Sediment Constituents (Cells) Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Sternheimer-Malbin (SM) stain delineate?

A

Structure and contrasting colors of the nucleus and cytoplasm.

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2
Q

What does the Sternheimer-Malbin (SM) stain identify?

A

WBCs, epithelial cells, and casts.

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3
Q

What are the components of the Sternheimer-Malbin stain?

A

Crystal violet + Safranin O

Available as KOVA and Sedi Stain.

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4
Q

What does Toluidine blue (supravital stain) differentiate?

A

WBCs and RTE cells.

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5
Q

What does 2% acetic acid distinguish?

A

RBCs from WBCs, yeast, oil droplets, and crystals.

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6
Q

What does lipid stains (Oil Red O and Sudan III) stain?

A

Triglycerides and neutral fats (not chole); orange-red.

Identifies free fat droplets and lipid containing cells and casts

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7
Q

What does the Gram stain differentiate?

A

Gram positive and negative bacteria.

Identifies bacterial casts

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8
Q

What does the Hansel Stain identify?

Consists of Eosin Y + Methylene Blue

A

Urinary eosinophils and stains eosinophilic granules.

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9
Q

What does Prussian blue (Rous test) identify?

A

Hemosiderin granules and stains structures containing iron.

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10
Q

What does Phenathridine stain?

A

DNA

Orange

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11
Q

What does Carbocyanine stain?

A

Nuclear membranes, mitochondria, and cell membranes.

COLOR IS GREEN

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12
Q

Bilirubin-stained or hemosiderin-laden is used for

A

RTE cells

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13
Q

What is the normal value of RBCs in urine?

A

0-2/0-3/HPF.

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14
Q

What causes crenated/shrinked cells in urine?

A

Hypertonic conditions.

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15
Q

What causes swelling/ghost cells/shadow cells in urine?

A

Hypotonic conditions.

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16
Q

What does dysmorphic red cells with projections and fragments in urine indicate?

acanthocytes are seen from (GI cells)

A

Glomerular membrane damage.

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17
Q

What are sources of error in detecting RBCs?

A

Yeasts, oil droplets, air bubbles, monohydrate calcium oxalate crystals.

Oil droplets (rainbow color), Monohydrate CaOx (Most different).

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18
Q

What is the remedy for errors in RBC detection?

A

Add 2% acetic acid; lyse RBCs but not the others.

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19
Q

What is the normal value of WBCs in urine?

A

0-5 or 0-8/HPF.

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20
Q

What are the most predominant WBCs in urine?

A

Neutrophils.

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21
Q

What happens to WBCs in hypotonic urine?

A

They swell and undergo Brownian movement, producing a sparkling appearance known as glitter cells.

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22
Q

What do dying neutrophils in urine form?

A

Blebs and finger-like projections (myelin forms).

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23
Q

What is the normal value of eosinophils in urine?

A

1%.

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24
Q

What does a significant rise in eosinophils in urine (>1%) indicate?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis.

PLS REMEMBER EOSINOPHILS INCREASE

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25
Q

What does increased lymphocytes in urine indicate?

A

Renal transplant rejection.

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26
Q

What does increased monocytes and histiocytes in urine indicate?

A

Chronic inflammation and radiation therapy.

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27
Q

What color are Sternheimer-Malbin Stain glitter cells?

A

Pale blue.

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28
Q

What color are Sternheimer-Malbin Stain leukocytes?

A

Pale pink.

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29
Q

What is the largest cell seen in urine?

5-7x the size of an RBC, nucleus is about the size of RBC

might resemble a cast

A

Squamous epithelial cell (S.E.C).

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30
Q

What are clue cells in urine?

A

S.E.C covered with G. vaginalis; associated with bacterial vaginosis and has shaggy cytoplasm.

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31
Q

What are transitional epithelial cells (T.E.C) in urine?

A

Cells about 20-30 um (4-6x of an RBC), spherical, polyhedral or caudate with centrally located nucleus.

32
Q

Where are transitional epithelial cells (T.E.C) derived from?

A

Renal pelvis, calyces, ureter, urinary bladder, and upper male urethra.

33
Q

What does increased T.E.C after catheterization indicate?

A

May be singly, in pairs, or in clumps called syncytia.

34
Q

What does abnormal morphology of T.E.C indicate?

A

Malignancy or viral infection.

35
Q

What is the most clinically significant epithelial cell?

Origin is from nephron; Size is 3-5x the RBC; Eccentric nucleus

A

Renal Tubular epithelial cells.

36
Q

What is the form of RTE cells originating from the PCT?

A

Large, oblong, or cigar-shaped, with grainy cytoplasm.

37
Q

What is the form of RTE cells originating from the DCT?

A

Smaller, round to oval, may be mistaken for WBCs.

38
Q

What is the form of RTE cells originating from the CD?

A

Columnar, polygonal, or cuboidal with flat edge.

39
Q

’> 2 RTE/HPF in urine is indicative of

A

Tubular injury.

40
Q

What are oval fat bodies in urine?

A

Highly refractive RTE cells seen in nephrotic syndrome; lipid containing RTEs seen in lipiduria.

41
Q

How are oval fat bodies (RTE) identified?

A

Using lipid stains (TAG and neutral fats) and polarizing microscope (cholesterol (maltese cross)).

42
Q

What are bubble cells?

A

RTE with non-lipid vacuoles; injured cells in which endoplasmic reticulum has dilated prior to cell death; seen in acute tubular necrosis.

43
Q

What is a true UTI composed of?

A

Bacteria and WBCs.

44
Q

What is the most common cause of UTI?

A

E. coli (Enterobacteriaceae); Staphylococcus, Enterococcus are also causative agents.

45
Q

What is a true yeast infection composed of?

A

Yeasts and WBCs.

46
Q

What are yeasts?

A

Small, refractile oval structures that may or may not bud; branched mycelial forms are seen in severe infections.

47
Q

What is the most commonly seen yeast in DM and vaginal moniliasis?

A

Candida albicans.

48
Q

What is the most frequently encountered parasite in urine?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis.

49
Q

What does Trichomonas vaginalis look like?

A

Pear-shaped flagellate with undulating membrane and jerky motility; reported as rare, few, moderate, or many per HPF.

50
Q

What is the non-motile T. vaginalis resemble?

A

WBC, T.E.C, RTE cells.

51
Q

What is the most common fecal contaminant in urine?

A

E. vermicularis.

52
Q

What is Schistosoma haematobium associated with?

A

Hematuria and bladder cancer.

53
Q

What are urinary bladder cancer markers?

A

NMP - Nuclear Matrix Protein, BTA - Bladder Tumor Antigen.

54
Q

What does mucus thread in urine consist of?

A

Low refractive index and has a major constituent of Tamm-Horsfall protein (uromodulin).

55
Q

What cells are quantified using LPF?

A

Epithelial cells, mucus threads, casts.

56
Q

What cells are quantified using HPF?

A

Crystals (normal), bacteria, RBCs, WBCs.

57
Q

What is the quantitation of epithelial cells (E.C) at 0-5/LPF?

A

Rare.

58
Q

What is the quantitation of epithelial cells (E.C) at 5-20/LPF?

A

Few.

59
Q

What is the quantitation of epithelial cells (E.C) at 20-100/LPF?

A

Moderate.

60
Q

What is the quantitation of epithelial cells (E.C) at >100/LPF?

A

Many.

61
Q

What is the quantitation of crystals (normal) at 0-2/HPF?

A

Rare.

62
Q

What is the quantitation of crystals (normal) at 2-5/HPF?

A

Few.

63
Q

What is the quantitation of crystals (normal) at 5-20/HPF?

A

Moderate.

64
Q

What is the quantitation of crystals (normal) at >20/HPF?

A

Many.

65
Q

What is the quantitation of bacteria at 0-10/HPF?

A

Rare.

66
Q

What is the quantitation of bacteria at 10-50/HPF?

A

Few.

67
Q

What is the quantitation of bacteria at 50-200/HPF?

A

Moderate.

68
Q

What is the quantitation of bacteria at >200/HPF?

A

Many.

69
Q

What is the quantitation of mucus threads at 0-1/LPF?

A

Rare.

70
Q

What is the quantitation of mucus threads at 1-3/LPF?

A

Few.

71
Q

What is the quantitation of mucus threads at 3-10/LPF?

A

Moderate.

72
Q

What is the quantitation of mucus threads at >10/LPF?

A

Many.

73
Q

What is the quantitation of squamous epithelial cells?

A

Rare, Few, Moderate, Many per LPF.

74
Q

What is the quantitation of transitional epithelial cells?

A

Rare, Few, Moderate, Many per HPF.

75
Q

How is RTE quantitation measured?

A

Average number per 10 HPFs.

76
Q

How is oval fat bodies quantitation measured?

A

Average number per HPF.

77
Q

How is abnormal crystals and casts quantitation measured?

A

Average number per LPF.