropenia.

Answer 38

Ultrasound with 8 MHz probes

Answer 39

semicircular canals

Answer 40

within 60 minutes before the skin incision. Vancomycin and fluoroquinolones, however, should be administered within 120 minutes before the skin incision

Answer 41

Benzyl-penicillin G 2.4 mU IM single dose

Answer 42

BRAIN MRI In the treatment of the disease in the initial stages (mild-moderate symptoms), drugs inhibitors of cerebral acetylcholinesterase, such as donepezil or rivastigmine, are indicated. In patients with moderate-severe disease, memantine is indicated.

Answer 43

echocardiogram of right heart. If PTE is present, you have hypokinesia of the RV. Doppler of lower limbs is done in dtable pt with positive d-dimer.

Answer 44

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate.

Answer 45

MRI of the lower abdomen and pelvis. MRI should be taken into consideration as a first option and as a standard examination to locally stage rectal tumors in a locally advanced stage as it evaluates the invasion of the mesorectum, the infiltration of the perirectal fascia and contiguous organ-structures.

Answer 46

Retinal detachment and macular degeneration

Answer 47

Dacryocystitis is an inflammation of the lacrimal sac, manifested by redness and inflammation of the medial canthus with possible leakage of purulent material from the lacrimal punctum. Therapy consists of systemic antibiotics.

Answer 48

Replacement of the aortic arch and descending aorta in a single operation.

Answer 49

Lamotrigine is an excellent antiepileptic drug that acts on Na+ channels and is useful in young women as it is not teratogenic. Dose titration must be slow because it can cause even serious skin rashes.

Answer 50

ceftaroline

Answer 51

norepinephrine

Answer 52

administration of N-Acetylcysteine

Answer 53

non compliance