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ACLAM 2018 > Birds > Flashcards

Birds Flashcards

1
Q

Scientific name of zebra finch

A

Taeniopygia guttata

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2
Q

Scientific name?

A

Taeniopygia guttata

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3
Q

Organism found in zebra finches. ID?

A

Macrorhabdus ornithogaster

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4
Q

Mite found in zebra finch. ID?

A

Neocheyletiella parvisetosa

Skin mite that produces silken capsule-like nests on feathers

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5
Q

Primary differential for adult female zebrafinch?

A

Egg yolk coelomitis

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6
Q

Primary differential for aged female zebra finch?

A

Ovarian tumor

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7
Q

Primary differential for zebra finch with clinical presentation shown?

A

Avian polyomavirus- see discreet nodules, unilateral periorbital swelling

IN inclusion bodies on histopath

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8
Q

Cause of lesions in quail?

A

Toe balls due to accumulation of fecal material, food, bedding, and male cloacal gland foam

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9
Q

Scientific name and which of these is male, L or R?

A

Coturnix japonica, male is on L

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10
Q
A
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11
Q

Common name of Serinus canaries

A

Canary

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12
Q

Common name of Sternus vulgaris

A

European starling

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13
Q

Common name of Lonchuria striata domestica

A

society finch

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14
Q

Common name of Passer domesticus

A

house sparrow

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15
Q

Common name of Melopsittacus undulatus

A

Budgeriar

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16
Q

Scientific name of Japanese quail

A

Coturnix japonica

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17
Q

Scientific name of chicken

A

Gallus domesticus

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18
Q

Scientific name of turkey

A

Meleagris gallopovo

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19
Q

Scientific name of pigeon

A

Columba livia

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20
Q

Primary research use of zebra finches

A

Social and motor behaviors, acoustic learning and communication

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21
Q

What is a song motif?

A

stereotyped sequence of syllables repeated in a linear sequence in song

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22
Q

At what age do zebra finches demonstrate mature songs?

A

80-90 days post hatch

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23
Q

T/F: The anterior forebrain pathway is used for both vocal learning and repitition of the adult song.

A

F- it is only used for vocal learning

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24
Q

Describe the chromosomal sex determination of birds.

A

ZZ = male, ZW = female

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25
Q

at what age is a zebra finch considered a: hatchling?

A

1-20dph

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26
Q

at what age is a zebra finch considered a: fledgling?

A

21-35dph

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27
Q

at what age is a zebra finch considered a: juvenile?

A

36-65dph

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28
Q

at what age is a zebra finch considered a: adult?

A

91-365dph

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29
Q

at what age is a zebra finch considered a: mature adult?

A

>1yr

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30
Q

What type of feet do zebra finches have?

A

anisodactylous–>3 digits forward, 1 back

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31
Q

Which side of the reproductive tract is most of ten reproductively active in birds?

A

left

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32
Q

T/F: zebra finches are seasonal breeders.

A

F

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33
Q

How long is the incubation period for zebra finches?

A

11-14d

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34
Q

How do you screen for Chlamydophila or Mycobacterium in zebra finches?

A

PCR of cloaca

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35
Q

Serology is performed for what viral agents in zebra finches?

A

avian influenz,a paramyxovirus

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36
Q

How much space should be provided to zebra finches?

A

1 cubic foot/bird (no regs)

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37
Q

T/F: Zebra finches should be ‘rested’ from breeding by removing nest materials and boxes for a month twice per year.

A

T

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38
Q

What temperature should zebra finches be housed at?

A

70-80F

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39
Q

Signs of a sick bird?

A

Obvious wounds, unexpected feather loss, partially closed eyes, open-mouth breathing, irregular body contour (swelling/ruffling), abnormal perch stance, reluctance to move

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40
Q

T/F: clipping the toe of a perching bird to obtain blood is acceptable.

A

F- unacceptable

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41
Q

How can blood be drawn from birds?

A

R jugular, basilic vein, tibiotarsal vein, ulnar vein

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42
Q

What should be avoided with intracoelomic injections in birds?

A

Air sacs

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43
Q

Males jabbing or pecking at the head of an opponent is known as what behavior?

A

bill fencing

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44
Q

A female zebra finch presents with a swollen caudal coelom, tenesmus, and tail bobbing. How should you treat your primary differential?

A

Primary ddx: egg binding; treat with supplemental heat, diluted calcium gluconate, rehydration, prostaglandin E2 gel; if needed can try manual removal but rarely works

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45
Q

T/F: Oxytocin should be given to dystocia cases in birds.

A

F- oxytocin doesn’t cause uterine contraction in birds

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46
Q

Clinical signs of paramyxovirus 3 (PMV-3)?

A

neurologic signs, diarrhea, respiratory

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47
Q

Avian paramyxovirus 1 is most commonly known as what disease?

A

Newcastle disease

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48
Q

Clinical signs of avian influenza in zebra finches?

A

sudden death, unthriftiness, respiratory and neuro signs

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49
Q

Which strain of influenza results in severe signs and high mortality in zebra finches?

A

H5N1

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50
Q

What virus causes discreet SQ nodules and unilateral periorbital swelling in zebra finches?

A

polyomavirus

51
Q

Histology of avian polyomavirus

A

intranuclear inclusion bodies in multiple organs

52
Q

What are characteristics of avipoxvirus in finches?

A

high mortality in rosy finches, see characteristic Bollinger body intracellular inclusions

53
Q

2 most common mycobacteria in zebra finches?

A

M. avium avium (m reported), M. genavense (m common)

54
Q

3 zoonotic diseases from zebra finches?

A

Mycobacterium avium, Salmonella, Campylobacter jejuni, Chlamydophila psittaci, avian flu

55
Q

How should mycoplasmal conjunctivitis in zebra finches be treated?

A

tetracycline, enrofloxacin, tylosin; or ciprofloxacin eye drops

56
Q

Coccidia that affect zebra finches?

A

Isospora, Eimeria, Cryptosporidium (rare), Sarcocystis, Neospora caninum

57
Q

Flagellates that affect zebra finches?

A

Trichomonas, Cochlosoma

58
Q

What is the ventricular roundworm of zebra finches?

A

Acuaria skrjabini

59
Q

2 zoonotic mites from zebra finches?

A

Dermanyssus gallinae, Ornithonyssus sylvarium

60
Q

Hyperkeratotic lesions on the beak base and feet are characteristic of what?

A

Quill mites or scaly mites, Knemidocoptes pilae

61
Q

How are mites treated?

A

permethrin, ivermectin

62
Q

Primary research use of quail?

A

developmental biology, endocrinology, aging, immunology, behavior, genetics, reproductive biology

63
Q

Order of quail?

A

Galliformes

64
Q

Incubation period for quail?

A

16d

65
Q

Incubation period for chickens?

A

21d

66
Q

How to differentiate quail cells from chicken cells in chimeras?

A

Schiff’s reagent- quail nuclei stain intensely, chicken nuclei don’t

67
Q

What is the preferred amniote model for molecular studies?

A

mouse

68
Q

What is the preferred amniote model for live imaging?

A

birds

69
Q

Quail are a model for what disease that results in myotonic dystrophy and acid maltase deficiency?

A

Pompe’s disease

70
Q

Quiver is a neurofilament-deficient mutant in what species?

A

japanese quail

71
Q

What gland in quail is equivalent to the mammalian prostate?

A

Proctodeal gland or cloacal gland in males

72
Q

Aged female quail are a model for what disease?

A

osteoporosis

73
Q

What is the advantage of using quail in aging studies?

A

hypothalamic systems in quail exhibit neuroplasticity, bone physiology is dynamic

74
Q

How to sex Japanese quail?

A

Males are slightly smaller, see cloacal foam with gentle manual pressure on gland

75
Q

What is the purpose of lower field myopia for quail?

A

Allows focus on ground and horizon simultaneously

76
Q

Auditory range of quail?

A

1-4kHz best

77
Q

An animal showing behavioral components of dust bathing without having this enrichment provided is showing what behavior?

A

vacuum dust bathing

78
Q

T/F: quail require perches

A

F- they are ground dwelling and don’t use them often

79
Q

How many chromosomes do Japanese quail and hcickens have?

A

78

80
Q

How can quail be genotyped immediately after birth?

A

Chorioallantoic membrane on the shell fragments of freshly hatched eggs, feather blood cells, Southern blot

81
Q

At what temperature should quail eggs be kept prior to incubation?

A

13C

82
Q

How much space should be provided for each quail?

A

0.25ft2

83
Q

How high should quail cages be?

A

20-25cm

84
Q

At what temperature should quail be kept?

A

22-25C

85
Q

A high cholesterol diet results in what condition in quail?

A

Hypercholesterolemia and atherosclerosis

86
Q

How should quails and chickens be restrained?

A

Pinning wings against body and letting legs hang or cupping around the wings with both hands

87
Q

When do quail reach sexual maturity?

A

6-8w

88
Q

What is female puberty in production poultry?

A

Average age of first egg laid for the flock

89
Q

What is sexual maturity in production poultry?

A

time at which egg production of the flock reaches 50%

90
Q

When is male puberty for production poultry?

A

First appaerance of secondary sex characteristics like crowing and production of foam

91
Q

What temperature should quail eggs be incubated at?

A

38C, 50-65% RH

92
Q

Most common cause of injuries in quail?

A

Traumatic pecking to the head and back of neck

93
Q

What can decrease the incidence of pecking injuries in poultry?

A

not using multi-male breeding groups, trimming beak and nails

94
Q

Male quail get what tumor most often?

A

Sertoli cell tumor

95
Q

Three most significant infectious viruses of quail?

A

quail bronchitis virus, Newcastle virus, EEE

96
Q

What type of virus is quail bronchitis virus?

A

type 1 avian adenovirus

97
Q

Age most often affected by quail bronchitis virus?

A

<6w

98
Q

Necropsy findings of quail bronchitis virus?

A

tracheal opacity, thickening of trachea with partial obstruction, mucosal exudate; basophilic intranuclear inclusions; necrosis of spleen, liver, cloacal bursa

99
Q

Clinical signs of newcastle disease?

A

subclinical, lethargy, ruffled feathers, dyspnea, torticollis, paralysis, hemorrhagic diarrhea

100
Q

Necropsy findings of Newcastle disease?

A

tracheal hemorrhage, pulmonary edema, proventricular hemorrhage, intestinal congestion

101
Q

Genus of EEE?

A

arbovirus

102
Q

Transmission of EEE?

A

arthropod vectors; cannibalism

103
Q

Characteristic finding of EEE in quail?

A

duodenal catarrhal enteritis

104
Q

Causative agent of egg drop syndrome?

A

duck adenovirus A

105
Q

Causative agent of hydropericardium syndrome?

A

fowl adenovirus serotype 4

106
Q

Most common disease caused by herpesvirus in quail?

A

Marek’s disease

107
Q

Primary differential for weight loss, blepharitis, conjunctivitis, blindness, crusty papules at the commissures of the beak and external nares, and decreased egg production in quail?

A

quail poxvirus

108
Q

Encephalomyelitis, ganglionitis, and proventricular lymphoid hyperplasia are characteristic of what disease?

A

avian encephalomyelitis virus

109
Q

Japanese quail are the natural host for what virus associated with reticulum cell neoplasia and lymphoma?

A

reticuloendotheliosis virus (retrovirus)

110
Q

What causes quail disease?

A

Clostridium colinum

111
Q

Causative agent of fowl typhoid

A

Salmonella gallinarum

112
Q

Causative agent of pullorum disease

A

Salmonella pullorum

113
Q

most common infectious bacterial disease in poultry

A

E. coli

114
Q

T/F: Campylobacter leads to acute gastroenteritis resulting in rapid death in most birds.

A

F- they recover and show few clinical signs

115
Q

Causative agent of fowl cholera

A

Pasteurella multocida

116
Q

Ag Guide limits for ammonia exposure in birds?

A

25ppm ideally, don’t exceed 50ppm

117
Q

Can nest boxes be added to the floor space when calculating space requirements for birds?

A

No (Ag Guide)

118
Q

Vertical distance between tiers of aviary caging for Ag poultry should be max how far apart?

A

0.5-1m

119
Q

Horizontal distance between tiers of aviary caging for Ag poultry should be max how far apart?

A

0.8m if they will fly between them; at least 2m if not

120
Q

Height of tiers for aviary caging in Ag poultry should be a max of what height?

A

2m

121
Q

Chickens raised under USDA organic provisions must have access to what?

A

outdoor space

122
Q

Poorly sized perches for poultry result in what?

A

Keel malformations

123
Q

What are standard agricultural practices for poultry?

A

beak trimming, toe trimming (only benefits turkeys), snood removal (only if <3w), dubbing (comb/wattle removal, only if in cages where they will be injured), pinioning (not ok), induced molt (non-fasting better than fasting)

ACLAM 2018 (17 decks)

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