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SAM Final PQS > SAM3 RIKTIG > Flashcards

SAM3 RIKTIG Flashcards

1
Q

Rabies Vs Aujeszky disease – difference in symptoms in dogs and cats
* Paraesthesia is common in Aujeszky disease; attacking behaviour is common in rabies
* Strabismus and ascending limb paralysis are common in Aujeszky disease; paraesthesia is common in rabies
* Dysphagia do not occur in Aujeszky disease, only in rabies; lung oedema is characteristic in Aujeszky disease
* Rabies does not occur in cats; only Aujeszky disease

A

Paraesthesia is common in Aujeszky disease; attacking behaviour is common in rabies

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2
Q

Which is the most common reason of seizure in a young adult dog?
* Congenital heart disease
* Primer epilepsy
* Portosystemic shunt
* Cerebral neoplasia

A

Primer epilepsy

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3
Q

Which antiepileptic drug is the first choice in the chronic treatment of epileptic dog?
* Phenobarbital and imepitoin
* Potassium bromide
* Levetiracetam
* Diazepam

A

Phenobarbital and imepitoin

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4
Q

Which DOES NOT cause secondary immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia?
* Microsporum
* Mycoplasma
* Babesia
* Haemangiosarcoma

A

Microsporum

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5
Q

Why is the multifil suture material not recommended by the surgeries on the
gastrointestinal organs?
* Expensive
* High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage (caused by the
suture material)
* Tensile security properties are worse
* Knot security properties are worse

A

High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage (caused by the
suture material)

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6
Q

Which statement is true?
* In case of haemolytic anaemia the plasma can be clear
* Elevated thrombocyte count is a feature of pancytopenia
* In case of acute blood loss, microcyter hypochromic anaemia develops within a few hours
* Babesia and mycoplasma infections are causing non-regenerative anaemia

A

In case of haemolytic anaemia the plasma can be clear

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7
Q

Suturing of an enterotomy wound
* Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2
layers
* Multifil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2
layers
* Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/continuous suture
pattern, in 1 layer (seromuscular)
* Monofil, non-absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous
suture pattern, in 1 layer (all layers)

A

Monofil, non-absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous
suture pattern, in 1 layer (all layers)

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8
Q

Lissencephaly (lyssencephalon) is:
* Complication of hydrocephalus
* Congenital under-development of sulci and gyri of the cortex
* One type of metabolic storage disorders of the brain
* Histopathological alteration of the brain as a sequel of rabies (lyssa)

A

Congenital under-development of sulci and gyri of the cortex

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9
Q

Which drug can be used to stop seizures?
* Diazepam
* Propofol
* Both
* None of the above

A

Both

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10
Q

Suturing of small intestine anastomosis wound
* Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2
layers
* Multifil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2
layers
* Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/continuous suture pattern, in 1 layer (seromuscular)
* Monofil, non-absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous
suture pattern, in 1 layer (all layers)

A

Monofil, non-absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous
suture pattern, in 1 layer (all layers)

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11
Q

Which statement is true?
* Botulism is caused by Coli bacteria and its main symptom is flaccid paresis
* Tetanus is caused by Clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis
* Botulism is caused by Clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis
* Tetanus is caused by Coli bacteria and the main symptom is muscle spasm

A

Botulism is caused by Clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis

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12
Q

Which blood parameters should be examined in anaemic patients?
* SDMA, cPL, GGT, ALB, P
* TCa, K, AST, CK, LDH
* T4, TLI, CRP, ALT, GLDH
* TP, TBr, APTI, PTI, ACT

A

TP, TBr, APTI, PTI, ACT

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13
Q

From which thrombocyte count (G/l) can we expect bleeding because of
thrombocytopenia?
* <50
* 50-100
* 100-200
* 200-400

A

<50

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14
Q

What is the most characteristic localization of vertebral body tumours?
* The middle third of the vertebral body
* The end plates
* Multifidarius processes
* Articular process

A

The middle third of the vertebral body

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15
Q

Which is an absolute indication for surgical treatment?
* Acute Hansen type 1 discus prolapsus with paraplegia without deep pain perception
* Atlantoaxial instability with neck pain
* Discopondylitis
* Cauda equina syndrome combines with severe hip dysplasia

A

Acute Hansen type 1 discus prolapsus with paraplegia without deep pain perception

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16
Q

Which disease is acute?
* Type 1 discopathy
* Type 2 discopathy
* Lumbo-sacral instability
* Tumour

A

Type 1 discopathy

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17
Q

Incubation period of rabies
* Usually 2-3 months, but can be shorter or longer, depends on which body
part was infected
* Symptoms start 3-7 days after infection
* Incubation period is very short, symptoms start 1-2 days after infection
* Usually 1-2 weeks, but can be shorter if the front limbs of the patient had been bitten

A

Usually 2-3 months, but can be shorter or longer, depends on which body
part was infected

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18
Q

Which cannot be a symptom of transversal myelopathy?
* Postural deficits
* Lameness
* Ataxia
* Hyperreflexia

A

Lameness

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19
Q

Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply?
* Left gastric
* Left gastroepiploic
* Short gastric
* Splenic

A

Left gastric

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20
Q

How can we diagnose deep pain perception?
* Pinching the patient’s finger pulls it away
* After pinching the patient’s finger extend the limb on the opposite side
* By pinching the patient’s finger it pulls it out and turns it on his head vocalizes or ties to bite
* Following painful stimulation the cutaneous trunci muscle contracts

A

By pinching the patient’s finger it pulls it out and turns it on his head vocalizes or ties to bite

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21
Q

What does DAMNIT-V schema stand for?
* For differentiating between hydrocephalus and brain stem hypoplasia during
the physical examination of the neurological system
* For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of the diseases
* For grading the severity of the neurological lesions of the spinal cord during
myelography
* For prognosis

A

For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of the diseases

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22
Q

Regarding brain lesions which parts of the brain can be distinguished?
* Forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum.
* Forebrain, diencephalon, cerebellum.
* Cerebral hemispheres, pons, medulla oblongata.
* Forebrain, diencephalon, spinal cord.

A

Forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum.

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23
Q

Which is the first choice in case of Hansen type 1 disc protrusion?
* Lateral corpectomy
* Fenestration
* Total laminectomy
* Hemilaminectomy

A

Hemilaminectomy

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24
Q

On the basis of Modified Glasgow Coma Scale we can evaluate the prognosis of the
patient with head trauma according to:
* Pupil size, motor activity, consciousness
* Pupil size, motor activity, brainstem reflexes
* Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, consciousness
* Pupil size, brainstem reflexes, consciousness

A

Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, consciousness

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25
Q

Why is permethrin toxic to cats?
* Pyrethrins inhibit Ca/Mg ATPase in nervous tissue
* Ca-oxalate monohydrate crystals mechanically damage the kidneys
* In case of MDR1 mutation the drug gets into the central nervous system
* In feline liver the glucuronidase activity is low and thus the compound can accumulate and reach toxic levels

A

In feline liver the glucuronidase activity is low and thus the compound can accumulate and reach toxic levels

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26
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe?
* The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication
* The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication

A

The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication

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27
Q

Where could we take a bone marrow sample
Humerus
Hip
Both
None of the above

A

Both

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28
Q

From which thrombocyte count (G/L) can we expect bleeding because of thrombocytopenia?
<50
50-100
100-200
200-400

A

<50

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29
Q

Which statement is true?
a. Botulism is caused by coli bacteria and its main symptom is flaccid paresis
b. Tetanus is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis
c. Botulism is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis
d. Tetanus is caused by coli bacteria and the main symptom is muscle spasm

A

Botulism is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis

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30
Q

Congenital hydrocephalus in dogs. Which statement is true?
a. Hydrocephalus is common in young dogs (less then 1 year old) of large breeds
b. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt might be applied for palliative, symptomatic treatment
c. Treatment with glucocorticoids and diuretics are contra indicated in cases of high intracranial pressure
d. Hydrocephalus is very rare in young dogs (less then 1 year old) of small breeds

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt might be applied for palliative, symptomatic treatment

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31
Q

It causes regenerative anaemia
a. Oestrogen production of a Sertoli cell tumour
b. Ehrlichiosis
c. Chronic kidney disease
d. Inherited coagulopathy

A

Inherited coagulopathy

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32
Q

Alterations in thrombocytopenia
a. Hemoperitoneum, epistaxis, bleeding time, platelet count
b. Petechia, haemothorax, , bleeding time, platelet count
c. Petechia, epistasis, bleeding time, platelet count
d. Petechia, epistasis, bleeding time, platelet count

A

Petechia, epistasis, bleeding time, platelet count

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33
Q

A 3 year old Labrador- owner observed in the last 2 months, 2 episodes with convulsive seizures. Otherwise the dog is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Idiopathic epilepsy
b. Structural epilepsy, presumably a consequence of a congenital brain anomaly
c. Reactive epileptic seizure, because of a well- known compulsive eating behaviour of
d. Labrador dog breed

A

Idiopathic epilepsy

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34
Q

Regarding brain lesions which parts of the brain can be distinguished?
a. Forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum
b. Forebrain, diencephalon, cerebellum
c. Cerebral hemispheres, pons, medulla oblongata
d. Forebrain, diencephalon, spinal cord

A

Forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum

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35
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe?
a. The precise diagnosis of a particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication
b. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
c. It definitely requires emergency care
d. It is caused by morphological and/or functional disorders of the abdominal organ(s)

A

The precise diagnosis of a particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication

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36
Q

Which statement is false?
a. The upper motor neuron cell bodies are located in the cerebellum and brainstem
b. The upper motor neuron could stimulate or inhibit the lower neuron
c. In case of upper motor neuron dysfunction the clinical findings: hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes
d. In case of upper motor neuron dysfunction the clinical findings: hyperreflexia, muscle hypertonia, abnormal reflexes

A

In case of upper motor neuron dysfunction the clinical findings: hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes

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37
Q

Which technique is the best for diagnosis of fibrocartilage embolism?
Radiology
CT
MRI
Liquor cytology

A

MRI

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38
Q

Which is not true for degenerative myelopathy?
a. It is a nutritional problem
b. Most frequent is older German Shepard dogs
c. Slowly progressive axonal degeneration and demyelinisation
d. No curative treatment

A

It is a nutritional problem

39
Q

Which is not the function of the lower motor neuron?
a. Maintenance of muscle tone and support against gravity
b. Controls voluntary movement
c. Regurgitation of posture
d. Initiation of voluntary movement

A

Controls voluntary movement

40
Q

What is characteristic of Hansen- 1 type discus hernia?
a. Often multiple
b. It mostly occurs in large dogs
c. The anulus fibrosus is completely ruptured the nucleus pulposus directly compresses the spinal cord
d. If the patient is paralytic, the prognosis is poor

A

The anulus fibrosus is completely ruptured the nucleus pulposus directly compresses the spinal cord

41
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma (HAS)?
a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
c. The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor
d. Splenic HAS does not metastasise into the heart

A

The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor

42
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect? The injuries of the tongue?
-are not to be operated on
-mostly heal with complications
-mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures
-always to be regarded as contaminated

A

are not to be operated on

43
Q

Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal intussusception?
-palpation of the invaginated intestinal section
-positive contrast abdominal GI radiography
-Lack of faeces
-Vomiting

A

palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

44
Q

Which of the following procedures has a modification called “Roux-en-Y” technique?
-choledochotomy
-cholecystectomy
-cholecystoduodenostomy
-cholecystojejunostomy

A
45
Q

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in case of obstructive ileus?
-maropitant
-metoclopramide
-pantoprazole
-Tramadol

A

metoclopramide

46
Q

Which clinical signs are characteristic for the following oesophageal diseases?
-Oesophagitis: odynophagia, regurgitation, salivation, food refusal
-Oesophageal foreign body: regurgitation, salivation, sometimes distended abdomen
-Spirocercosis: regurgitation, vomiting, weight loss, coughing, dyspnoea, rarely sudden
death
-All statements are true

A

All statements are true

47
Q

What does “sceletonisation” mean?
-Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected
-V-shaped excision of the mesentery
-Excision of the affected intestinal section
-Suturing of the V-shaped mesenteric defect

A

Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected

48
Q

What is the major difference between midline & incisional gastroscopy?
-Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst the incisional operates with penetrating sutures
-The techniques fix different areas of the stomach
-In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done unlike midline gastropexy
-Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

A

In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done unlike midline gastropexy

49
Q

According to Vasanjee et al Vet surg paper (2006) which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage?
-ligature biopsy
-Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy
-needle biopsy
-none of them

A

-Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy

50
Q

Which vessel is responsible for the blood supply of the caudal part of the right pancreativ lobe?
-A. gastroduodenalis
-A.pancreaticoduodenalis cranialis
- A pancreaticoduodenalis caudalis
-A. mesenterica caudalis

A

A. pancreaticoduodenalis caudalis

51
Q

Clinical signs of acute colitis in dog,cat?
-A large amount, watery diarrhoea
-Small amount, pudding like, mucoid, bloody(haematochezia)diarrhoea
-A small amount, watery diarrhoea with undigested food
-Large amount, mucoid,melenic diarrhoea

A

mall amount, pudding like, mucoid, bloody(haematochezia)diarrhoea

52
Q

Which suture technique is recommended for the closure of the colon in cats?
-single layer simple interrupted
-single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous
-single or double layer but always simple interrupted
-single or double layer but always simple continuous

A

single or double layer but always simple continuous

53
Q

Which statement is correct about canine portosystemic shunt (PSS)?
-The level of ammonia is usually low in the blood in portosystemic shunt
-The intrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs mainly in small breed dogs
-The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs mainly in large breeds
-In portal hypertension, the acquired portosystemic shunts will reopen in case of blood pressure differences

A

In portal hypertension, the acquired portosystemic shunts will reopen in case of blood pressure differences

54
Q

NOT characteristic of small bowel diarrhoea?
-large amount, watery faeces
-small amount , mucous faeces with streaks of fresh blood on the surface
-melaena
-undigested particles of food

A

small amount , mucous faeces with streaks of fresh blood on the surfac

55
Q

Which is the first drug of choice in the treatment of primary Cu accumulation?
-D-penicillamine
-N-acetylcysteine
-Cyclosporine
-Amoxycillin

A

D-penicillamine

56
Q

Which hepatic division possess the gall bladder?
-Right division
-Central division
-Left division
-Caudal division

A

Central division

57
Q

Extracardiac murmurs typically
-have punctum maximum
-have no punctum maximum
-are due to valvular insufficiency
-are always systolic

A

have no punctum maximum

58
Q

What is the major difference between midline and incisional gastropexy?
-midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst the incisional operates operates with penetrating sutures
-the techniques fix different areas of the stomach
-in the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done unlike midline gastropexy
-Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

A

In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done unlike midline gastropexy

59
Q

Which additional laboratory parameter should be measured in case of an old cachectic
cat which diarrhoea?
-crp
-T4 level
-Calcium level
-ALT level

A

T4 level

60
Q

Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis?
-Linear foreign body idegentest
-obturation
-ileus
-mesenteric torsion

A

mesenteric torsion

61
Q

Which of the following methods is to be chosen as first in case of foreign body thoracic
(prediaphragmatic) oesophageal obstruction?
-Pushing-down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastic tubation
-Endoscopic removal
-Laparotomy + gastrotomy + transluminal foreign body removal
-Thoracotomy + Oesophagotomy

A

Endoscopic remocal

62
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding salivary mucocele?
-its etiology can be either traumatic or inflammatory
- its common in poodle
-it definitely indicates surgery
-its one of the effective treatments is puncture & content removal from the cyst

A

Its one of the effective treatments is puncture & content removal from the cyst

63
Q

NOT true for EPI (exocrine pancreas insufficiency)
-There is breed predilection among German Shepherd dogs
-It is diagnosed with TLI-measurement
-Enzyme supplementation is necessary for life long
-Inappetence & recurrent large bowel diarrhoea are typical

A

Inappetence & recurrent large bowel diarrhoea are typical

64
Q

Which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid glands?
-zona cutanea
-linea anorectalis
-zona intermedia
-zona columnaris

A

zona cutanea

65
Q

The most common indication of subtotal colectomy in cats is
-Congenital megacolon
-Primary idiopathic megacolon
-Secondary idiopathic megacolon
-Tertiary idiopathic megacolon

A

Primary idiopathic megacolon

66
Q

What does “epulis” mean?
-Benign papillomatous mass on the gingiva
-Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva
-Benign melanoid mass on the gingiva
-Malignant fibromatous mass on the gingiva

A

Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

67
Q

Which of the following procedures is most frequently used for cholecystolith removal?
-Cholecystotomy
-Cholecystectomy
-Cholecystoenterostomy
-Choledochostomy

A

Cholecystectomy

68
Q

Which of the followings does not usually cause large intestinal obstruction in small animals?
-Colic tumour
-Constipation
-Colic dislocation
-Foreign body

A

Foreign body

69
Q

Which of the followings is not typical for vomitus?
-preceded by nausea
-active muscle contractions
-presence of gastric chyme
-eating the content

A

eating the content

70
Q

Which species has high incidence of large intestinal obstruction?
-dog
-cat
-ferret
-horse

A

horse

71
Q

Which of the following surgical procedures of the pancreas has the relatively lowest risk of complication?
-partial pancreatectomy
-total pancreatectomy
-pancreatic abscess-omentalisation
-pancreas-excision biopsy

A

Pancreatic abscess-omentalisation

72
Q

Which of the pancreatic areas is the most accessible for surgical manipulation?
-the cranial part of the right lobe
-the caudal part of the right lobe
-the left part of the left lobe
-the right part of the left lobe

A

the caudal part of the right lobe

73
Q

What is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV?
-Stabilisation-gastrocentesis-adequate narcosis-surgery -orogastric tubation & gastric lavage
-Stabilisation-gastric lavage-gastrocentesis-surgery
-Stabilisation & gastrocentesis-adequate narciosis-orogastric tubation & gastric lavagesurgery
-Stabilisation-orogastric tubation & gastric lavage-gastrocentesis-adequate narcosis-surgery

A

Stabilisation & gastrocentesis-adequate narciosis-orogastric tubation & gastric lavagesurgery

74
Q

Which food componens amount should be increased in case of acute large bowel diarrhoea?
-fat
-protein
-fibre
-carbohydrate

A

fibre

75
Q

Which of the followings is not typical for regurgitation?
-develops spontaneously
-preceded by nausea
-undigested food
-passive backflow

A

preceded by nausea

76
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of fundus necrosis during GDV surgery?
-Billroth I gastroduodenostomy
-Partial gastrectomy
-Euthanasia
-Reposition & gastropexy

A

Partial gastrectomy

77
Q

Which component is responsible for the closure of PSS in case of Ameroid ring constrictor?
-Celophane
-Silk
-Kazein
-Nylon

A

Kazein

78
Q

Which of the statement is correct for gastric diseases?
-Acute gastritis is usually is not a self-limiting problem, but it has an excellent prognosis
-Predisposing factors of gastric erosive-ulcerative disease include NSAIDs, metabolic diseases, corticosteroids
-Contrast radiography is the key diagnostic tool of gastric ulceration
-All statements are true

A

Predisposing factors of gastric erosive-ulcerative disease include NSAIDs, metabolic diseases, corticosteroids

79
Q

For which of the following diseases is regurgitation is not a typical symptom?
-Myasthenia gravis
-Persistent right aortic arch
-Persistent ductus arteriosus
-Spirocercosis

A

Persistent ductus arteriosus

80
Q

Cyanotic mucous membranes are related to
-acute left heart failure
-right heart failure
-shock
-anaemia

A

Shock

81
Q

Granulomatous colitis is caused by
-Campylobacter coli
-Enteropathogenic Ecoli(EPEC)
-Adherent-invasive Ecoli(AIEC)
-Clostridium perfringens

A

Adherent-invasive Ecoli(AIEC)

82
Q

In case of parvoviral enteritis
-maropitant can be used as an antiemetic drug
-the patient musnt be feed till it has diarrhoea
-monotherapy with appropriate antiviral drug is enough for recovery
-the application of antibiotics is harmful & not suggested

A

maropitant can be used as an antiemetic drug

83
Q

Which BAOS surgery technique causes less wide soft palate?
-FFPP(folded flap palatoplasty)
-Soft palate resection
-Tonsillectomy
-Sacculectomy

A

FFPP(folded flap palatoplasty)

84
Q

Which procedure is adequate for irreponable cecum inversion?
-typhlotomy
-typhlectomy
-appendectomy
-subtotal colectomy

A

typhlectomy

85
Q

The chronic inflammatory enteropathy (CIE)
- involves lymphangiectasia as its subgroup
-is one of the chronic form of bacterial enteritis
-can result in protein-losing enteropathy
-is not known in cats

A

can result in protein-losing enteropathy

86
Q

Which statement is NOT characteristic about the primary copper (Cu) accumulation?
-Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis
-Bedlington terrier, Labrador and probably the Dalmation have primer Cu accumulation
-The Cu accumulation mostly in the centrilobular zona
-Progressive, lifelong Cu accumulation

A

Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis

87
Q

For which of the following diseases is vomitus not a typical symptom?
-Irritable bowel syndrome
-Acute pancreatitis
-Acute kidney injury
-Ileus

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

88
Q

In case of intestinal obstruction
-acute vomiting is the most characteristic symptom
-urgent gastric lavage is required
-profuse, bloody diarrhoea is the most characteristic symptom
- most of the cases can be managed with conservative therapy

A

Acute vomiting is the most characteristic symptom

89
Q

Why is the multifil suture material not recommended by the surgeries on the gastrointestinal organs?
-Expensive
-High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage( caused by the suture material)
-Tensile security properties are worse
-Knot security properties are worse

A

High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage( caused by the suture material)

90
Q

Characteristics of lymphangiectasia
-severe, chronic large bowel diarrhoea
-ascites, poor body condition
-polyphagia, obesity
-hyperproteinaemia

A

ascites, poor body condition

91
Q

Which statement is NOT correct about feline hepatic lipidosis?
-it is characterised by intrahepatic cholestasis
-the bile acid, bilirubin, ALT and ALP are elevated in the blood. However, GGT can be
disproportionally low
-The clinical signs are the obese cat has weight loss, icterus, ptyalism, coagulopathy and hepatopathy
-Elevated lipoprotein synthesis due to fasting, thereby decreases the triglyceride level in the
liver

A

Elevated lipoprotein synthesis due to fasting, thereby decreases the triglyceride level in the
liver

92
Q

The adherent invasive E.coli (AIEC) causes
-Neutrophylic cholangitis
-Acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea syndrome (AHDS)
-Granulomatosis colitis
-Chronic active hepatitis

A

Granulomatosis colitis

93
Q

In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common?
-German Shepherd
-Hungarian vizsla
-Yorkshire terrier
-French bulldog

A

French bulldog

SAM Final PQS (18 decks)

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