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ACLAM 2018 > OSHA and biohazards > Flashcards

OSHA and biohazards Flashcards

1
Q

What are experiment-related infectious agents or toxins of biological origin that are hazardous to humans and animals and require biological containment?

A

biological hazard

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2
Q

What is biocontainment?

A

Safe methods, facilities, and equipment for managing infectious materials and biological toxins in the environment where they are being handled or maintained

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3
Q

What are animals exposed to pathogenic organisms or biolgocial toxins, their tissues, and associated waste considered?

A

hazardous materials

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4
Q

What process should be used to establish appropriate safeguards and biosafety levels to protect personnel from biohazards?

A

risk assessment

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5
Q

What organization makes vaccine recommendations to US government agencies?

A

ACIP (advisory committee on immunization practices)

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6
Q

What is the fundamental objective of a biosafety program?

A

containment of potentially hazardous biological agents and toxins

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7
Q

What ABSL level should animals in studies of agricultural agents of interest be housed in?

A

BSL-3-Ag

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8
Q

What pressurization should be used in a facility for containment?

A

negative pressure

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9
Q

Why should HVAC systems be redundant?

A

to prevent positive pressurization with HVAC failure

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10
Q

What is a primary barrier?

A

safety equipment and engineering standards that minimize exposure to hazards

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11
Q

What is the principle device used to contain biohazards?

A

Biological safety cabinet

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12
Q

What is a secondary barrier?

A

Barriers incorporated into the facility design

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13
Q

Airlocks, directional flow ventilation, and autoclaves are examples of what type of barrier?

A

secondary

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14
Q

A BSC is an example of what type of barrier?

A

primary

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15
Q

Who oversees select agents?

A

USDA

DHHS

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16
Q

Does an animal exposed to a select toxin in a lab need to be housed in a CDC-registered space?

A

no

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17
Q

Does an animal that is exposed to a select toxin in the housing area need to be housed in CDC-registered space?

A

Yes

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18
Q

Does an animal exposed to an infectious select agent need to be housed in CDC-registered space?

A

Yes- also needs to be tracked as part of select agent inventory

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19
Q

How long must animals infected with an infectious select agent be monitored?

A

Until the animal or their tissues are proven to be inactivated

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20
Q

What is the final physical barrier used to prevent hazard exposure?

A

PPE

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21
Q

Respiratory protection programs must include what element?

A

(1) Medical clearance to wear the respiratory
(2) Fit testing
(3) Training on use/disposal or disinfection/maintenance/storage

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22
Q

When should a sharps container be closed and replaced?

A

When it is 2/3 - 3/4 full

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23
Q

Which 4 federal agencies govern biohazard disposal?

A

OSHA
DOT
EPA
FDA

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24
Q

The maintenance of environmental conditions conducive to the health and well-being of the animal is what?

A

sanitation

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25
Q

The removal of gross contamination from an animal housing area is what?

A

cleaning

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26
Q

The reduction or elimination of microorganisms is what?

A

Disinfection

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27
Q

Handling of infected animals that may cause aerosolization should occur where?

A

In a BSC

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28
Q

What committees may need to be involved for research involving biohazards?

A

IACUC
IBC
NIH Office of Biotechnology Activities (now Office of Science Policy)
CDC select agent program

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29
Q

What is a small proteinaceous particle with no detectable nucleic acid?

A

prion

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30
Q

What is a material with 1,2, or 3 dimensions in the 1- to 100-nm size range?

A

nano-object

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31
Q

What is a nano-object with all three external dimensions at the nanoscale?

A

nanoparticle

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32
Q

How can nano-objects be internalized?

A

(1) Inhalation
(2) ingestion
(3) Dermal exposure
(4) movement from nose to brain via BBB

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33
Q

The ultimate responsibility for review and approval of animal use lies with what committee?

A

IACUC

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34
Q

At what ABSL levels must an institution have a biological safety officer?

A

BSL-3 and BSL-4 work

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35
Q

What act established the CDC select agent program?

A

the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996

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36
Q

What act established the USDA select agent program?

A

Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act of 2002

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37
Q

Who has the responsibility to ensure worker safety?

A

The institution

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38
Q

What are components of an OSHA program?

A

(1) preplacement medical evals
(2) vaccines
(3) periodic medical evaluation
(4) medical support for occupational illness/injury

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39
Q

Who should be enrolled in an occ health program?

A

anyone with access to animal facilities

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40
Q

When can an IND vaccine be used?

A

when no FDA-licensed vaccine is available and risk assessment determines it’s necessary

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41
Q

Who should have training for access to hazardous materials or biocontainment labs?

A

ALL personnel with access, including custodial or maintenance workers

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42
Q

What type of virus is monkeypox?

A

Orthopoxvirus

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43
Q

How is monkeypox differentiated from smallpox?

A

Monkeypox has peripheral lymphadenopathy, smallpox doesn’t

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44
Q

What vaccine can protect against monkeypox?

A

smallpox virus

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45
Q

Which has milder disease- Congo Basin clade or West African clade of monkeypox?

A

West African clade- milder dz, lower mortality, rarer transmission

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46
Q

What kind of virus is yaba-like disease virus?

A

Yatapoxvirus

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47
Q

What does yaba-like disease virus cause?

A

OrTeCa pox or benign epidermal monkeypox

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48
Q

Yaba monkey tumor virus is found naturally in what species?

A

rhesus, baboons

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49
Q

How is yaba monkey tumor virus transmitted?

A

arthropod, tattoo, trauma naturally; aerosol in experimental infxn

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50
Q

What clinical signs are seen in humans with yaba monkey tumor virus?

A

small massess that regress over time

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51
Q

Orf virus is what type of virus?

A

parapoxvirus

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52
Q

What is the host of orf?

A

sheep, goats, wild ungulates

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53
Q

What are clinical signs of orf in humans?

A

umbilicated lesion on extremity with regression after 3-6w

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54
Q

What is the best way to prevent orf?

A

wear gloves, wash hands, disinfect clothes after handling sheep/goats

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55
Q

T/F: Hemorrhagic fevers are RNA viruses

A

T

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56
Q

What are the reservoirs of hemorrhagic fevers?

A

nhps, rodents

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57
Q

What type of virus is yellow fever?

A

flavivirus

58
Q

What type of virus is Dengue?

A

flavivirus

59
Q

How is yellow fever transmitted?

A

Aedes mosquitos

60
Q

What two forms of disease are present with yellow fever?

A

sylvatic

urban

61
Q

What is the classic lesion in yellow fever?

A

massive, midzonal necrotyzing hepatitis with characteristic eosinophilic IC inclusion bodies (councilman bodies)

62
Q

You are running a quarantine and have a monkey suspected to have yellow fever infection. How soon do you have to report this to the CDC?

A

Within 24hrs

63
Q

Monkeys imported from areas with yellow fever should have a certification that states what?

A

(1) they originate in a yellow-fever free area
(2) they were housed in double-screened, mosquito-proof enclsoures
(3) they were vaccinated against yellow fever

64
Q

What type of virus is marburg virus?

A

filoviridae

65
Q

What vaccine is available for yellow fever?

A

MLV-attenuated 17D vaccine

66
Q

How is marburg virus transmitted?

A

mucous membrane or skin exposure, STD, parenteral transmission; experimentally aerosol

67
Q

How is marburg virus diagnosed?

A

PCR, ELISA

68
Q

What BSL containment procedures are required for marburg virus?

A

BSL-4

69
Q

What type of virus is ebola?

A

filoviridae

70
Q

What ebola strain results in the highest mortality?

A

Zaire

71
Q

What ebola strain results in the mildest clinical signs

A

Reston

72
Q

What workers are at highest risk of ebola exposure?

A

NHP quarantine workers

73
Q

What type of virus is Hantavirus?

A

bunyaviridae

74
Q

A lab is working with wild-caught Peromyscus from an area with endemic hantavirus. What ABSL level should they be housed at?

A

ABSL-4

75
Q

What type of virus is LCMV?

A

arenavirus

76
Q

Placement of open-top hamster cages in high traffic areas has been associated with increased zoonotic risk with what disease?

A

LCMV

77
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic technique for herpes b?

A

direct virus isolation

78
Q

Where must virus isolation of herpes b be performed?

A

BSL4 containment

79
Q

What two species are the most at risk for rabies transmission to handlers in the lab?

A

wild-caught rabbits and woodchucks

80
Q

T/F: woodchuck hepatitis virus is zoonotic

A

F

81
Q

What is the primary reservoir for hepatitis A?

A

humans

82
Q

What type of virus is hepatitis A?

A

genus enterovirus

Picornaviridae

83
Q

What type of virus is hepatitis E?

A

Hepevirus

84
Q

What is the reservoir for hepatitis E?

A

only hepatitis virus where animals (pigs) are reservoir

85
Q

What population is most at risk for fatalities due to hepatitis E?

A

pregnant women

86
Q

How is hepatitis E transmitted?

A
  • -undercooked contaminated animal meat or liver

- -fecal-oral from infected animals

87
Q

What clinical signs are present with human cases of infection with SIV?

A

none

88
Q

What type of virus is SIV?

A

lentivirus

89
Q

What type of NHP is resistant to infection with simian retrovirus?

A

NWM

90
Q

What type of virus is newcastle disease?

A

paramyxovirus

91
Q

What is the reservoir host for measles?

A

humans

92
Q

What are symptoms of newcastle disease in humans?

A

conjunctivitis, mild fever, respiratory signs; rarely fatal

93
Q

What is the causative agent of murine typhus?

A

Rickettsia typhi

94
Q

What is the reservoir of murine typhus?

A

rats

95
Q

How is murine typhus transmitted

A

fleas (Xenopsylla cheopis, Nasopsyllus fasciatus)

96
Q

What is a sequela of murine typhus

A

deafness

97
Q

What is the causative agent of rickettsial pox?

A

Rickettsia akari

98
Q

What is the natural host of rickettsial pox?

A

mice

99
Q

What is the reservoir for Q fever?

A

sheep

100
Q

What is the most common human chlamydial infection?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis, not zoonotic

101
Q

What is the most frequent source of virulent human chlamydial infection?

A

birds with Chlamydia psittaci

102
Q

how is chlamydia spread?

A

direct contact, aerosol

103
Q

What is the most serious public health threat from bites and scratches?

A

Rabies

followed by bacterial infection

104
Q

What is the most common oral organism isolated from dog/cat bites?

A

Pasteurella multocida

105
Q

What is the most common nontuberculous mycobacterium to cause disease in a lab setting?

A

Mycobacterium marinum

106
Q

Causative agent of cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

107
Q

Cat scratch disease can cause what sequella in immunocompromised individuals?

A

bacillary epithelioid angiomatosis

108
Q

What is characteristic of bubonic plague?

A

fever with large, tender, swollen LN

109
Q

What are the three types of plague caused by Yersinia pestis?

A

(1) bubonic
(2) septicemic
(3) pneumonic

110
Q

What is Weil’s disease?

A

Syndrome associated with Leptospirosis that causes hepatic and renal dysfunction followed by circulatory collapse

111
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Shigella?

A

humans

112
Q

What two bacteria can cause whooping-cough like dz?

A

Bordatella pertussis
Bordatella bronchiseptica
d/t production of dermatonecrotoxin

113
Q

What vaccine is available for Tb?

A

BCG

114
Q

What is the causative agent of amoebic colitis?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

115
Q

What type of tick can infest kennels and vivaria?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

116
Q

What is the most likely occupational illness for lab animal workers?

A

allergy

117
Q

What is the most frequent zoonosis in lab animal medicine?

A

dermatophytes

118
Q

What workers are at highest risk for injury?

A

workers with <2y experience and veterinary residents

119
Q

What is industrial hygiene?

A

practice of prevention/controlling environmental factors in the workplace that can cause impaired health or significant discomfort among workers

120
Q

When is a biosafety officer required at an institution?

A

(1) NIH funding
(2) engage in research with recombinant or synthetic molecules for BSL3 or 5 work or research or production activities producing more than 10L of this material

121
Q

What are the 4 major types of workplace hazards?

A

physical
chemical
biological
psychosocial

122
Q

2 examples of physical workplace hazards?

A

heat, noise, vibration, scratches, bites, strain, sharp objects

123
Q

2 examples of chemical workplace hazards?

A

formaldehyde, ethanol, phenol, potassium permanganate, N2O, CO

124
Q

What is N2O exposure associated with?

A

infertility and abortion

125
Q

What is phenol exposure associated with?

A

neuro, respiratory, cardiac toxicity

126
Q

What is potassium permanganate exposure associated with?

A

corrosive

burns, gastritis/perforation

127
Q

CO affects what system?

A

CNS- displaces CO2 and O2

128
Q

2 examples of biological workplace hazards?

A

Tb, influenza, hantavirus, Q fever, Campy, Salmonella, Shigella, etc.

129
Q

What is a major source of inhaled allargic proteins?

A

mouse and rat urine

130
Q

What is the most allergenic animal used in lab animal medicine?

A

rabbits

131
Q

What is the best method of controlling exposure to a hazard?

A

eliminating the hazard

132
Q

What is the exposure limit for formaldehyde per day?

A

0.75ppm

133
Q

Workers working with NHP tissues or human tissues and fluids must have what type of training?

A

bloodborne pathogen training

134
Q

What is the limit for noise exposure in an 8-hour day?

A

85dBA

135
Q

What must occur if workers are exposed to noises >85dBA?

A

a noise monitoring program must be instituted

136
Q

What is the TWA exposure limit for ammonia according to OSHA?

A

50ppm

137
Q

What is the TWA exposure limit for carbon dioxide according to OSHA?

A

5000ppm

138
Q

What is the TWA exposure limit for carbon monoxide according to OSHA?

A

50ppm

139
Q

What is the NIOSH TWA exposure limit for nitrous oxide?

A

25ppm

140
Q

What is the NIOSH TWA exposure limit for halothane?

A

2ppm

ACLAM 2018 (17 decks)

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