Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACLAM 2018 > sheep and goats > Flashcards

sheep and goats Flashcards

1
Q

Order for sheep and goats?

A

Artiodactyla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Scientific name of sheep

A

Ovis ares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Scientific name of goats

A

Capra hircus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Scientific name of beef cattle

A

Bos taurus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Scientific name of zebu cattle

A

Bos indicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Main use of medium wool breeds

A

meat sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Southdown, suffolk, and hampshire are examples of what?

A

meat or medium wool breeds of sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Toggenburg, La Mancha, and Saanen are examples of what?

A

dairy goat breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Kiko, boer, and pygmy are examples of what?

A

meat breeds of goat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Holstein-Friesian, jersey, and brown swiss are examples of what?

A

dairy cattle breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following breeds may have a red and white mottled coat color?

a. Jersey
b. Ayrshire
c. brown swiss
d. guernsey
e. holstein
f. all of the above
g. ayrshire, guernsey, and holstein
h. ayrshire and guernsey

A

g. ayrshire, guernsey, and holstein (there are red and white holsteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Angus, hereford, and simmental are examples of what?

A

beef cattle breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What areas of research are sheep used in?

A

production ag
cardiac
reproductive techniques
genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is the polled trait dominant or recessive in goats?

A

dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does the polled trait relate to hermaphroditism in goats?

A

Sex-linked recessive trait associated with the polled gene that results in intersex offspring when they are homozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are nubian goats a model for?

A

beta mannosidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many chromosomes do sheep have?

A

54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What breed of sheep is a model of congenital thyroid goiter?

A

merino

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Corriedale sheep are a model of what disease?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome (congenital hyperbilirubinemia d/t hepatic organic anion excretory defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome (congenital hyperbilirubinemia d/t hepatic organic anion excretory defect) is found in which breed of sheep?

A

corriedale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Southdown sheep are a model for what disease?

A

Gilbert’s syndrome (congenital hyperbilirubinemia d/t hepatic uptake defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gilbert’s syndrome (congenital hyperbilirubinemia d/t hepatic uptake defect) is found in which breed of sheep?

A

southdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Rambouillet are a model for what disease?

A

gamma-glutamyl carboxylase deficiency (see decreased vit K coagulation factors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dorset are a model for what disease?

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (x-linked recessive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

suffolk sheep are a model of what disease?

A

GM1 gangliosidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fainting goats are a model for what disease?

A

inherited caprine myotonia congenita (Thomson’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A newborn Nubian kid goat from an inbred research herd presents for inability to rise and a mildly domed skull. What is your primary differential?

A

beta mannosidosis (lysosomal storage disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A 6 month old suffolk sheep presents for gradually worsening ataxia over a period of 1-2 months. What congenital disease should be on your differential list?

A

GM1 gangliosidosis (lysosomal storage disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What areas of research are goats used in?

A 
antibody production
immunology
mastitis, nutrition, parasitology
genetic diseases
osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Inherited cardiomyopathy and leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome are congenital disorders present in what breed of cattle?

A

holstein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lipofuscinosis is found in what breed of cattle?

A

Ayrshire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Glycogenosis is found in what breeds of cattle?

A

Shorthorn

Brahma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hemochromatosis and beta mannosidosis are congenital disorders found in what breed of cattle?

A

Salers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A holstein calf presents for exam due to lack of weight gain and apparent growth stunting. She has a history of recurrent pneumonia as a calf and currently has marked neutrophilia on bloodwork. What congenital condition should you have on your differential list?

A

bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 6 most important things to screen sheep for?

A

(1) Coxiella burnetii
(2) Contagious ecthyma
(3) Caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)
(4) Johne’s disease
(5) Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)
(6) Parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

At a minimum, what should sheep be vaccinated against?

A

Tetanus

Clostridial disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 6 most important things to screen goats for?

A

(1) Coxiella burnetii
(2) Caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE)
(3) Brucellosis
(4) Tuberculosis
(5) Johne’s disease
(6) Parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What dry bulb temperatures are recommended for farm animals and poultry?

A

61-81F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How much space is required for a single sheep weighing <25kg?

A

10ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How much space is required for a single sheep weighing <50kg?

A

15ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How much space is required for a single sheep weighing more than 50kg?

A

20ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How much space is needed for each pair-housed sheep weighing <25kg?

A

8.5ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How much space is needed for each pair-housed sheep weighing <50kg?

A

12.5ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How much space is needed for each pair-housed sheep weighing more than 50kg?

A

17ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How much space is needed for each sheep in a flock of 5+ weighing <25kg?

A

7.5ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How much space is needed for each sheep in a flock of 5+ weighing <50kg?

A

11.3ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How much space is needed for each sheep in a flock of 5+ weighing more than 50kg?

A

15ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F: BUN is a good indicator iof renal function in ruminants.

A

F- metabolism of urea nitrogen by rumen microflora alters this assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of sheep are the most gregarious?

A

fine-wooled breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of sheep are often solitary?

A

long-wooled breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

T/F: To restrain sheep, it is ok to hold them by the wool.

A

F- this can damage both the wool and the underlying skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the biggest risk of using chain link fencing with sheep and goats?

A

Horns or feet getting c aught

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the parts of the stomach in ruminants?

A

rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum (ROAR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the true stomach in ruminants?

A

abomasum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What volatile fatty acids are produced in the rumen?

A

acetic, propionic, butyric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the main source of energy in ruminants?

A

volatile fatty acids (propionic acid, not glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In what tissues does lipogenesis occur in sheep?

A

adipose and mammary tissue (not liver like other species)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

By what process do neonates absorb intestinal Ig in colostrum?

A

pinocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are hemal lymph nodes?

A

small nodules associated with blood vessels that contain RBCs in sheep and deer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Is a surgical adrenalectomy possible in sheep?

A

No- they have accessory adrenal tisuse interspersed throughout the abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of placentation do ruminants have?

A

epitheliochorial cotyledonary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the infolded functional unit of the placenta called?

A

placentome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the cycle length of sheep?

A

14-19d

64
Q

What is the cycle length of goats?

A

18-24d

65
Q

Gestation length of sheep and goats?

A

150 days

66
Q

What is crutching?

A

removing wool around perineal and mammary area prior to birth- ok to do

67
Q

What is mulesing?

A

Removing skin folds in perineum- not ok to do

68
Q

Which of the following is most likely to need intervention to assist the kids after parturition?

a. A sheep with twins
b. A cow with twins
c. A cow with a singleton
d. A goat with triplets
e. A goat with twins

A

a. A sheep with twins

69
Q

How should colostrum be treated to prevent transmission of caprine arthritis encephalitis?

A

heat treat for 1 hr at 131F

70
Q

Causative agent of lumpy jaw?

A

Actinomyces bovis

71
Q

Causative agent of anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

72
Q

Causative agent of enterotoxemia or struck?

A

C. perfringens type C

73
Q

Causative agent of pulpy kidney dz?

A

C. perfringens type D

74
Q

Causative agent of bighead, black disease, or red water?

A

C. novyi

75
Q

Causative agent of blackleg?

A

C. chauvoei

76
Q

Causative agent of malignant edema?

A

C. septicum

77
Q

Causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

78
Q

Causative agent of silage disease?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

79
Q

Causative agent of Johne’s disease

A

Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis

80
Q

You have had heavy rainfall after an especially dry summer. Three older ewes out in the pasture die acutely with unclotted hemorrhage from the nose and mouth. They have incomplete rigor mortis. What is a primary differential?

A

anthrax

81
Q

How is anthrax diagnosed?

A

Clinical signs, blood smear, culture (don’t do this yourself)

82
Q

How should samples be collected from an animal with suspected anthrax?

A

Collect blood from recently dead animal for culture. DO NOT necropsy, especially in animal areas.

83
Q

A goat has small pustules at the teats, axilla, and perineum. What is the most likely diagnosis and treatment?

A

Caprine staphylococcal dermatitis. Treat with medicated shampoos and extra enrichment to prevent rubbing

84
Q

A ewe with a retained placenta two weeks ago has third eyelid prolapse and severe bloat. You notice she is standing stiffly. What is your primary differential?

A

tetanus

85
Q

Two of your rams fought 3-5 days ago. You notice one of them now has severe edema of the head and neck. What is a bacterial differential?

A

Clostridium novyi

86
Q

You ran your calves through the chute to deworm them. One of the largest presents lame within hours and is found dead the next morning. On necropsy, the lame leg has necrosis and emphysema of the muscle. Primary differential?

A

blackleg d/t Clostridium chauvoei

87
Q

How is CLA diagnosed?

A

ELISA, smear of exudate or LN aspirate, culture

88
Q

An older ewe presents with chronic wasting and pasty feces. What is your primary differential?

A

Johne’s disease (M. paratuberculosis

89
Q

What is the primary method of transmission of Johne’s within endemic herds?

A

neonates nursing from infected dams

90
Q

How is Johne’s disease treated?

A

Test and cull

91
Q

Causative agent of wooden tongue?

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

92
Q

Causative agent of vibriosis?

A

Campylobacter

93
Q

2 most common agents associated with contagious foot rot?

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

Fusobacterium necrophorum

94
Q

Causative agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitiis?

A

Moraxella bovis

95
Q

What clinical signs are associated with Brucella infection in sheep and goats?

A

3rd trimester abortion

96
Q

What is the most common Brucella species in sheep and goats?

A

Brucella melitensis

97
Q

What Brucella species causes orchitis in sheep?

A

Brucella ovis

98
Q

How is brucellosis transmitted?

A

Ingestion of infected tissues or fluids

99
Q

What vaccines are used for Brucella?

A

RB51 live vax in cattle

B. melitensis Rev 1 strain vaccine for sheep/goats

100
Q

How should foot rot be treated?

A

Manual trimming, local antibiotics, foot bath, improve husbandry

101
Q

What are clinical signs of Q fever in sheep?

A

late abortion, stillbirth, weak lambs

OR asymptomatic

102
Q

How is Coxiella burnetii treated?

A

oxytetracycline

103
Q

What BSL level should be used for lab procedures involving Coxiella burnetii?

A

BSL2

104
Q

What BSL level should be used for procedures involving inoculation, incubation, harvesting cells, or necropsy of animals infected with C. burnetii?

A

BSL3

105
Q

What type of virus is Jaagsiekte?

A

Type D retrovirus

106
Q

What is the causative agent of ORF?

A

contagious echthyma, a parapoxvirus

107
Q

A ram presents with crusting of the face and nose and cyanotic mucous membranes. Some of the ewes this year had lambs with arthrogryposis. What is your primary differential?

A

bluetongue virus

108
Q

Bluetongue has a tropism for what cell type?

A

endothelial cells

109
Q

What ruminant is most likely to be asymptomatic when infected with foot and mouth disease?

A

goats

110
Q

You’ve had a higher than normal rate of stillbirth in your sheep flock this year. One of the surviving lambs has tremors, hirsutism and mild tendon contracture. What is your primary differential?

A

border disease (pestivirus)

111
Q

Developmental defects are associated with border disease infection at what gestational age?

A

45-80 GD

112
Q

Persistent infection is associated with border disease infection at what gestational age?

A

80+ GD

113
Q

In what genus and family is Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus?

A

genus Lentivirus

family Retroviridae

114
Q

What is the most important viral disease of goats?

A

caprine arthritis and encephalitis

115
Q

Clinical signs of caprine arthritis and encephalitis

A

> 6mo- stiffness, lameness, laminitis, mastitis, pneumonia

2-6mo- paresis progressing to tetraplegia, blindness, ataxia, head tilt

116
Q

What sheep virus is in the same genus as CAE and causes weakness, weight loss, and progressive pulmonary disease in sheep?

A

Ovine progressive pneumonia

Visna Maedi virus

117
Q

What are the two most common causes of viral diarrhea in small ruminants?

A

Rotavirus

Coronavirus

118
Q

Some older sheep in a flock of suffolks are noted for having intention tremors and uncoordinated movement. Several have abrasions and ulceration of the skin in places they have been furiously itching. What is your primary differential?

A

scrapie

119
Q

How is scrapie diagnosed?

A

tonsil from deceased sheep

third eyelid from live sheep

120
Q

What chromosomal sites govern susceptibility to scrapie?

A

Codons 136, 154, 171

121
Q

What phenotype is most resistant to scrapie?

A

Sheep with RHA alleles

122
Q

What is the most important parasite of small ruminants?

A

Haemonchus

123
Q

What is the causative agent of red water or Texas cattle fever?

A

Babesia bigemina

124
Q

What is the main clinical sign of Neospora caninum in cattle?

A

abortion

125
Q

You have several 2-week-old lambs with copious hemorrhagic diarrhea. One has rectal prolapse. What is the primary parasitic differential?

A

Eimeria (coccidiosis = bloody scours)

126
Q

What is the primary clinical sign of Toxoplasma gondii in sheep?

A

Fetal resorption, abortion, weak infants

127
Q

What is the primary clinical sign of Toxoplasma gondii in goats?

A

abortion and death

128
Q

What diarrheal organism of young ruminants can be diagnosed with iodine, acid-fast, PAS or methenamine silver stain of feces?

A

Cryptosporidium

129
Q

Nasal bots are the larval form of what parasite?

A

Oestrus ovis (botfly)

130
Q

How should nasal myiasis be treated?

A

ivermectin in early fall, fly repellant

131
Q

You work in the SE US and see a deer with an open wound that has some maggots in it. The maggots have two dark lines running down the head. What is your primary differential?

A

Cochliomyia hominivorax

132
Q

What are sheep keds?

A

Melophagus ovinus, wingless fly

133
Q

Most common dermatophyte of ruminants?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

134
Q

What is spider lamb syndrome?

A

Hereditary chondrodysplasia

135
Q

feeding leguminous hay or grains like barley, corn and soybean meal can result in what condition of ruminants?

A

frothy bloat - stable froth that can’t be expelled

136
Q

What is the causative agent of grass tetany?

A

hypomagnesemia on lush pasture

137
Q

Hypocalcemia can result in what condition in ruminants?

A

parturient paresis, milk fever

138
Q

What is the prognosis for pregnancy toxemia in goats?

A

Poor- 80% mortality

139
Q

How is pregnancy toxemia diagnosed in ruminants?

A

clinical signs, ketonuria, ketonemia, hypoglycemia (<25)

140
Q

A buck presents for intermittent arched back, raised tail, kicking at his belly, and occasional tenesmus. What is your primary differential?

A

urinary calculi

141
Q

What type of calculi are most common in small ruminants?

A

calcium phosphate

ammonium phosphate

142
Q

How is urolithiasis treated?

A

Amputation of urethral appendage, PU

Increase dietary roughage and salt, add ammonium chloride to the diet to acidify urine

143
Q

Copper deficiency results in what clinical signs?

A

blindness, ataxia, depigmented uncrimped wool

144
Q

Copper toxicity in sheep results in what clinical signs

A

anemia, icterus, weakness, recumbency, death

145
Q

What characteristic gross lesions are present at necropsy in sheep with copper toxicity?

A

gunmetal kidneys

icterus in multiple organs

146
Q

What is the causative agent of white muscle disease?

A

selenium/vitamin E deficiency

147
Q

Thiamine deficiency results in what clinical signs?

A

polioencephalomalacia- blindness, CNS signs

148
Q

What is the shock organ associated with anaphylaxis in ruminants?

A

lung

149
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of sheep?

A

viral lymphosarcoma/leukemia

150
Q

What is the most important neoplasm of goats?

A

thymoma

151
Q

What are the most common neoplasms in cattle?

A

lymphoma, SCC

152
Q

When was AMDUCA passed?

A

1994

153
Q

What does AMDUCA stand for?

A

animal medicinal drug use clarification act

154
Q

What does AMDUCA do?

A

regulates extra-label drug use in food animals

155
Q

What is the veterinary feed directive?

A

requires veterinary written authorization for drugs used in or on animal feeds
NO EXTRA-LABEL USE

ACLAM 2018 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions