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ACLAM 2018 > Rats > Flashcards

Rats Flashcards

1
Q

Scientific name of the norway rat

A

Rattus norvegicus

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2
Q

scientific name of the black rat

A

Rattus rattus

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3
Q

Primary research use for: ACI rat

A

genitorurinary congenital issues

prostate adenocarcinoma

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4
Q

Primary research use for: biobreeding (BB/Wor) rat

A

diabetes mellitus type 1

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5
Q

Primary research use for: brown norway (BN) rat

A

myeloid leukemia
hydronephrosis
bladder carcinoma

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6
Q

Primary research use for: buffalo (BUF) rat

A

thyroiditis

hepatoma

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7
Q

Primary research use for: Copenhagen (COP) rat

A

prostate adenocarcinoma

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8
Q

Primary research use for: F344 rat

A

toxicology

leukemia

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9
Q

Primary research use for: Lewis rat

A

MS

autoimmune dz

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10
Q

Primary research use for: LOU/C rat

A 
myeloma
antibody production (IgG)
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11
Q

Primary research use for: SHR rat

A

hypertension

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12
Q

Primary research use for: WF (Wistar-Furth) rat

A

leukemia

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13
Q

Primary research use for: Zucker rat

A

obesity

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14
Q

Primary research use for: brattleboro rat

A

diabetes insipidus

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15
Q

Primary research use for: Gunn rat

A

jaundice, kernicterus

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16
Q

Primary research use for: nude rat

A

T cell deficiency

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17
Q

Primary research use for: Obese SHR rat

A

type 4 hyperlipoproteinemia (obesity + hypertension)

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18
Q

Space required by the guide for a rat <100g?

A

17in2

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19
Q

Space required by the guide for a rat <200g?

A

23in2

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20
Q

Space required by the guide for a rat <300g?

A

29in2

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21
Q

Space required by the guide for a rat <400g

A

40in2

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22
Q

Space required by the guide for a rat <500g

A

60in2

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23
Q

Space required by the guide for a rat >500g

A

> 70in2

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24
Q

Space required by the guide for a rat with her litter?

A

124in2

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25
Q

Cage height required by the guide for rats?

A

7in

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26
Q

Stress and illness result in what symptom characterized by red pigment around the eyes?

A

chromodacryorrhea

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27
Q

How can porphyrin pigment be differentiated from blood?

A

Porphyrin fluoresces

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28
Q

Hearing range of rats?

A

250Hz- 80kHz

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29
Q

What limiting ridge separates the glandular and nonglandular portions of the stomach?

A

Margo plicatus

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30
Q

T/F: Rats have a gallbladder.

A

F

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31
Q

What gland is near the maxillary sinus and may regulate mucous viscosity in the nose?

A

Steno’s gland

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32
Q

Describe the female uterus in rats.

A

2distinct ossa uteri and cervices

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33
Q

What is characteristic of the cerebrum in rats and mice?

A

Lissencephalic (no sulci/gyri)

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34
Q

What sits behind the optic chiasm in the rat and is attached by an infundibular stalk to the brain?

A

pituitary hypophysis

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35
Q

T/F: Rats have a foramen of Magendie.

A

F.

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36
Q

What is special about atrial blood supply in rats?

A

It is mostly extracoronary (unlike most mammals)

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37
Q

Most common circulating blood leukocyte in rats?

A

lymphocyte

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38
Q

What type of diet formulation is accessible to the public?

A

open formula

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39
Q

What type of diet formulation is NOT accessible to the public?

A

closed formula

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40
Q

What is a certified diet?

A

Diet assayed to not exceed a max concentration of certain contaminants that may influence study results

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41
Q

What are the 4 pathways mediating calorie restriction?

A

(1) IGF-1/insulin signaling pathway
(2) sirtuin pathway
(3) AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) pathway
(4) TOR (target of rapamycin) pathway

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42
Q

When does the vaginal plate open in rats?

A

40-50d

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43
Q

When is puberty in the rat?

A

40-60d

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44
Q

How long is the rat estrus cycle?

A

4 days

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45
Q

How long is rat gestation?

A

21-23d

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46
Q

How much do rats eat/day?

A

5% of BW/day

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47
Q

How much do rats drink per day?

A

8-11% of BW/day

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48
Q

What are 2 ways to detect estrus in rats?

A

Vaginal cytology

Electrical impedence

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49
Q

When is the earliest GD to palpate rat fetuses transabdominally?

A

10d

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50
Q

Chronic exposure to low light levels results in what peripubertal change/

A

Earlier vaginal opening, ovarian atrophy

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51
Q

What husbandry parameter may contribute to male infertility?

A

high ambient temperatures- irreversible

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52
Q

What is pregnancy wastage?

A

Fetal loss occuring during pregnancy

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53
Q

When do incisors erupt in rats?

A

6-8d

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54
Q

When are pups fully haired?

A

7-10d

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55
Q

When are rat pups first able to hear?

A

9d

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56
Q

When do eyelids open in rats?

A

14-17d

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57
Q

When is the micturition reflex mature in rats? Significance?

A

15d- need stimulation to urinate prior to this

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58
Q

How are embryos preserved prior to implantation into a recipient?

A

PBS and fetal calf serum

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59
Q

When are embyros collected for manipulation?

A

1-5d after breeding

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60
Q

What test differentiates alpha-hemolytic Strep pneumoniae vs other alpha-hemolytic Step samples?

A

optochin inhibition test- Strep pneumo is inhibited, others aren’t

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61
Q

Characteristic fibrinopurulent polyserositis is seen with what bacterial etiology in rats?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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62
Q

What pathologic findings are seen with Strep pneumoniae in rats?

A

inflammation of upper respiratory tract- rhinitis, sinusitis, conjunctivitis, pleuritis, bronchopneumonia, vestibular dz

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63
Q

What pathogenic serotypes of Strep pneumo are found in rats?

A

2,3,8,16,19

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64
Q

How is Strep pneumo diagnosed in rats?

A

Histopath + culture of nasopharyngeal swab on blood agar or PCR of lung/nasopharyngeal swab

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65
Q

What bacteria produces pseudomembranous colitis in germ-free rats?

A

C. difficile

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66
Q

What bacteria is associated with adenocarcinomas in Wistar rats?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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67
Q

What is the causative agent of streptococcal enteropathy in stunted suckling rats?

A

Lancefield Group D enterococci

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68
Q

Causative agent of pseudotuberculosis?

A

Corynebacterium kutscheri

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69
Q

Species that C. kutscheri affects?

A

Rats, mice, GPs, hamsters

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70
Q

What organ is most commonly affected by C. kutscheri in rats?

A

lung

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71
Q

What type of inflammation is seen in pseudotuberculosis?

A

suppurative inflammation with caseous necrosis

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72
Q

How is pseudotuberculosis controlled?

A

Rederivation and bioexclusion

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73
Q

How is pseudotuberculosis diagnosed?

A

PCR of LN, oropharynx, nasopharynx, preputial glands, feces

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74
Q

Causative agent of Tyzzer’s?

A

Clostridium piliforme

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75
Q

What triad of organs are affected by C. piliforme?

A

Intestine, heart, liver

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76
Q

What stains are used to identify C. piliforme?

A

Warthin-Starry, H&E, Giemsa, methylene blue stain

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77
Q

What is the hallmark lesion of Tyzzer’s dz in rats?

A

coagulative necrosis of the liver

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78
Q

What clinical signs are seen with Leptospirosis infection in rats?

A

None- silent carriers

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79
Q

How is Pasteurella pneumotropica diagnosed in rats?

A

culture/PCR screening

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80
Q

How is P. pneumotropica treated in rats?

A

enrofloxacin + rederivation

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81
Q

What Salmonella is usually seen in rats?

A

S. enterica

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82
Q

What pathology is seen with Salmonella infection in rats?

A

mural thickening, mucosal ulcers in cecum and ileum
splenomegaly
white foci on liver

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83
Q

How is Salmonella diagnosed in rats?

A

Culture of mesenteric lymph nodes at nx

PCR of feces

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84
Q

What type of rats have a high incidence of Staph aureus- associated ulcerative dermatitis?

A

Beige rats w Chediak-Hegashi syndrome (NK cell deficiency)

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85
Q

What organ is most affected by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in immunocompromised rats?

A

lung

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86
Q

How is Pseudomonas aeruginosa treated in rats?

A

Gentamycin
Chlorinate/acidify water
Improve environment

87
Q

What is the causative agent of rat bite fever?

A

Strep moniliformis

Spirillum muris in Asia

88
Q

How is Strep moniliformis transmitted in rats?

A

excreted in blood and urine

transmitted by bites, aerosol, fomites

89
Q

What are the two most common Helicobacters id’ed in rats?

A

H. muridarum

H. trogontum

90
Q

How is Helicobacter diagnosed in rats?

A

PCR

91
Q

How is CAR bacillus transmitted?

A

Direct contact

92
Q

What pathology is seen with CAR bacillus infection?

A

suppurative bronchopneumia

93
Q

What stain can be used to ID CAR bacillus?

A

Warthin-starry

Methenamine silver

94
Q

How is CAR bacillus diagnosed?

A

Serology + confirmatory Steiner stain of tracheal mucosal scraping
PCR of nasal swab

95
Q

What is the cause of respiratory mycoplasmosis in rats?

A

Mycoplasma pulmonis

96
Q

How is M. pulmonis transmitted?

A

direct contact, aerosol, in utero

97
Q

What clinical signs are associated with respiratory mycoplasmosis?

A

dyspnea, snuffling, chattering, oculonasal discharge, chromodacryorrhea, eye rubbing
Also: head tilt, infertility, arthritis

98
Q

What disease is associated with ‘cobblestone lung’ on gross necropsy?

A

respiratory mycoplasmosis

99
Q

What is the best method of diagnosing mycoplasmosis in rats?

A

PCR of affected site or nasopharyngeal wash

100
Q

What is the primary cause of early mortality in conventional or non-SPF rat colonies?

A

respiratory mycoplasmosis

101
Q

What is the causative agent of hemobartonellosis in rats?

A

Mycoplasma haemomuris

102
Q

How is Mycoplasma haemomuris transmitted?

A

spiny rat louse (Polyplax spinulosa)

103
Q

What organ is needed to clear infection with Mycoplasma haemomuris?

A

spleen

104
Q

What bacteria is associated with impaired ciliary clearance in multiple species and may lead to bronchopneumonia?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

105
Q

How is Mycoplasma haemomuris treated?

A

Rederivation

106
Q

What family is Sendai virus from?

A

Paramyxoviridae

107
Q

What genus is Sendai virus?

A

Respirovirus

108
Q

How is Sendai transmitted?

A

aerosol, direct contact

109
Q

What rat strains have the most severe lesions with Sendai?

A

BN, LEW

110
Q

What is the best method for diagnosing Sendai?

A

MFIA, then IFA and WB to confirm for monitoring

PCR of trachea and lungs for active infection

111
Q

What is the best way to prevent inadvertent introduction of Sendai into a colony?

A

PCR on all transplantable biological materials

Quarantine with serologic testing

112
Q

How is Sendai eliminated from rat colonies?

A

cease breeding and don’t introduce new mice; burnout in 4-8w

113
Q

What two types of coronaviruses are found in rats?

A

Parker’s rat coronavirus

sialodacryoadenitis virus

114
Q

Are rats infected with one coronavirus protected against infection with the other?

A

No- antigenic differences result in no cross-protection

115
Q

How are coronaviruses transmitted in rats?

A

aerosol, direct contact, fmoites

116
Q

What tissue tropisms do rat coronaviruses have?

A

salivary glands, lacrimal glands, Harderian glands, respiratory epithleium

117
Q

How do endemic infections with coronavirus pressent?

A

mild conjunctivitis in pre-weaning rats

118
Q

how do epizootic infections with coronavirus present?

A

cervical swelling d/t salivary gland edema, oculonasal discharge, photophobia, corneal opacity or ulceration

119
Q

How long do clinical signs last with sialodacryoadenitis virus?

A

7-10 days, reparative process takes ~4w

120
Q

What clinical signs are associated with nude rats affected by coronavirus?

A

persistent infection with wasting

121
Q

How is an outbreak with rat coronavirus controlled?

A

Allow virus to spread through colony, prevent new entries and allow to burn out for 6-8w

122
Q

What 4 parvovirus serotypes infect rats?

A

(1) Kilham’s rat virus (RV)
(2) Toolan’s H-1 virus
(3) Rat parvovirus (RPV)
(4) Rat minute virus (RMV)

123
Q

What is the most pathogenic parvovirus in rats?

A

Kilham’s rat virus (RV)

124
Q

What is the most prevalent virus in domestic rat colonies?

A

Rat parvovirus

125
Q

What is the parvovirus species?

A

Rodent protoparvovirus 1

126
Q

Rat parvovirus has a tropism for what tissue?

A

Lymphoid

127
Q

How is rat parvovirus transmitted?

A

urine/milk, aerosol, direct contact, fomites, transplacental

128
Q

Reduced litter size, runted litters, fetal death, and cyanotic scrotum are associated with what very common rat virus?

A

rat parvovirus

129
Q

Scrotal hemorrhage and cerebellar hypoplasia with intranuclear inclusions are associated with what disease in rats?

A

rat parvovirus

130
Q

PCR for what component of rat parvovirus is cross-reactive with multiple serotypes?

A

NS1

131
Q

PCR for what component of rat parvovirus is highly specific for each serotype?

A

VP2

132
Q

What genus is Theiler’s murine encephalomyelitis virus in and what rat virus is is related to?

A

Cardiovirus

rat theilovirus

133
Q

Where does rat theilovirus replicate

A

small intestinal enterocytes

134
Q

Experimental injection with which theilovirus strain induces paralysis in weanling rats?

A

MHG

135
Q

What is the best way to diagnose rat theilovirus?

A

serology best

PCR of feces/intestine for active infection

136
Q

What is the reservoir host for group B rotavirus in rats?

A

humans (eww)

137
Q

Epithelial syncytia in the small intestine of infant rats is pathognomonic for what disease?

A

group B rotavirus

138
Q

Pneumonia virus of mice is in what family?

A

Paramyxoviridae

139
Q

Pneumonia virus of mice is diagnosed how in rats?

A

serology, PCR of trachea/lungs for active infection

140
Q

How is hantavirus diagnosed in rats?

A

serology

141
Q

Norway rats are natural hosts for what type of hantavirus?

A

Seoul

142
Q

Cotton rats are the primary reservoir for hantaviruses resulting in what syndrome?

A

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

143
Q

Seoul and Hantaan virus result in what syndrome in humans?

A

hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome

144
Q

Hantavirus has a tropism for what tissues?

A

vascular smooth muscle, endothelium

145
Q

What is the reservoir of cowpox virus in Europe?

A

wild rats

146
Q

What are the 3 most significant protozoal diseases in rats?

A

Giardia
Spironucleus
Encephalitozoon

147
Q

Rats are the intermediate host for what apicomplexan parasite that affects cats?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

148
Q

What is a significant side effect of treatment with metronidazole in rats and mice?

A

carcinogenic, teratogenic

149
Q

What is the most common oxyurid of rats?

A

Syphacia muris

150
Q

How is S. muris differentiated from Syphacia obvelata?

A

Syphacia muris slightly smaller with longer tail and smaller eggs that are only slightly flattened on one side

151
Q

How long is the life cycle of Syphacia?

A

11-15d

152
Q

How long is the life cycle of Aspicularis?

A

23-25d

153
Q

How is Aspicularis diagnosed?

A

fecal float, PCR, intestinal contents

154
Q

How is Syphacia diagnosed?

A

PCR, tape test, intestinal contents

155
Q

How are Aspicularis and Syphacia treated?

A

fenbendazole, ivermectin, avermectin, levamisole

156
Q

What nematode infests the urinary bladder of rats?

A

Trichosomoides crassicauda

157
Q

How is Trichosomoides crassicauda diagnosed?

A

urine filtration + exam of filter medium antemortem

postmortem by exam of bladder wall + histopath

158
Q

How is Trichosomoides crassicauda treated?

A

ivermectin

159
Q

What are the two most important cestodes in rats?

A

Rodentolepis nana

Hymenolepis diminuta

160
Q

What cestode can have a direct OR indirect life cycle?

A

Rodentolepis nana

161
Q

How do you differentiate H. diminuta from R. nana?

A

R. nana have a polar filament and hooked rostellum on adults

162
Q

Cysts of Taenia taeniaformis on the liver are associated with what sequela?

A

hepatic sarcoma

163
Q

Where is R. nana found in the GIT?

A

SI

164
Q

What immune response is elicited by infection with cestodes?

A

host Th2 type immune response

165
Q

What is the most common fur mite in rats?

A

Radfordia ensifera

166
Q

What clinical signs are seen with fur mites in rats?

A

Pruritis, 2’ bacterial infection

167
Q

What is the most sensitive way to diagnose fur mites?

A

PCR

168
Q

How are fur mites treated in rats?

A

Selamectin, cross-fostering, rederivation

169
Q

What immune response is elicited by infection with fur mites?

A

host Th2 immune response resulting in elevated IgE

170
Q

What are two blood sucking mites that live in the environment and are only found on rats during feeding?

A

Ornithonyssus bacoti

Laelaps echidnina

171
Q

What is the most common rat louse?

A

Polyplax spinulosa

172
Q

What fungal organism causes uncontrolled proliferation of foamy material in the alveoli when it infects immunocompromised mice?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

173
Q

What stain is used to identify Pneumocystis carinii?

A

methenamine silver stain

174
Q

What disease is caused by Pneumocystis carinii?

A

interstitial pneumonia

175
Q

How is Pneumocystis carinii diagnosed?

A

PCR of lung tissue, serology 6-8w after infection

176
Q

P. carinii infection in rats is a model of what disease?

A

P. jirovecii pneumonitis in humans

177
Q

What are 3 rat models of hypertension?

A

SHR
Fawn-hooded
Dahl salt-sensitive

178
Q

A high incidence of eosinophilic granulomatous pulmonary inflammation is found in what rat strain?

A

brown norway

179
Q

What is the primary use of brown norway rats?

A

allergy and asthma

180
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa is found in what two rat strains?

A

Sprague-Dawley

SHR

181
Q

What organ is NOT affected by polyarteritis nodosa in rats?

A

lung

182
Q

High light levels can result in what 3 conditions?

A

Retinal degeneration
Harderian gland necrosis
Infertility

183
Q

Chloral hydrate administration results in what condition?

A

adynamic ileus up to 5w after administration

184
Q

What anesthetic combination results in corneal lesions due to vasoconstriction of ciliary and iridial vessels?

A

ketamine-xylazine

185
Q

NSAIDS result in what sequelae?

A

renal papillary and tubular necrosis

186
Q

What is the most common tumor type in rats?

A

mammary tumors

187
Q

What type of rat has the highest incidence of mammary gland tumors?

A

SD

Also F344, Wistar Han

188
Q

Interstitial cell tumors are found most often in what rat?

A

F344

189
Q

Pituitary gland tumors are seen most often in what rats?

A

SD, F344, Wistar Han

190
Q

Pituitary gland tumors are most often what origin?

A

Chromophobe adenoma from pars distalis

Prolactin-producing most common

191
Q

What type of adrenal gland tumor is most common in rats?

A

pheochromocytoma

192
Q

What is a major cause of death in F344 rats?

A

large granular lymphocytic leukemia

193
Q

What type of rat is prone to mesothelioma?

A

F344

194
Q

What is the most common congenital abnormality in rats?

A

hydronephrosis

195
Q

What rat strain has the highest incidence of congenital hydronephrosis?

A

Gunn (dominant inheritance)

196
Q

Wistar-kyoto rats have a high incidence of what congenital abnormalities?

A

ventricular septal defects, right ventricular hypertrophy

197
Q

What is the primary use of Wistar-kyoto rats?

A

control for outbred SHR rats

198
Q

What rat is used as a model of audogenic seizures?

A

Wistar

199
Q

What rat type has a predisposition to corneal mineralization?

A

F344

200
Q

The testicular-feminized rat is prone to what condition?

A

tfm is gene

see male pseudohermaphroditism

201
Q

What is one of the most common causes of death in rats on long-term/lifetime studies?

A

chronic progressive nephropathy

202
Q

What sequela of CPN leads to dystrophic mineralization?

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

203
Q

What gender and type of rat most commonly get CPN?

A

male SD, F344

204
Q

Pitting of the cortical surface of the kidney in aged rats is most often due to what condition?

A

CPN

205
Q

Nephrocalcinosis is seen most often in what rats?

A

female F344, BDIX

206
Q

What is deposited in the tissues with nephrocalcinosis?

A

calcium phosphate at the renal corticomedullary junction

207
Q

UTIs are most common in what type of rat?

A

Zucker Diabetic Fatty rat

208
Q

What is a major cause of death in ad lib-fed SD males?

A

chronic myocardial disease

209
Q

What are gross lesions characteristic of chronic myocardial disease?

A

ventricular hypertrophy, pale streaks

210
Q

Age-associated hair loss is most common in what type of rat?

A

BN

211
Q

T or F: Rats show the Whitten and Bruce effect.

A

F

212
Q

When does implantation of the blastocyst occur?

A

5 days

213
Q

How many pairs of mammary glands do rats have?

A

6

214
Q

Reflexive withdrawal from noxious stimulation is observed as early as what embryonic day in the rat?

a. E14
b. E15
c. E16
d. E17
e. E18

A

d. E17

ACLAM 2018 (17 decks)

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