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SAM Final PQS > SAM2 Riktig > Flashcards

SAM2 Riktig Flashcards

1
Q

Which plane is used to measure the left atrium to aortic root ratio?
a) short axis at heart base from right side
b) Long axis at right side
c) Apical view
d) Subcostal view

A

short axis at heart base from right side

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2
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic hernias?
A) they take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias
B) Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: axial and para—oesophageal
C) The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited
D) The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum

A

The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

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3
Q

The most important medications to treat congestive heart failure?
A) ACE inhibitors (enalapril, benazepril)
B) Beta receptor blockers (atelonol, carvedilol)
C) Loop diuretics (Furosemide, torsemide)
D) Pimobendan, Levosimendan

A

Pimobendan, Levosimendan

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4
Q

Which statement is true regarding feline heart worm disease?
a) cats are occasionally infected
b) Cats are often infected
c) Cats are never infected
d) None of the statements are true

A

cats are occasionally infected

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5
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a spaniel 3-rd degree AV block?
a) determination of the potassium level
b) Administration of atropine
c) Administration of diltiazem
d) Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

A

Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

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6
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?
A) small intestine
B) Large intestine
C) Uterus
D) Urinary bladder

A

Urinary bladder

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7
Q

During an echocardiographic examination we can use…
a) short axis view
b) Longitudinal views
c) Both of them
d) None of them

A

Both of them

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8
Q

How can you distinguish a ventricular extrasystole form a supraventricular one on the ECG?
a) a ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause
b) The supraventricular extrasystole is always of normal width
c) In front of the QRS complex, a p-wave is always seen in a supraventricular beat
d) A p-wave is never seen before the QRS complex in a supraventricular beat

A

a ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

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9
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and a supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG?
a) the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias
b) The QRS complex is always of normal width in the case of supraventricular arrhythmia
c) P-wave is always visible in front of the QRS complex in supraventricular arrhythmias
d) P-wave never seen in supraventricular arrhythmias before QRS complex

A

the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias

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10
Q

Which solution of the mostly potentially alkalising effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis?
a) NaCl solution
b) NaHCO3 solution
c) Lactated ringer’s
d) Acetated ringer’s

A

NaHCO3 solution

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11
Q

Which is the wrong answer? May play a role in the progression of heart failure:
a) chronic activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and the sympathetic nervous system
b) Decrease number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (downregulation)
c) The production of inflammatory mediators and free radicals
d) Poor blood supply to the heart muscle despite increased oxygen and energy demands

A

Decrease number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (downregulation)

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12
Q

Suture types. Pick the false answer!
a) one or more tissue layers may be used according to the tissue type
b) For wound closure, ‘layer to layer’, inverting and relaxing techniques may be used
c) The pagern may be interrupted or continuous
d) Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be places on the wound line

A

Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be places on the wound line

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13
Q

What is the most common cardiac disease in cats?
a) ARVC
b) DCM
c) HCM
d) RCM

A

HCM

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14
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a dog with supraventricular tachyarrhythmia?
a) to perform a vagus manoeuvre
b) Administration of atropine
c) Administration of diltiazem
d) Echocardiography, blood test

A

Administration of atropine

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15
Q

Which answer is not good? The hemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include:
a) ventricular preload and afterload
b) contractility, distensibility
c) Heart rate and synchronisation of contractions
d) The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

A

The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

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16
Q

What is NOT needed to a standard echocardiographic examination?
a) phased array transducer
b) Right lateral recumbency
c) Using standard planes
d) Linear transducer

A

Linear transducer

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17
Q

The cranial border of the Diernhofer triangle is
A) the scapula
B) The cranial part of the heart
C) The descendent aorta
D) The caudal part of the heart

A

the scapula

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18
Q

Which of the following parameters decreases in DIC?
a) Fibrinogen
b) D-dimer
c) APTT
d) FDP

A

Fibrinogen

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19
Q

The most common heart disease in cats:
a) mitral endocardiosis
b) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c) Subvalvular aortic stenosis (SAS)
d) PDA

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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20
Q

How can you determine the left arial-aortic ratio (LA/Ao) during the echocardiography?
A) measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same long axis view
B) Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same short axis view
C) Measure the diameter of the aorta in short axis and measure the diameter of the left atrium in long axis view
D) Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short axis and measure the diameter of the aorta in long axis view

A

Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same short axis view

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21
Q

Which of the following types of a shock SIRS is rated in?
a) Hypovolemic
b) cardiogenic/obstructive
c) Distributive
d) Hypoxic

A

Distributive

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22
Q

What colour is typical of the compensatory stage of shock?
a) Pale
b) Cyanotic
c) Dirty red
d) Bright red

A

Bright red

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23
Q

Which corticosteroid is recommended in the treatment of shock?
a) methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate
b) Prednisolone Na-succinate
c) Dexamethasone
d) Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

A

Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

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24
Q

Consequences of heart failure
a) pulmonary oedema
b) Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
c) Congestive liver
d) Ascites

A

pulmonary oedema

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25
Q

Which answer is false?
a) during surgical scrubbing, the hand should be higher than the elbow
b) During autoclave, all pathogenic germs are destroyed, however, apathogenic microbes may remind on the surface of the devices
c) Sterile devices in soaked packaging should not be used
d) In the operating room, the sterile person should not lower the hands below table level

A

During autoclave, all pathogenic germs are destroyed, however, apathogenic microbes may remind on the surface of the devices

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26
Q

Which sign of the following is characteristic of PRAA?
a) vomiting 30 min after feeding
b) Vomtiting 1-2 hours after feeding
c) Vomiting 4-5 hours after feeding
d) Regurgitation

A

Regurgitation

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27
Q

The most common heart disease in dogs:
a) mitral endocardosis
b) Dilated cardiomyopathy
c) Subvalvular aortic stenosis (SAS)
d) PDA

A

mitral endocardosis

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28
Q

Typical clinical findings in case of dog’s haemopericardium:
a) strong pulse
b) Systolic heart murmur
c) Reddish mucosal membranes
d) Distant (muffled) heart sounds

A

Distant (muffled) heart sounds

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29
Q

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heart worm disease?
a) pulmonary arteries
b) Pulmonary veins
c) Both can altered
d) None of them

A

pulmonary arteries

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30
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe mitral valve diseases (MMVD)?
a) left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c) Left ventricular dilatation
d) Right ventricular dilatation

A

Left ventricular dilatation

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31
Q

Which statement is not characteristic for the radiograph finding of pneumothorax?
a) elevation of the heart from the sternum
b) Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic organs
c) Compression of the lung lobes
d) Dorsal dislocation of the trachea

A

Dorsal dislocation of the trachea

32
Q

Which can be a congenital pericardial disease?
a) PPDH
b) PHDP
c) PHPD
d) PDHP

A

PPDH

33
Q

Electrosurgery. Pick the false answer!
a) in monopolar systems, a large-surface return electrode must be placed on the patient’s body
b) In monopolar systems, if the contact surface between the return electrode and body is small, burns may occur
c) Forceps-like bipolar systems do not require large-surface return electrode
d) The efficient and patient safety of the monopolar system is better

A

The efficient and patient safety of the monopolar system is better

34
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of sever pulmonic stenosis?
a) left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c) Left ventricular dilatation
d) Right ventricular dilatation

A

Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy

35
Q

PRAA means…
A) abnormally directed Botallo ligament
B) Latency of the Botallo duct
C) Abnormally directed aortic arch
D) Abnormally directed subclavian artery

A

Abnormally directed aortic arch

36
Q

Which modality is used to measure linear chamber sizes and display their alteration as a function of time in echocardiography?
a) Color Doppler
b) Pulsed wave Doppler
c) B-mode
d) M-mode

A

M-mode

37
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia?
A) it is a iatrogenic complication
B) It might be suppurative
C) It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases
D) It may be cause by surgical technical error

A

It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases

38
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of scrotal hernia?
A) small intestine
B) Large intestine
C) Uterus
D) Urinary bladder

A

) small intestine

39
Q

ECG characteristics of atrial fibrillation:
a) The R-R distance varies and the ventricular complexes are greatly deformed
b) There are no P-waves and R-R distances are regular
c) There are no P-waves and the R-R distance varies
d) The atria and the ventricles operate separately with different P-wave and QRS frequencies W

A

There are no P-waves and the R-R distance varies

40
Q

Which macrocyclic lactone is used in our university as part of the complex treatment of heart worm disease?
A) Selamectin
B) Ivermectin
C) Moxidectin
D) Milbemycin oxime

A

Moxidectin

41
Q

When can a horizontal dullness occur during thoracic percussion?
a) in pleural effusion
b) During pneumonia
c) In pulmonary neoplastic diseases
d) During cardiac enlargement

A

in pleural effusion

42
Q

What is the typical physical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation?
a) honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture
b) thin, water-like flu during puncture
c) Bloody fluid during puncture
d) None of them

A

honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture

43
Q

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of Canine heartworm disease?
a) doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine
b) fenbendazole, doramectine, clopidrogel
c) doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
d) doxycycline, milbemycin-oxime, melarsomine

A

doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine

44
Q

An ECG is most appropriate (indicated) if: (more than one correct answer is possible)
a) when the heart rate of a cat arrived for vaccination is 150bpm
b) When a cat that had an accident has 200bpm heart rate
c) When a cat with a body temperature of 40.8C has a heart rate of 190bpm
d) When a cat that arrived for flea prevention has 120bpm heart rate

A

When a cat that arrived for flea prevention has 120bpm heart rate

45
Q

Which has the highest microbial number at the beginning surgery?
a) surgical glove
b) Artery clamp
c) The skin of patient
d) Gauze sponges

A

The skin of patient

46
Q

The upper border of the dullness during percussion of pleural effusion is:
a) Concave
b) Convey
c) Horizontal
d) Changing in direction but never horizontal

A

Horizontal

47
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of an animal with ventricular arrhythmia:
a) blood test, abdominal ultrasound
b) cTroponon-I measurement
c) Administration of digoxin
d) Echocardiography

A

blood test, abdominal ultrasound

48
Q

Reduction of ventricular afterload during heart failure:
a) always beneficial
b) Should only be used in mild heart failure
c) Should only be used in severe heart failure
d) Extremely risky

A

Should only be used in severe heart failure

49
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?
a) Thoracocentesis
b) Abdominocentesis
c) Ultrasonography
d) Respiratory endoscopy

A

Ultrasonography

50
Q

Tying surgical knots. Pick the false answer (more than one is possible)
A) in surgery, at least two-half knots with opposite direction are considered to be knot
B) Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening
C) two-handed, one-handed and instrumental knopng may be performed
D) Instrumental knopng is safer for ligating large vessels and bundle of tissues

A

A) in surgery, at least two-half knots with opposite direction are considered to be knot

B) Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening

51
Q

Classification of pimobendan:
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Ca-channel sensitiser and phosphodiesterase inhibitor
C) A bipyridine derivative
D) Ca-channel sensitiser and alpha-adrenergic blocker

A

Ca-channel sensitiser and phosphodiesterase inhibitor

52
Q

The administration of digoxin may be justified to treat:
a) III-degree AV block
b) Ventricular tachycardia
c) Atrial fibrillation
d) Sinus tachycardia

A

Atrial fibrillation

53
Q

Why can we boldly reduce preload in heart failure?
a) because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrhythmia
b) Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output
c) Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear
d) Because the afterlod will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

A

Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output

54
Q

Which answer is false?
a) During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile
b) The outer surface of the surgical glove is considered sterile when it is put on
c) the open gloving method is used for minor interventions (e.g. catheterization)
d) when performing the open gloving method, the folded-back inner surface of the glove cuff can be found with your bare hands

A

During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

55
Q

What is the goal of asepsis?
a) to prevent contamination
b) To reduce contamination
c) To allow contamination
d) All of the above

A

to prevent contamination

56
Q

What can not be the reason of haemopericardium in dogs?
a) Chemodectoma
b) Idiopathic inflammation
c) Thromboembolism
d) Coagulopathy

A

Thromboembolism

57
Q

Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair?
a) Laparotomy
b) Later thoracotomy
c) Laparotomy lateral thoracotomy
d) Sternotomy

A

Laparotomy

58
Q

Which of the following drugs has not afterload reducing effect?
a) Amlodipine
b) Pimobendan
c) Digoxin
d) Hydralazine

A

Digoxin

59
Q

What is NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
a) may cause thromboembolism
b) May cause sudden death
c) Often has long survival
d) Causes right sided heart dilation

A

Causes right sided heart dilation

60
Q

What are the consequences of left heart failure?
A) pulmonary oedema
B) Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
C) Congestive liver
D) Ascites

A

pulmonary oedema

61
Q

Which of these are the thinnest suture material?
2-0
2
4
3-0

A

3-0

62
Q

Which acquired condition may be contributing to the idiopathic laryngeal paralysis?
a. Polyneuropathy
b. trauma
c. endocrinopathy
d. tumor

A

Polyneuropathy

63
Q

The vena cava syndrome due to heartworm disease:
a. can be obviously diagnosed by echocardiography
b. is the mild form of heartworm disease
c. corresponds to Class 2 of heartworm disease
d. can be treated with moxidektin

A

can be obviously diagnosed by echocardiography

64
Q

Which of the following statement is correct? A passive drain…
a. … is always a single-exit drain
b. …can only be used as double exit drain
c. …is mostly used for flushing
d. …is more effective with a compression bandage on it

A

…is more effective with a compression bandage on it

65
Q

Conditions of the musculoskeletal system requiring emergency care. Mark the incorrect answer!
a. Open fracture
b. Intraarticular bone fracture
c. Patellar luxation
d. Severe muscular injury, laceration

A

Patellar luxation

66
Q

How to start resuscitation if you are alone:
a. Check and clean the airways, intubate, start chest compressions
b. Check and clean the airways, intubate, call help
c. Check and clean the airways, call help, start chest compressions
d. Start chest compressions, call help

A

Check and clean the airways, call help, start chest compressions

67
Q

What is prognathic bite?
a. mandible is longer than maxilla
b. maxilla is longer than mandible
c. mandible is missing
d. maxilla is missing

A

mandible is longer than maxilla

68
Q

Emergency case
a.Othematoma
b. Severe pneumothorax
c. Skin fold dermatitis
d. Tartar-covered teeth

A

Severe pneumothorax

69
Q

Which muscle can NOT be used for intramuscular injection application?
a. m. biceps brachii
b. m. quadriceps femoris
c. m. triceps brachii
d. m. semitendinosus/semimembranosus

A

m. biceps brachii

70
Q

What is the normal blood glucose value?
0,2 - 2,2 mmol/L
3,3 - 6,2 mmol/L
8-15 mmol/L
more than 15 mmol/L

A

3,3 - 6,2 mmol/L

71
Q

Characteristic of laryngeal paralysis:
a. usually old, large breed dogs are affected and the background is usually idiopathic
b. its background cannot be a viral infection
c. can not be congenital
d. endoscopy is unsuitable for diagnosis due to anaesthesia

A

usually old, large breed dogs are affected and the background is usually idiopathic

72
Q

Which acquired condition may be contributing to the idiopathic laryngeal paralysis?
polyneuropathy
trauma
endocrinopathy
tumour

A

polyneuropathy

73
Q

Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval (DFI) in a retrospective study by McNiel et al (JAVMA, 1997) analysing cases with primary lung tumour
removed via pulmonary lobectomy?
a. the histopathologic grade of the lung tumour
b. clinical signs
c. regional lymphonode metastases
d. plus or minus chemotherapy

A

plus or minus chemotherapy

74
Q

Regions of intramuscular injections
a. m. triceps, infrascapularis, quadriceps, hamstring muscles
b. m. triceps, suprascapularis, quadriceps, hamstring muscles
c. m. triceps, suprascapularis, quadriceps,coracobrachialis
d. m. triceps, suprascapularis, quadriceps, hamstring muscles

A

m. triceps, suprascapularis, quadriceps, hamstring muscles

75
Q

The ideal frequency of breathing during resuscitation:
5-6/minute
10-12/minute
14-16/minute
20-22/minute

A

10-12/minute

76
Q

Possible complication of iv drug application
aspiration
phlebitis
overhydration
neuritis

A

phlebitis

SAM Final PQS (18 decks)

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