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ACLAM 2018 > Dogs > Flashcards

Dogs Flashcards

1
Q

Scientific name of the dog

A

Canis lupus familiaris

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2
Q

Family of dogs?

A

Canidae

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3
Q

Order of dogs?

A

Carnivora

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4
Q

Most common breed of dog used in research?

A

beagle

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5
Q

Gray collies are a model for what?

A

cyclic hematopoiesis

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6
Q

Golden retrievers are a model for what?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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7
Q

What are the genetics of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

x-linked recessive deletion of dystrophin gene

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8
Q

Doberman pinschers are a model for what?

A

hereditary canine spinal muscle atrophy; narcolepsy

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9
Q

Bedlington terriers are a model for what?

A

Copper storage dz (Wilson’s dz)

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10
Q

A breeder who raises all animals on their premises from a closed colony is what type of dealer?

A

Class A

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11
Q

A breeder who purchases dogs from other facilities to sell to research is what type of dealer?

A

Class B

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12
Q

Can NIH researchers use dogs from Class B dealers?

A

No as of 2015

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13
Q

What are conditioned dogs?

A

random-source dogs that have been treated and vaccinated in preparation for research

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14
Q

What is AAFCO?

A

Association of American Feed Control Officials

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15
Q

What does AAFCO do?

A

Advisory body that provides mechanism for feed standards

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16
Q

What is an open-formula diet?

A

defined concentration of all ingredients, info publicly available

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17
Q

What is a closed-formula diet?

A

diet that meets minimum label requirements; exact composition of ingredients may vary from batch to batch and information isn’t publicly available

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18
Q

What is a fixed-formula diet?

A

Quantitative ingredient formulation doesn’t change but info is proprietary

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19
Q

What is a purified diet?

A

Formulated from purified ingredients

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20
Q

How long after the mill date does feed expire?

A

6 mo

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21
Q

What age beagles have the best conception rates?

A

2-3.5yo

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22
Q

Length of gestation in dogs?

A

60-65d

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23
Q

A vaginal smear from a bitch shows intermediate and superficial cells, RBCs, and neutrophils with some anuclear squames. What stage of estrus is she most likely in?

A

proestrus

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24
Q

A vaginal smear from a bitch shows mostly anuclear squames and superficial cells. What stage of estrus is she most likely in?

A

estrus

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25
Q

A vaginal smear shows mostly intermediate cells with superficial cells, squames and neutrophils. What stage of estrus is she most likely in?

A

early diestrus

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26
Q

When a dog is in anestrus, what is seen on the vaginal cytology?

A

small numbers of parabasal and intermediate cells

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27
Q

What type of placentation do dogs have?

A

Endotheliochorial deciduate zonal placentation

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28
Q

What hormone is responsible for pregnancy maintenance in dogs?

A

progesterone

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29
Q

What effects does progesterone have during pregnancy?

A

endometrial gland growth, uterine milk secretion, placental attachment, inhibition of uterine motility

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30
Q

What is a possible predictor of impending parturition in dogs?

A

temperature drop to less than 100F

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31
Q

What is the Ferguson reflex?

A

Oxytocin release as a fetus engages the cervix

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32
Q

What are the three stages of parturition?

A

1- cervical dilation
2- expulsion of fetuses
3- expulsion of placenta

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33
Q

When should veterinary care be sought for a dog in parturition?

A

No pups for >5hrs or >2hrs between pups

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34
Q

When do puppy eyes open?

A

12d

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35
Q

When do puppy ears open?

A

12-20d

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36
Q

When are puppies weaned?

A

6-8w

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37
Q

What type of catheter is used for transcervical catheterization for intrauterine AI?

A

Norwegian AI catheter

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38
Q

What is the hormonal cause of pseudopregnancy in dogs?

A

Decreasing progesterone at the end of diestrus leads to clinical signs

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39
Q

What is the socialization period of dogs with other dogs? With people?

A

3-8w for other dogs

5-12w for people

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40
Q

Most common causes of canine infectious respiratory disease?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica,
Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus,
Canine parainfluenza virus,
Canine influenza virus

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41
Q

Clinical signs of a mild respiratory infection?

A

Acute onset loud, dry, hacking cough with cough elicited on tracheal palpation

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42
Q

Transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica?

A

Aerosoll, direct contact

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43
Q

Diagnosis of canine respiratory disease?

A

clinical signs, known history of exposure, isolation in nasal swabs

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44
Q

How is kennel cough treated?

A

reserve abx for severe/persistent infection since dz course is 10-14d regardless of tx; give supportive care +/- bronchodilators

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45
Q

What is the most common Group C streptococcus to infect dogs?

A

Strep zooepidemicus

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46
Q

T/F: Strep zooepidemicus is commensal in healthy dogs.

A

No- opportunistic pathogen

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47
Q

A dog dies peracutely. Necropsy reveals bulls-eye lesions on the pleural surface of affected lobes. What is your primary differential?

A

Strep zooepidemicus

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48
Q

Your facility has an outbreak of canine respiratory disease due to Strep zooepidemicus. How do you control it?

A

Quarantine affected dogs, disinfect fomites

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49
Q

What types of Leptospirosis cause renal and hepatic disease?

A

Canicola, Bratislava, Grippotyphosa

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50
Q

What types of Leptospirosis cause primarily hepatic disease?

A

Icterohaemorrhagiae, Pomona

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51
Q

What are clinical signs of acute leptospirosis in dogs?

A

lethargy, depression, stiffness, vx, anorexia, renal or hepatic failure

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52
Q

.What reproductive sequelae are associated with leptospirosis?

A

Abortion, stillbirth

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53
Q

Peracute death with interstitial nephritis with gross renal swelling, lung swelling, and hepatic foci of hemorrhage and necrosis are characteristic of what disease in dogs?

A

leptospirosis

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54
Q

What is the first-line treatment for leptospirosis?

A

doxycycline + aggressive fluid therapy

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55
Q

T/F: Most dogs are asymptomatic carriers of Campylobacter jejuni.

A

T.

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56
Q

What pathology is associated with Campy jejuni enterotoxin?

A

Dilated, fluid-filled bowel loops with few histo lesions

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57
Q

What pathology is associated with Campy jejuni cytotoxin?

A

friable, hemorrhagic mucosal surface with ulceration

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58
Q

What stain is used to visualize Campy jejuni?

A

Warthin-starry silver stain

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59
Q

How is Campylobacter diagnosed?

A

Culture, dark field/phase contrast microscopy

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60
Q

How is Listeria diagnosed?

A

Paired serology for surveillance, PCR for active cases

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61
Q

What two types of Helicobacter infect dogs?

A

Gastric group,

Enterohepatic group

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62
Q

What allows gastric Helicobacters to survive in the stomach?

A

Urease +

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63
Q

What stain is used to identify Helicobacter in dogs?

A

Warthin-starry silver

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64
Q

The urea breath test has a high specificity and sensitivity for diagnosis of what organism?

A

gastric Helicobacter

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65
Q

Carnivore protoparvovirus 1 is more commonly known as what?

A

Canine parvovirus strain 2

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66
Q

Which parvovirus strain causes disease in adult dogs?

A

2c

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67
Q

What cells does canine parvovirus have a tropism for?

A

rapidly dividing cells in intestine, bone marrow, lymphoid tissues

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68
Q

How is parvo diagnosed?

A

fecal ELISA; PCR for strain identification; post-mortem histology

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69
Q

What are characteristic histologic findings of canine parvo?

A

necrosis and dilation of intestinal crypt cells with secondary villous collapse

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70
Q

What are the three stages of rabies?

A

prodromal, furious, paralytic

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71
Q

How is rabies definitively diagnosed?

A

IFA of virus in negri bodies of hippocampal cells within 48hrs of death

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72
Q

How is Giardia diagnosed?

A

direct fecal smear, zinc sulfate, SNAP test (expensive and gives false positives)

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73
Q

How is Toxocara canis transmitted?

A

Transplacental, transmammary, fecal-oral

74
Q

What are the two most common hookworm species of dogs?

A

Ancylostoma caninum, A. braziliense

75
Q

What should be given to pregnant bitches to prevent transplacental transmission of ascarids?

A

fenbendazole between GD 40- 2w of lactation

76
Q

What should be used to treat hookworms in young puppies?

A

Pyrantel pamoate (safest)

77
Q

Young 2-week old puppies present with dairrhea, anemia, and hypoproteinemia. What is a primary differential?

A

hookworms (too young for whips)

78
Q

What is required for infection with cestodes?

A

Ingestion of intermediate host

79
Q

How is Demodex canis transmitted?

A

direct contact between dam and nursing pups

80
Q

What are treatments for generalized demodicosis?

A

Milbemycin, ivermectin, Bravecto (Fluralaner), Nexgard (afoxolaner)

81
Q

What is the primary significance of ticks in dogs?

A

vectors of infectious diseases

82
Q

What genus of ticks is most associated with tick paralysis?

A

Dermacentor

83
Q

What is the most common flea of dogs?

A

Ctenocephalides felis

84
Q

What is an important consideration for treating fleas?

A

must treat both the animal and the nevironment

85
Q

What type of hypothyroidism is most common in dogs?

A

Secondary hypothyroidism

86
Q

Lymphocytic thyroiditis is encountered most often in what breed?

A

beagles (also golden retrievers, doberman pinschers)

87
Q

A dog presents with obesity, decreased activity level, occasional tenesmus, and patchy areas of alopecia mixed with hyperpigmented areas. The dog’s symptoms get worse when the dog run is colder. What is your primary differential?

A

hypothyroidism

88
Q

How is hypothyroidism treated?

A

L-thyroxine

89
Q

Which form of thyroid hormone should be measured for diagnosis of hypothyroidism?

A

T4 (thyroxine)

90
Q

How much caloric restriction in dogs leads to safe weight loss?

A

60% of calculated energy requirement for an ideal weight

91
Q

A dog on a weight loss plan is losing 1-2% of his BW per week. How do you adjust the plan based on this information?

A

Keep it the same- this is the ideal rate of loss

92
Q

A wound created under aseptic conditions is classified as what type of wound?

A

clean

93
Q

A wound that occurred recently and has minimal contamination is what type of wound?

A

clean-contaminated

94
Q

A wound that occurred several hours ago and is grossly contaminated is what type of wound?

A

contaminated

95
Q

A wound with purulent exudate is classified as what type of wound?

A

dirty

96
Q

What is the ideal pressure for lavaging wounds?

A

8psi (35mL syringe w 19ga needle)

97
Q

Closure at the time of initial wound therapy is what type of closure?

A

Primary

98
Q

Closure within 3-5 days of wounding, prior to GT bed formation is what type of closure?

A

delayed primary

99
Q

Closure of a wound after 5 days, when a GT bed is formed, is what type of closure?

A

Delayed

100
Q

Allowing a wound to granulate without surgical intervention is what type of closure?

A

Second intention healing- not a closure

101
Q

What is the treatment for decubital ulcers or pressure sores?

A

Providing padding, rotating q2h if pt is recumbent, drying and cleaning if urine scald is affected, use a donut bandage to prevent pressure over the ulcer

102
Q

What dogs are predisposed to acral lick granulomas?

A

Dobermans and other large breed dogs

103
Q

How are acral lick granulomas treated?

A

E-collar with topical/systemic tx; behavior modification and relief of boredom

104
Q

Elbow hygromas are most common in what type of dog?

A

large/giant breed dogs <2yo

105
Q

What stain is used to visualize corneal ulcers?

A

fluorescein stain

106
Q

Where should central lines be placed to prevent mechanical trauma to the right atrium and tricuspid valve?

A

CVC only

107
Q

A dog with a chronic catheter presents with hypothermia, pale MM, tachypnea, tachycardia, hyperthermia, and band neutrophils on a smear. What is your primary differential?

A

Shock due to sepsis

108
Q

What are the three aims of treatment for dogs with sepsis?

A

(1) support cardiovascular system
(2) remove septic focus
(3) block systemic response with inflammatory mediators

109
Q

Adult respiratory distress syndrome and associated respiratory failure may occur secondary to what condition?

A

aspiration pneumonia associated with oral gavage or anesthesia

110
Q

What are the four types of burns?

A

thermal, chemical, radiation, electrical

111
Q

What is the most common cause of burns in dogs?

A

inappropriate use of external heat causing thermal burns

112
Q

What type of pain is still present with burns even though nerve endings are damaged

A

inflammatory pain

113
Q

What is the most important part of a treatment regimen for burns?

A

analgesia

114
Q

Extravascular doxorubicin can be treated with what?

A

dilution with saline, local hyaluronidase + warm compresses, DMSO

115
Q

Perivascular vinblastine can be treated with what?

A

dilution with saline, local hyaluronidase + warm compresses

116
Q

Thiacetarsemide injection can be treated with what?

A

local lidocaine + saline

117
Q

What is the mechanism for radiation burns?

A

O2 free radical formation

118
Q

How long should you wait before administering radiation to a surgical site?

A

at least 7 days

119
Q

How long after radiation treatment should surgery be avoided and why?

A

for 1-2mo because it impedes wound healing

120
Q

Most common tumor in male beagles?

A

Lymphoma

121
Q

Most common tumor in female beagles?

A

mammary tumors

122
Q

Hypercalcemia is associated with what neoplastici conditions?

A

AGASACA, lymphoma

123
Q

What immunophenotype are cutaneous lymphomas commonly identified as?

A

CD8+

124
Q

What stain differentiates lymphoblastic markers, allowing characterization of lymphomas?

A

CD34 stain

125
Q

How do mast cell tumors stain with CD34?

A

positive

126
Q

What is the most common skin tumor in dogs?

A

mast cell tumor

127
Q

What stain is used to identify mast cell granules?

A

Toluidine; also wright’s, Giemsa, Romanowsky

128
Q

What systemic effects can a mast cell tumor have?

A

release of histamine results in gastric ulcers and immune system derangements + possibility of metastasis

129
Q

What system is used to stage mammary tumors?

A

TNM (tumor size, LN involvement, metastasis)

130
Q

Are mammary gland tumors more common in the cranial or caudal mammary chain?

A

caudal

131
Q

What margins should be removed with mammary tumors?

A

2cm

132
Q

What is the oldest known continuously passaged somatic cell line?

A

canine TVT

133
Q

How do TVTs interfere with research studies?

A

tumor-specific IgG production that interferes w immunologic research

134
Q

95% of intact males will have what condition by 9 years of age?

A

BPH

135
Q

What is the difference between BPH in dogs and humans?

A

humans have stromal hyperplasia; dogs have glandular hyperplasia

136
Q

Best treatment for BPH?

A

castration

137
Q

Canine BPH is used to model what?

A

ultrasonic histotripsy treatments

138
Q

Juvenile polyarteritis syndrome is seen in what 2 breeds?

A

beagles, welsh springer spaniels

139
Q

What is the etiology of juvenile polyarteritis syndrome?

A

autoimmune necrotizing vasculitis

140
Q

How is juvenile polyarteritis treated?

A

chronic corticosteroids?

141
Q

What two breeds are predisposed to interdigital cysts?

A

GSD, beagle

142
Q

What is cherry eye?

A

prolapse of the gland of the nictitating membrane

143
Q

What is a sequela of excision of the nictitating gland vs reduction with cherry eye?

A

KCS

144
Q

Who’s going to pass boards?

A

You are! If you keep studying…

145
Q

Space requirement for a dog <15kg per the Guide?

A

8ft2

146
Q

Space requirement for a dog <30kg per the Guide?

A

12ft2

147
Q

Space requirement for a dog >30kg per the Guide?

A

24ft2

148
Q

What is the height requirement for dog enclosures per the AWR?

A

height + 6in

149
Q

What is the space requirement for dogs per the AWA?

A

(L+6)^2/144 + 5%/puppy

150
Q

How many dogs can be transported together by truck or train?

A

4

151
Q

How many dogs can be transported together by air?

A

2 if <9kg, <6mo of age

152
Q

A transport crate has ventilation on 2 sides. What are the requirements?

A

16% per side, 14% of total surface area

153
Q

A transport crate has ventilation on 3 sides. What are the requirements?

A

8% on 2 sides + 50% of one side, 14% of total surface area

154
Q

A transport crate has ventilation on 4 sides. What are the requirements?

A

8% of the surface area of each side

155
Q

How wide must the rims be on ventilated surfaces?

A

0.75in

156
Q

What are the labelling requirements for crates?

A

Live Animals in 1in letters + the direction the crate should sit in

157
Q

Indoor dogs must be kept at what temperatures?

A

50-85F

158
Q

How long can the temperature go below 45 or above 85F for dogs?

A

<4hrs

159
Q

How often must dogs be checked in transit?

A

Every 4 hours, + when possible for air

160
Q

What are the required dimensions for a circular dog tag?

A

1.25in diameter

161
Q

What are the required dimensions for an elliptical dog tag?

A

2x0.75in

162
Q

What information must be on dog tags?

A

USDA
facility ID
animal ID

163
Q

How long must dog tags be kept after a dog is euthanized or dies?

A

1 year

164
Q

How long do facilities have to wait before reusing the tag number?

A

at least 5 years

165
Q

What is the form number used to record inventory of dogs and cats?

A

Form 7005- Record of Acquisition and Dogs and Cats on Hand

166
Q

What is the form used to record dogs who leave the faiclity?

A

APHIS Form 7006- Record of Disposition of Dogs and Cats

167
Q

What is the APHIS Form 7001?

A

USDA health certificate

168
Q

What holding period is required for dogs acquired by a dealer or exhibitor?

A

5 days

169
Q

How long do pound or shelter dogs have to be held after acquisition?

A

10 days

170
Q

A dog from the pound was held for 10 days on stray hold before transfer to the humane society. It was just picked up b ya rescue. How long does the rescue have to hold it before offering it for adoption?

A

24 hours- the hold period was satisfied elsewhere

171
Q

A dog is emaciated, heartworm positive, and in fulminant heart failure after being picked up by a shelter. Does it need to wait the 10 day holding period prior to euthanasia?

A

No

172
Q

A dog was purchased by a dealer from a breeder. Does it still need to undergo the 5-day holding requirement?

A

No- only 24hrs

173
Q

What is the minimum age to transport a dog?

A

8 weeks + weaning

174
Q

How old must a dog be for a rabies vaccine to be valid for APHIS importation?

A

12 weeks

175
Q

For dogs imported into the US, how recently must a dog have been vaccinated against rabies?

A

at least 30 days, no more than 12 months

176
Q

How many dogs can be housed in the same primary enclosure?

A

12

177
Q

How old do puppies have to be to be housed with an adult dog who is not the dam or foster dam?

A

4 months

178
Q

Individually housed dogs have to be provided the opportunity to exercise when they are older than what age?

A

12 weeks

179
Q

How often does an exercise exemption for dogs need to be reviewed?

A

Every 30 days

180
Q

Where must ventilation openings be located in transport enclosures?

A

At least 1/3 in the upper half of the crate

ACLAM 2018 (17 decks)

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