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Step 1 - Elise > shit to learn > Flashcards

shit to learn Flashcards

1
Q

Men, severe unilateral (orbital or periorbital pain) associated withipsilateral ANS sx (ptosis, miosis, lacrimation, conjunctival injection, rhinorrhea).

A

Cluster Ha

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2
Q

_____ dx w/ elevated LDH and decreased haptoglobin)

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.

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3
Q

tx of torsades

A

magnesium

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4
Q

tx of unstable VT

A

amiodarone (causes QT prolongation)

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5
Q

tx of afib with rapid ventricular respone

A

diltizem

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6
Q

first line tx for unstable arrhythmias

A

epinepherine

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7
Q

Add what to TB regimen to reduce INH induced peripheral neuropathy.

What drug in regimen causes optic neuropathy/red-green colorblindness?

A

B6 - pyridoxine

ethanmbutol

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8
Q

E7 viral HPV protein binds to RB protein, preventing RB protein from interacting with ___?

What cyclin activates/phosphorylates RB?

A

E2F TF- in RB’s active/hypophosphorylated form, it binds E2F TF and prevents transcription of genes needed for DNA synthesis.

When CyclinD activates CD4.

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9
Q

Deposition of ___ in;

  • AL amyloidosis
  • Alzheimer
  • PSGN
  • dialysis-related amyloidosis
A
  • AL amyloidosis - Ig light chain
  • Alzheimer - Amyloid Precursor Protien
  • PSGN - complement C3
  • dialysis-related amyloidosis - Beta2-microglobulin
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10
Q

Gs pathway

A

Gs –(+)–> AC –(+)–> ATP to cAMP –(+)–> PKA

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11
Q

Gq pathway

A

Gq –(+)–> PLC –(+)–> PIP2 to DAG and IP3 –(+)–> PKC –(+)–> intracellular Ca

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12
Q

Vegan diet associated with what vitamin deficit and what results in megaloblastic anemia and demyelination causign peripheral neuropathy (DNA synthesis deficit).

A

Vit B12 (cyanocobalamin)

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13
Q

Deficiencies in __ Vit causes…

  • pellagra
  • beriberi
  • DNA synthesis
  • peripheral neuropathy w/o anemia.
A
  • pellagra - B3
  • beriberi - B1
  • DNA synthesis - B9, B12
  • peripheral neuropathy w/o anemia - B6
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14
Q

tx for trichomonas

A

metronidazole

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15
Q

tx for chlamydia

A

azithromycin

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16
Q

tx for Neisseria gono

A

azythromycin or doxycycline

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17
Q

doclizumab blocks ____ receptor

A

IL-2

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18
Q

antihep A IgM ab

A

acute hep A infxn

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19
Q

Hep B surface Ag and hep B core ab

A

acute hep B infxn

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20
Q

hep B sirface ag and anti-hep B core ab

A

chronic hep B infxn

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21
Q

anti-hep B core ab

A

recovered from hep B

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22
Q

hep B surface ab

A

vaccinated

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23
Q

heart sound heard with LVH

A

S4 (atrium pushing against stiff LV wall

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24
Q

fixed splitting of S2 heard with what defect?

A

atrial septal defect (dt L-to-R shunting delaying closure of Pulmonic valve)

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25
Q

Crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur

A

Aortic stenosis

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26
Q

heart sound associated with delay LV emptying, like in AS or LBBB

A

Paradoxical splitting of S2

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27
Q

Heart sound associated wiht increased filling pressures as seen in mitral regurgitation, CHF, dilated cardiomyopathy and L-to-R sunts.

A

S3 heart sound.

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28
Q

What is less than 4 consecutive days of elevated or irritable bood with at least 3 of: distractibility, engagement in irresponsible behavior, inflated self esteem or grandiosity, racing thughts or flight of ideas, increased goal-directed activity or psychomotor agitation, dcerased need for sleep, increased talkativeness or pressured speceh.

A

Bipolar, Type 2.

Type 1 is the presence of at least one manic episode (hypomania, but at least one week).

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29
Q

Tx of choice for CFH exacerbation.

A

IV loop diuretic (TaL)

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30
Q

Antibodies against ___ in bullous pemphigoid

A

hemidesmosomes

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31
Q

Deficeincy in what enzyme in inclusion cell disease.

A

N-acetylglucosaminyl-1-phosphotransferase.

Therefore unable to add mannose-6-phosphate tag.

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32
Q

Testicular tumor associated with painless, firm, testicular mass with elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase. Histo: uniform cells with abundant cellular cytoplasm with central nuclei and prominent nucleoli (fried egg).

A

seminoma

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33
Q

Tumor arising from cat-produceing sympathetic ganglion cells (anywhere along sympathetic chain, but adrenal gland most common). Elevated urine HVA and VMA . Hoer wright rosettes.

A

Neuroblastoma.

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34
Q

tx for AD.

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors to decrease ACh breakdown.

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35
Q

HACEK bugs (culture negative).

A

Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

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36
Q

Conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis

A

Reactive ARthritis - autoimmune rxn to prior infxn (often UTI).

37
Q

___ poisoning: tinnitus, N/V, AMS, hyperthermia, mixed respiratory alkalosis-primary metabolic acidosis.

A

Salicylates.

38
Q

cell that secretes hCG

A

syncytiotrophoblast

39
Q

Tx for hyperprolactinemia (i,e, prolactinoma).

What drug could cause hyperprolactinemia?

A

cabergoline or bromocriptine - a dopamine agonist.

Risperidone could cause it bc it blocks dopamine-R.

40
Q

Frequent otitis media, sinusitis, respiratory tract infxns. Increased risk for anaphylaxis in response to blood transfusions bc ____.

A

selective IgA deficiency

Increased risk for anaphylaxis in response to blood transfusions bc ____ anti-IgA ab in pt’s blood reaction IgA in transfused blood.

41
Q

Deficiency in Tyrosine kinase causes _____.

What cell is lacking.
What inheritance.

A

Bruton agammaglobulinemia.
X-linked.
Cannot produce Ig (so no B-lymphocytes), so no anaphylactic reactions bc no IgE.

42
Q

Recurrent severe diarrhea, infection, failure to thrive.

A

SCID - lack normal Ba nd T lymphocytes.

43
Q

Pts with cirrhosis may develop gynecomastia, palmar erythema, and spider angiomata dt ___? Develop jaundice dt ___?

A

develop gynecomastia, palmar erythema, and spider angiomata dt increased estrogen levels? .

Develop jaundice dt portal hypertension.

44
Q

t(8;14)

A

burkitt - younger with discrete mass.

45
Q

t(11;14)

A

mantle cell lymphoma (a B-cell lymphoma)

46
Q

t(12;21)

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). children. lymbphoblasts on peripheral smear.

47
Q

t(14;18)

A

follucular lymphoma (B-cell lymphoma)

48
Q

t(9;22)

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). BCR-ABL fusion gene (philadelphia chromosome)

49
Q

marcus gunn pupil - describe it and what does it indicate?

A

decreased pupillary constriction in both eyes when light shone in affected eye, indicating demyelination of optic nerve (MS)

50
Q

belomycin, methotrexate, and andamiodarone - what AE

A

pulmonary fibrosis

51
Q

AE of

  • 5-fluorouracil
  • doxorubicin
  • cytarabine
  • amiodarone
A
  • 5-fluorouracil - myelosuppression
  • doxorubicin - dialted cardiomyopathy and myelosuppression
  • cytarabine - pancytopenia
52
Q

what produces crescendo-decresendo murmur?

A

AS

53
Q

what produces opening snap, followed by late diastolic murmur?

A

MS

54
Q

what produces midsystolic click followed by late systolic crescendo murmur

A

MVP

55
Q

what produces holosystolic blowing murmur best hear at the tricuspid area (LLSB)

A

TR

56
Q

what produces: radial pulse 70/min, reuglar and bounding and BP 130/50. Grade 2/6 diastolic decreascendo murmur at LSB.

A

AR - bounding pulse with wide pilse pressure

57
Q

Muscle weakness, autonomic dysfunction, repetative contraction allows for temporary improvement of sx

What is it and MoA

Commonly associated secondarily to what?

A

Lambert Eaton Syndrome

MoA - antibodies against presynaptic Calcium channels.

temporary relief dt Ca accumulation

secondary to paraneoplastic syndrome dt Small Cell Lung Cancer.

58
Q

Difference between Acute Stress Disorder and PTSD.

A

ASD 1mo after inciting event.

59
Q

fever, abd pain, jaundice, AMS, hypotension

what is this dx and what labs should you see (ALP, GGT, Br)?

A

Cholangitis - reynold’s pentad

charcot’s triad is fever, abd pain, jaundice.

labs - elevated ALP, GGT, Br

60
Q

lab with 95% specificity for RA

A

anti-citrullinated peptide Ab.

61
Q

Associated ParvoB19 with what disease?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia - transient aplastic crisis

62
Q

DoC for prostate cancers.

A

flutamide. competative inhibiotr of androgen receptor.

63
Q

COPD - what happens to TLC, FEVq, FVC, FEV1/FVX?

flattening of diaphragm indicates ____?

A

TLC increases, but all others decrease.

flattening of diaphragm indicates hyperinflation.

64
Q

multinulceated giant cells - think ___ virus

A

Herpes

65
Q

koilocytes, think what virus?

A

HPV

66
Q

What AE does methotrexate, doxorubicin, and cisplatin have?

What drug prevents this AE?

A

myelosuppression

leucovorin prevents this by being folinic acid (give to pts receiving HD MTX treatment).

67
Q

Give ___ to pats receiving cylcophosphamide or ifosfamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis.

Give ___ to pts receiving doxorubicin to prevent cardiotoxicity.

A

Mesna

Dexrazoxane

68
Q

CSF studies showing:

  • elevated opening pressure, low glucose, elevated protein, elevated leukocyte with neutrophilic predominance
  • normal opening pressure, normal glucose, elevated protein, elevated leukocyte with lymphocytic predominance
  • elevated opening pressure, low glucose, elevated protein, elevated leukocyte with lymphocytic predominance
A
  • bacterial meningitis
  • viral meningitis
  • fungal meningitis
69
Q

What drug:

  • lowers LDL cholesterol, but no effect on HDL cholesterol and TG levels.
  • Fibrate most effective at lowering TG levels.
  • decreases LDL cholesterold, increases HDL cholesterol, decreases TG levels
  • HMGCoA reductase inhibitor.
  • decreases LDL, slight increase HDL, increased TG
A 
Ezetimibe
gembibrozil
niacin
simvastatin
chollestyramine
70
Q

Dx of hirschspring diseae

A

rectal biopsy to demonstrate absence of ganglion cells in tissue in rectum (failure of migration of neural crest cells to distal colon).

71
Q

intellectual disability, seizure, facial angiofibromas.

what carcinoma increased risk?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

increased risk of renall cell carcinoma and subependymal astrocytomas.

72
Q

constriction of pupils - drug

A

opioid

73
Q

secretin affects what?

what about somatostatin?

A

pancratic stimulation to release bicarbonate.

v. somatostatin which is produced by the pancreas to inhibit pancreatic fluid sercertion

74
Q

testes drain to what lymph nodes first.

A

paraaortic.

75
Q

red man syndrome dt what drug

A

vancomycin.

76
Q

contact dermatitis/poison ivy is what HSR?

A

type 4 - CMI, activation fo sensitized T lymphocytes.

77
Q

Stevens-Johnson syndrome due to what drug?

A

TMP-SMX

78
Q

What breast cancer presents with uniform infiltrating breast stroma in a single file? Loss of expression of what?

A

invasive lobular carcinoma

loss of e-cadherin

79
Q

what vitamin is involved in hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in collagen synthesis?

A

vitamin C

80
Q

damage to dorsal column and dorsal roots. decreased sensation and proprioception (sensory ataxia, lancinating pains, absent LE reflexes, pupils accomodate, but dont react)

A

tabes dorsalis

81
Q

cocaine use in at term female

A

abruptio placentae

82
Q

destruction of what hypothalamic nucleus leads to uncontrolled appetite and obesity?

A

ventromedial.

83
Q

CRACK AMIGOS - most importatn P450 inhibitors

A

cyprofloxacin, ritonavir, amiodarone, cimetidine, ketoconazole, acute alcohol use, macrolides, grapefruit juice, omeprazole, sulfonamides

84
Q

kidney develop:
what gives rise to the colleting system of the kidney (collectung tubules, ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, ureters)

v.

glomeruli/bowman’s space, proximal tubules, Distal tubules?

A

ureteric bud

metanephric mesoderm (blastema)

85
Q

Main blood-gas changes during aerobic excericise.

A

Arterials dont change much.

Venous CO2 increases, O2 decreases, and pH decreases.

86
Q

what bug is pyrrolidonyl-arylamidase postive (PYR)

A

strep pyogenes

87
Q

What type of viruses reassort? How are their progeny different than ones who recombine?

A

segmented.
Ressortment (i.e. genetic shift of influenza A) results in progeny with characterisitc of both parents (like humans). Recombination results in characteristics that neither of the parents have.

88
Q 
Inactivated or killed vaccine (cellualr and humoral)
Live attenuated vaccine (humoral)
Nonattenuated viral vaccin
Conjugate vaccines
Toxoid vaccines
Component vaccines
A

Inactivated - Rabies, Influenza (injection), Polio (Salk), hepatitis A (
Live attenuated - all others. (generate MHC1 Tc cells)
Nonattenuated - adenovirus
Conjugate - Strep pneumo, N. meningitis, H. influenza
Toxoid - DTaP
Component vaccines - HBV

Step 1 - Elise (30 decks)

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