OSHA and biohazards Flashcards
(140 cards)
1
Q
What are experiment-related infectious agents or toxins of biological origin that are hazardous to humans and animals and require biological containment?
A
biological hazard
2
Q
What is biocontainment?
A
Safe methods, facilities, and equipment for managing infectious materials and biological toxins in the environment where they are being handled or maintained
3
Q
What are animals exposed to pathogenic organisms or biolgocial toxins, their tissues, and associated waste considered?
A
hazardous materials
4
Q
What process should be used to establish appropriate safeguards and biosafety levels to protect personnel from biohazards?
A
risk assessment
5
Q
What organization makes vaccine recommendations to US government agencies?
A
ACIP (advisory committee on immunization practices)
6
Q
What is the fundamental objective of a biosafety program?
A
containment of potentially hazardous biological agents and toxins
7
Q
What ABSL level should animals in studies of agricultural agents of interest be housed in?
A
BSL-3-Ag
8
Q
What pressurization should be used in a facility for containment?
A
negative pressure
9
Q
Why should HVAC systems be redundant?
A
to prevent positive pressurization with HVAC failure
10
Q
What is a primary barrier?
A
safety equipment and engineering standards that minimize exposure to hazards
11
Q
What is the principle device used to contain biohazards?
A
Biological safety cabinet
12
Q
What is a secondary barrier?
A
Barriers incorporated into the facility design
13
Q
Airlocks, directional flow ventilation, and autoclaves are examples of what type of barrier?
A
secondary
14
Q
A BSC is an example of what type of barrier?
A
primary
15
Q
Who oversees select agents?
A
USDA
DHHS
16
Q
Does an animal exposed to a select toxin in a lab need to be housed in a CDC-registered space?
A
no
17
Q
Does an animal that is exposed to a select toxin in the housing area need to be housed in CDC-registered space?
A
Yes
18
Q
Does an animal exposed to an infectious select agent need to be housed in CDC-registered space?
A
Yes- also needs to be tracked as part of select agent inventory
19
Q
How long must animals infected with an infectious select agent be monitored?
A
Until the animal or their tissues are proven to be inactivated
20
Q
What is the final physical barrier used to prevent hazard exposure?
A
PPE
21
Q
Respiratory protection programs must include what element?
A
(1) Medical clearance to wear the respiratory
(2) Fit testing
(3) Training on use/disposal or disinfection/maintenance/storage
22
Q
When should a sharps container be closed and replaced?
A
When it is 2/3 - 3/4 full
23
Q
Which 4 federal agencies govern biohazard disposal?
A
OSHA
DOT
EPA
FDA
24
Q
The maintenance of environmental conditions conducive to the health and well-being of the animal is what?
A
sanitation
25
The removal of gross contamination from an animal housing area is what?
cleaning
26
The reduction or elimination of microorganisms is what?
Disinfection
27
Handling of infected animals that may cause aerosolization should occur where?
In a BSC
28
What committees may need to be involved for research involving biohazards?
IACUC
IBC
NIH Office of Biotechnology Activities (now Office of Science Policy)
CDC select agent program
29
What is a small proteinaceous particle with no detectable nucleic acid?
prion
30
What is a material with 1,2, or 3 dimensions in the 1- to 100-nm size range?
nano-object
31
What is a nano-object with all three external dimensions at the nanoscale?
nanoparticle
32
How can nano-objects be internalized?
(1) Inhalation
(2) ingestion
(3) Dermal exposure
(4) movement from nose to brain via BBB
33
The ultimate responsibility for review and approval of animal use lies with what committee?
IACUC
34
At what ABSL levels must an institution have a biological safety officer?
BSL-3 and BSL-4 work
35
What act established the CDC select agent program?
the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996
36
What act established the USDA select agent program?
Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act of 2002
37
Who has the responsibility to ensure worker safety?
The institution
38
What are components of an OSHA program?
(1) preplacement medical evals
(2) vaccines
(3) periodic medical evaluation
(4) medical support for occupational illness/injury
39
Who should be enrolled in an occ health program?
anyone with access to animal facilities
40
When can an IND vaccine be used?
when no FDA-licensed vaccine is available and risk assessment determines it's necessary
41
Who should have training for access to hazardous materials or biocontainment labs?
ALL personnel with access, including custodial or maintenance workers
42
What type of virus is monkeypox?
Orthopoxvirus
43
How is monkeypox differentiated from smallpox?
Monkeypox has peripheral lymphadenopathy, smallpox doesn't
44
What vaccine can protect against monkeypox?
smallpox virus
45
Which has milder disease- Congo Basin clade or West African clade of monkeypox?
West African clade- milder dz, lower mortality, rarer transmission
46
What kind of virus is yaba-like disease virus?
Yatapoxvirus
47
What does yaba-like disease virus cause?
OrTeCa pox or benign epidermal monkeypox
48
Yaba monkey tumor virus is found naturally in what species?
rhesus, baboons
49
How is yaba monkey tumor virus transmitted?
arthropod, tattoo, trauma naturally; aerosol in experimental infxn
50
What clinical signs are seen in humans with yaba monkey tumor virus?
small massess that regress over time
51
Orf virus is what type of virus?
parapoxvirus
52
What is the host of orf?
sheep, goats, wild ungulates
53
What are clinical signs of orf in humans?
umbilicated lesion on extremity with regression after 3-6w
54
What is the best way to prevent orf?
wear gloves, wash hands, disinfect clothes after handling sheep/goats
55
T/F: Hemorrhagic fevers are RNA viruses
T
56
What are the reservoirs of hemorrhagic fevers?
nhps, rodents
57
What type of virus is yellow fever?
flavivirus
58
What type of virus is Dengue?
flavivirus
59
How is yellow fever transmitted?
Aedes mosquitos
60
What two forms of disease are present with yellow fever?
sylvatic
| urban
61
What is the classic lesion in yellow fever?
massive, midzonal necrotyzing hepatitis with characteristic eosinophilic IC inclusion bodies (councilman bodies)
62
You are running a quarantine and have a monkey suspected to have yellow fever infection. How soon do you have to report this to the CDC?
Within 24hrs
63
Monkeys imported from areas with yellow fever should have a certification that states what?
(1) they originate in a yellow-fever free area
(2) they were housed in double-screened, mosquito-proof enclsoures
(3) they were vaccinated against yellow fever
64
What type of virus is marburg virus?
filoviridae
65
What vaccine is available for yellow fever?
MLV-attenuated 17D vaccine
66
How is marburg virus transmitted?
mucous membrane or skin exposure, STD, parenteral transmission; experimentally aerosol
67
How is marburg virus diagnosed?
PCR, ELISA
68
What BSL containment procedures are required for marburg virus?
BSL-4
69
What type of virus is ebola?
filoviridae
70
What ebola strain results in the highest mortality?
Zaire
71
What ebola strain results in the mildest clinical signs
Reston
72
What workers are at highest risk of ebola exposure?
NHP quarantine workers
73
What type of virus is Hantavirus?
bunyaviridae
74
A lab is working with wild-caught Peromyscus from an area with endemic hantavirus. What ABSL level should they be housed at?
ABSL-4
75
What type of virus is LCMV?
arenavirus
76
Placement of open-top hamster cages in high traffic areas has been associated with increased zoonotic risk with what disease?
LCMV
77
What is the gold standard diagnostic technique for herpes b?
direct virus isolation
78
Where must virus isolation of herpes b be performed?
BSL4 containment
79
What two species are the most at risk for rabies transmission to handlers in the lab?
wild-caught rabbits and woodchucks
80
T/F: woodchuck hepatitis virus is zoonotic
F
81
What is the primary reservoir for hepatitis A?
humans
82
What type of virus is hepatitis A?
genus enterovirus
| Picornaviridae
83
What type of virus is hepatitis E?
Hepevirus
84
What is the reservoir for hepatitis E?
only hepatitis virus where animals (pigs) are reservoir
85
What population is most at risk for fatalities due to hepatitis E?
pregnant women
86
How is hepatitis E transmitted?
- -undercooked contaminated animal meat or liver
| - -fecal-oral from infected animals
87
What clinical signs are present with human cases of infection with SIV?
none
88
What type of virus is SIV?
lentivirus
89
What type of NHP is resistant to infection with simian retrovirus?
NWM
90
What type of virus is newcastle disease?
paramyxovirus
91
What is the reservoir host for measles?
humans
92
What are symptoms of newcastle disease in humans?
conjunctivitis, mild fever, respiratory signs; rarely fatal
93
What is the causative agent of murine typhus?
Rickettsia typhi
94
What is the reservoir of murine typhus?
rats
95
How is murine typhus transmitted
fleas (Xenopsylla cheopis, Nasopsyllus fasciatus)
96
What is a sequela of murine typhus
deafness
97
What is the causative agent of rickettsial pox?
Rickettsia akari
98
What is the natural host of rickettsial pox?
mice
99
What is the reservoir for Q fever?
sheep
100
What is the most common human chlamydial infection?
Chlamydia trachomatis, not zoonotic
101
What is the most frequent source of virulent human chlamydial infection?
birds with Chlamydia psittaci
102
how is chlamydia spread?
direct contact, aerosol
103
What is the most serious public health threat from bites and scratches?
Rabies
| followed by bacterial infection
104
What is the most common oral organism isolated from dog/cat bites?
Pasteurella multocida
105
What is the most common nontuberculous mycobacterium to cause disease in a lab setting?
Mycobacterium marinum
106
Causative agent of cat scratch disease
Bartonella henselae
107
Cat scratch disease can cause what sequella in immunocompromised individuals?
bacillary epithelioid angiomatosis
108
What is characteristic of bubonic plague?
fever with large, tender, swollen LN
109
What are the three types of plague caused by Yersinia pestis?
(1) bubonic
(2) septicemic
(3) pneumonic
110
What is Weil's disease?
Syndrome associated with Leptospirosis that causes hepatic and renal dysfunction followed by circulatory collapse
111
What is the primary reservoir for Shigella?
humans
112
What two bacteria can cause whooping-cough like dz?
Bordatella pertussis
Bordatella bronchiseptica
d/t production of dermatonecrotoxin
113
What vaccine is available for Tb?
BCG
114
What is the causative agent of amoebic colitis?
Entamoeba histolytica
115
What type of tick can infest kennels and vivaria?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus
116
What is the most likely occupational illness for lab animal workers?
allergy
117
What is the most frequent zoonosis in lab animal medicine?
dermatophytes
118
What workers are at highest risk for injury?
workers with <2y experience and veterinary residents
119
What is industrial hygiene?
practice of prevention/controlling environmental factors in the workplace that can cause impaired health or significant discomfort among workers
120
When is a biosafety officer required at an institution?
(1) NIH funding
(2) engage in research with recombinant or synthetic molecules for BSL3 or 5 work or research or production activities producing more than 10L of this material
121
What are the 4 major types of workplace hazards?
physical
chemical
biological
psychosocial
122
2 examples of physical workplace hazards?
heat, noise, vibration, scratches, bites, strain, sharp objects
123
2 examples of chemical workplace hazards?
formaldehyde, ethanol, phenol, potassium permanganate, N2O, CO
124
What is N2O exposure associated with?
infertility and abortion
125
What is phenol exposure associated with?
neuro, respiratory, cardiac toxicity
126
What is potassium permanganate exposure associated with?
*corrosive*
| burns, gastritis/perforation
127
CO affects what system?
CNS- displaces CO2 and O2
128
2 examples of biological workplace hazards?
Tb, influenza, hantavirus, Q fever, Campy, Salmonella, Shigella, etc.
129
What is a major source of inhaled allargic proteins?
mouse and rat urine
130
What is the most allergenic animal used in lab animal medicine?
rabbits
131
What is the best method of controlling exposure to a hazard?
eliminating the hazard
132
What is the exposure limit for formaldehyde per day?
0.75ppm
133
Workers working with NHP tissues or human tissues and fluids must have what type of training?
bloodborne pathogen training
134
What is the limit for noise exposure in an 8-hour day?
85dBA
135
What must occur if workers are exposed to noises >85dBA?
a noise monitoring program must be instituted
136
What is the TWA exposure limit for ammonia according to OSHA?
50ppm
137
What is the TWA exposure limit for carbon dioxide according to OSHA?
5000ppm
138
What is the TWA exposure limit for carbon monoxide according to OSHA?
50ppm
139
What is the NIOSH TWA exposure limit for nitrous oxide?
25ppm
140
What is the NIOSH TWA exposure limit for halothane?
2ppm
