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SAM Final PQS > PQ9 > Flashcards

PQ9 Flashcards

1
Q

Regarding brain lesions, which parts of the brain can be distinguished?

A)Forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum

B) Forebrain, diencephalon, cerebellum

C) Cerebral hemisphere, pons, medulla oblongata

D) Forebrain, Diencephalon, spinal chord

A

Forebrain; Brainstem; Cerebellum

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2
Q

Which statement is correct for the clinical signs of oesophageal disease in general?

Appetite is always decreased

appetite is always incraised

appetite is never changed

appetite can be decreased or increased

A

Appetite can be decreased or increased

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3
Q

Which breed is not predisposed for primary Cu accumulation

Bedlington terrier

german shepherd

Labrador retriever

dalmation

A

German Shepherd

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4
Q

Which is the first drug of choice in the treatment of primary Cu accumulation?

D-penicillamine

N-acetylcystein

Cyclosporine

Amoxycillin

A

D-penicillamine

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5
Q

In case of intestinal obstruction…

acute vomiting is the most characteristics symptom

urgent gastric lavage is required

profuse bloody diarrhea is the most characteristics symptom

most of the cases can be managed with conservative therapy

A

Profuse bloody diarrhoea is the most characteristic symptom

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6
Q

Chronic inflammatory enteropathy (CIE)…

involves lymphangiectasia as its subgroup

is one of the chronic form of bacterial enteritis

can result in protein loosing enteropathy

is not known in cats

A

Can result in protein-losing enteropathy

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7
Q

In which of the following does megaoesophagus not occur?

Cushing disease

Myesthenia gravis

Addison disese

Hypothyreosis

A

Cushing’s disease

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8
Q

Granulomatous colitis is caused by…

Campylobacter coli

Enteropathogenic E coli EPEC

Adherent invasive E coli AIEC

Clostridium perfringens

A

Adherent invasive E. coli AIEC

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9
Q

Not suggested medication in IBD

Azathioprine for cats

prednisolone

cyclosporine

budesonide

A

Azathioprine for cats

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10
Q

Which hepatic division posses the gall bladder?

Right division

central division

left division

caudal division

A

Central division

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11
Q

Which of the following procedures has a modification called Roux-en-Y technique?

Choledochotomy

Cholecystectomy

Cholecystoduodenostomy

Cholecystojejunostomy

A

Cholecystoduodenostomy

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12
Q

Which anal zone involves Circumanal hepatoid glands?

zone cutanea

linea anorectalis

zona intermedia

zona columnaris

A

Zona Cutanea

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13
Q

Which suture technique is recommended for the closure of the colon in cats?

Single layer simple interrupted

single or double layer simple interrupted or continuus

single or double layer but always simple interrupted

single or double layer but always simple continuus

A

Single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous

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14
Q

In case of anaemic condition, which cell increase is indicating the regenerative property of the disease?

A

Reticulocytes

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15
Q

Which of the following non-regenerative diseases has the best prognosis?

  • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
  • Addisons disease
  • Sertoli cell testicular tumor with hyperoestrogenism
  • Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
A

addisons disease

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16
Q

Which platelet number can we expect bleeding because of thrombocytopenia?

A

< 50 g/l

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17
Q

Which statement is true?

  • In case of hemolytic anaemia the blood plasma can be clear
  • In case of pancytopenia the thrombocyte number is elevated
  • In case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anaemia occurs in a few hours
  • Babesia and Mycoplasma cause non-regenerative anaemia
A

In case of hemolytic anaemia the blood plasma can be clear

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18
Q

Which cannot cause secondary immunohemolytic anaemia?

Microsporum

Mycoplasma

Babesia

Haemangiosarcoma

A

Microsporum

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19
Q

Deviations in thrombocytopenia

Haemoperitonem , epistaxis, bleeding time inc., thrombocyte inc.

Petechia, haemothorax, bleeding time inc., thromboccyte dec.

Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time inc, thrombocyte dec.

Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time dec., thrombocyte dec.

A

Petechia; Epistaxis; Bleeding time increases; Thrombocytes decrease

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20
Q

Lyssencephalon

Is the congenital underdevelopment of the cerebral cortex groove

Consequence of hydrocephalus

Is a form of cerebral storage disorder

The rabies (lyssa) histopathological consequence in cerebrum

A

Is the congenital underdevelopment of the cerebral cortex groove

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21
Q

Which statement can be true?

In case of hemolytic anaemia the blood plasma can be clear

  • In case of pancytopenia the thrombocyte number is elevated
  • In case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anaemia occurs in a few hours
  • Babesia and Mycoplasma cause non-regenerative anaemia
A

In case of haemolytic anaemia, the blood plasma can be clear

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22
Q

Which symptom is not common with acute gastric catastrophe?

  • Abdominal pain
  • DIC
  • Shock phases
  • Vomiting
A

Vomiting

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23
Q

Where are vertebral body tumours most common?

In the vertebral body middle third

On end plates

On processus multifidarius

On Processus articularis

A

In the vertebral body middle 1/3 or end plates !!! :-( 50/50

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24
Q

Which one of the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria?

● Small sized proteins appear in the urine

● UPC >2

● UPC <0.

● Ketonuria

A

Small-sized proteins appear in the urine

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25
Q

IRIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is associated with
1. Azotemia
2. Anaemia, metabolic acidosis
3. Uremia
4. Decreased specific gravity of urine

A

Decreased specific gravity of the urine

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26
Q

Abnormalities that are typical for chronic renal disease… which answer is wrong?

PU/PD

Hypophosphatemia

Hypokalaemia

Hypertension

A

Hypophosphataemia

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27
Q

The progression of renal disease is caused by… Which is not correct?
1. Proteinuria
2. Isosthenuria
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Glomerular hypertension

● Proteinuria

● Isosthenuria

● hyperparathyroidism

● Glomerular hypertension

A

Isothenuria

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28
Q

It prolongs the survival of dogs & cats with chronic kidney disease…

Increased phosphorus intake

● Medical reduction of proteinuria

● Urinary diet

● ABC are all true

A

urinary diet

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29
Q

Which one of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis?
1. Partial nephrectomy nephrosis
2. Unilateral nephroureteroectomy
3. Kidney drainage
4. Euthanasia

A

Unilateral nephroureteroectomy

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30
Q

In case of elevated blood creatinine concentration…

● The animal is uremic azote

● The animal has kidney disease

● The animal has azotemia

● The animal was fed with too much protein

A

The animal has azotaemia

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31
Q

Which of the following findings indicates the diagnosis of the urinary bladder

rupture?

if the cystourethral catheterisation cannot harvest

urine in a traumatised patient

  • if the urine is blood obtained via cystourethral

catheterisation in a traumatised patient

-if the contrast leakage is confirmed py positive

anterograde cystography

-ff the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive

Retrograde cystography

A

If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

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32
Q

Postrenal azotaemia…which answer is wrong?

May be due to urethral obstruction

May cause kidney damage without treatment

May be due to severe dehydration

May be due to ureter rupture

A

May be due to severe dehydration

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33
Q

Which of the following is not typical in case of acute kidney injury?

Cachexia

Vomitus

Metabolic acidosis

Uraemic ulcers

A

Cachexia

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34
Q

Which of the following protocols are to followed in case of acute obstruction form of

feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)?

stabilisation perineal urethrostomy

  • stabilisation cystocentesis
  • stabilisation urinary bladder expression
  • stabilisation urethral catheterisation
A

Stabilisation & urethral catheterisation

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35
Q

Which aren’t typical of babesiosis?

● Myoglobinuria

● Icterus

● Vomitus

● Acute kidney injury

A

Myoglobinuria

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36
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in a male dog?

● Urethral Hydropropulsion

● Prescrotal urethrostomy

● Scrotal urethrostomy

● Perineal urethrostomy

A

Urethral hydropropulsion

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37
Q

Which circumstances may cause nephrosis/acute kidney injury? Which answer is wrong?

  • Hypotension, dehydration
  • overhydration with crystalloid infusions
  • hypothermia, NSAID therapy
  • antibiotics, chemotherapeutics
A

Hypothermia , NSAID therapy

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38
Q

Oliguria definition in dogs?

Urine output less than 50ml/kh/day

● Urine output less than 100ml/kg/day

● Urine output less than 30ml/kg/day

● Urine output less than 6-10ml/kg/day

A

Urine output is < 6-10 ml/bwkg/day

39
Q

Which is least important to establish diagnosis of kidney disease?

Blood urea creatinine measurement

Measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and

potassium levels

Urine sediment evaluation and urine specific gravity

measurement

Detection of proteinuria

A

Measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium levels

40
Q

. Which of the following uroliths appears in case of ethylene glycol toxicosis?

  • struvite
  • calcium-oxalate dihydrate
  • calcium-oxalate monohydrate
  • purine
A

Calcium-oxalate monohydrate

41
Q

Symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in small animals. which is wrong?

● Hematuria, pollakiuria

● stranguria, dysuria

● Polyuria, azotemia

● Periuria, incontinence

A

Polyuria, Azotemia

42
Q

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs?

● Diet

● AB

● Urine acidification

● All 3

A

Diet; Abx; Urine acidification

D) All 3

43
Q

Acute causes of nephrosis. Which is wrong?

● Immune complex deposition

● Renal ischaemia

● Nephrotoxic materials

● Hemoglobin, myoglobin

A

● Immune complex deposition

44
Q

Renal cysts

  • Are always congenital
  • Are always bilateral
  • Are mainly incidental findings
  • Generally cause renal failure
A

Are mainly incidental findings

45
Q

Most common cause of struvite urolithiasis in dogs?

  • Neutering in bitches
  • Chronic bacterial urinary tract infection
  • Dietary anomaly
  • Inadequate response to stressors
A

Chronic bacterial UTI

46
Q

Which therapies are not recommended for treatment of dehydration in CKD?

  • Administration of intravenous infusion
  • Administration of subcutaneous infusion
  • Increase of water consumption
  • Dialysis treatment
A

Dialysis treatment

47
Q

Renal amyloidosis is usually found in…

Persian

Siamese

Abyssinian

Bengal

A

Abyssinian cats

48
Q

What is not true about renal glycosuria?

  • It is caused by glomerular disease
  • Plasma glucose levels are normal
  • Can have genetic causes
  • May a be part of Fanconi syndrome
A

It is caused by glomerular disease

49
Q

How would you treat a cat with interstitial cystitis?

Antibiotics

  • Urine acidifying diet
  • Catheterization, flushing the bladder with

isotonic saline

  • Increase water
A

Increase water

50
Q

Creatinine level of dogs & cats with IRIS stage 1 CKD is…

Normal <140

>240umol/L

>340umol/L

>440umol/L

A

Normal <130 umol/l

51
Q

Which statement is true for animals with renal dysplasia?

`-kidneys are typically enlarged on US with a thick

cortex

-in such cases, there are usually no changes in the

urine, only in the blood

  • common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia
  • on a physical examination the kidneys are usually

painful

A

Common symptoms are PU/PD

52
Q

Which therapeutic measure decreases blood potassium during the treatment of hyperkalaemia? Choose the wrong answer?

● IV calcium

● Potassium free infusion and furosemide

● Glucose containing infusions

● Rapid acting insulin applications

A

IV calcium

53
Q

What is the main and initiating cause of the calcium-phosphorus imbalance in CKF?

● Inadequate vitamin D production

● Poor absorption of calcium from the GI tract

● Retention of phosphorous

● Nephrocalcinosis

A

Retention of phosphorus

54
Q

In dogs, which type of urolithiasis can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle &

body condition?

  • Struvite
  • Calcium oxalate
  • Purine
  • Cystine
A

Calcium oxalate

55
Q

What is not true for polycystic kidney disease?

is often asymptomatic

-renal abscesses may develop in case of

bacterial infection of the cyst

-ultrasound examination is required to make a

diagnosis

-treatment is often surgical

A

treatment is often surgical

56
Q

The most effective gastric protectant for dogs with CKD?

  • pantoprazole
  • famotidine
  • sucralfate
  • benazepril
A

pantoprazole

57
Q

Which urinary stone cannot be dissolved medically?

Struvite

Cystine

Purine

Calcium oxalate

A

calcium oxalate

58
Q

It typically causes acute & chronic kidney disease – Pre-existing chronic disease + …

  • Polypoid cystitis
  • Hemodynamic disturbance
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Hepatopathy
A

Haemodynamic disturbances

59
Q

Which one of the following uroliths appears usually in cases of dogs with bacterial

cystitis?

Urate

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

Cystine

Struvite

A

struvite

60
Q

Possible causes of hydronephrosis… Which is the wrong answer?

  • Ureter stone
  • Granuloma formation following neutralization
  • Ascending infection
  • Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder
A

Urether stone

61
Q

Until what level is it recommended to increase the Ht with erythropoietin/darbepoetin

therapy in chronic kidney disease?

  • Until Ht is 22-25%
  • Until Ht is around 30%
  • To normal range
  • The success of the treatment does not

depend on the ht value

A

Until the Ht is around 30%

62
Q

Renal amyloidosis is typically found in which dog breed?

Basenji

Shar-pei

Hungarian vizsla

poodle

A

Shar pei

63
Q

Oliguria in the dog – Aetiology

  • Chronic renal disease, nephrosis/nephritis,

pyometra

  • Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute

nephrosis

  • Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver

disease

  • Endocrine disorders, hepatopathies
A

Inadequate water intake; Dehydration; Acute nephrosis

64
Q

Hypercholesterolaemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease

  • glomerulopathies of dogs
  • chronic kidney disease of cats
  • acute kidney injury of dogs
  • fanconi syndrome
A

Glomerulopathies of dogs

65
Q

Renal amyloidosis is not typically caused by…

Chronic inflammatory process

  • Neoplastic process
  • Chronic liver disease
  • Genetic (familiar) causes
A

Chronic liver disease

66
Q

What statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis?

Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high

An important element of therapy is

broad-spectrum AB treatment

Serum albumin level is increased

Diagnosis can be made based on the typical US

image of the kidneys

A

An important element of therapy is broad spectrum Abx therapy

67
Q

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureters?

It may cause dysuria

In acquired form, the incontinence recurring

The urinary incontinence might be combined with

normal micturition episodes

The urinary incontinence is always constant

A

The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

68
Q

What is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy?

Castration can prevent urinary incontinence

The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided

Easily dissectable urethrenlargeal section, wide

and safe stoma

The cystotomy can be avoided

A

Easily dissectible urethra, larger section, wide and safe stoma

69
Q

Which treatment does not affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases

Feeding real diet

Adding phosphorus binders to the diet

ACE inhibitor therapy

Vitamin D admin

A

ACE-inhibitor therapy

70
Q

In case of renal traumatic bleeding…

The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)

The plain abdominal radiography is usually

pathogenic

Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to

exsanguination

Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually

does not lead to life threatening circulatory

changes

A

Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually
does not lead to life threatening circulatory
changes

71
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding prostate ultrasonography?

a. It can detect fluid accumulation within the organ
b. It can detect parenchymal hypertrophy
c. It can differentiate cyst from abscess
d. It provides possibility of core biopsy

A

It can differentiate cysts from abscess urolithiasis

72
Q

Cat with enlarged kidneys, which diagnosis is not probable?

PKD

Hydronephrosis

Lymphoma of the kidneys

Renal fibrosis

A

Renal fibrosis

73
Q

Which is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulopathies?

Determination of the blood creatinine and urea

values

Determination of the urine specific gravity by a

refractometer

Detection of severe proteinuria

Examination of the urine sediment

A

Detection of severe proteinuria

74
Q

Not a typical laboratory alteration in CKD

Hypokalemia

Anemia

Hyperphosphatemia

Metabolic alkalosis

A

Metabolic alkalosis

75
Q

What is your diagnosis if glucosuria appears in case of euglycemia?

Cushing’s disease

Addison’s disease

Both

None

A

Addison’s disease

76
Q

The most common LUTD of cats?

Prostate disease

Idiopathic cysts

Urolithiasis

Bacterial cystitis

A

Idiopathetic cysts

77
Q

Causes of glomerular diseases in small animals. Not correct?

A)Adhesions of immune complexes to the

basement membrane

B) Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials

C)Amyloidosis

D)congenital/ acquired basement membrane/

podocyte injury

A

congenital/ acquired basement membrane/

podocyte injury

78
Q

Causes of anaemic in CKD patients. The wrong answer?

Lack of erythropoietin

GI bleeding/ulcers

Decreased survival of RBC

Hemolysis

A

Haemolysis

79
Q

Which statement is true for pyelonephritis?

-the bacteria usually reach the acute renal pelvis

from the systemic circulation

-we can get a sample from diagnostic tests by

aspirating the renal pelvis

-on the ultrasound examination we find shrunken

kidneys

-usually the urinary sediment is unchanged

because the inflammation is limited to the

renal pelvis

A

We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis

80
Q

Subclinical bacteriuria…

Asymptomatic

Only mild lower uti symptoms

Pyelonephritis may be suspected

Bacteria in urine as usually multidrug resistant

A

Is asymptomatic

81
Q

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals

E coli/ proteus

Antifreeze

Leptospirosis

Ureter stone

A

Leptosporosis

82
Q

False for polycystic kidney disease

In glomerular proteinuria large protein are

excreted

Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/cret ration is

very high

Borderline proteinuria means UPC is between 0.2

and 0.4 or 5

Proteinuria of glomerular or tubular origin can be

differentiated by renal biopsy

A

Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/cret ration is

very high

83
Q

Urohydropropulsion…

Requires good surgical skills

No sedation is required

Renal pelvis is connected to the bladder with

special shunt

May be suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

A

May be suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

84
Q

Fanconi syndrome is not characterised by…

A

Central diabetes insipidus

85
Q

Not Recommended for cystotomy wound closure

Double layer continuous lembert

Double layer penetrating lembet

Single layer seromuscular continuous

Double layer interrupted lembert

A

Double layer penetrating lembert

86
Q

IRIS classification of CKD? Wrong answer?

4 stages determined by serum creatinine levels

Stage 1 the creatinine is only mildly elevated

Substages based on presence of proteinuria

Substaged based on degree of hypertension

A

stage 1 the creatinine is only midly elevated

87
Q

When should you think of leptospirosis in a dog?

A

Elevated liver enzymes & creatinine values

88
Q

Antidote of ethylene glycol toxicosis?

A

Ethyl alcohol; Fomepizole

89
Q

Not typical of IRIS stage 1 CKD

A

Acute blindness due to hypertension

90
Q

Renal amyloidosis is not typically caused by…

Chronic inflammatory process

  • Neoplastic process
  • Chronic liver disease
  • Genetic (familiar) causes
A

Chronic liver disease

91
Q

Which statement is correct about glomerulopathies?

75% of glomerulopathis is amyloidosis

50% of glomerulopathis is amyloidosis

15% of glomerulopathis is of Immune complex

origin

50% of glomerulopathis is of immune complex

origin

A

50% of glomerulopathies are of immune complex origin

92
Q

Most likely diagnosis in cats in case of haematuria?

FIC

Urolithiasis

Neoplasia

Bacterial cystitis

A

FIC

93
Q

To determine the urine concentrating capacity, we use…

Blood urea levels

Urinary total protein/creatinine ratio (UPC)

Urine specific gravity with a refractometer

Blood creatinine and SDMA levels

A

USG with a refractometer

94
Q

Monitoring BP is especially important in…

In young animals

In FIC

In kidney disease

In case of heart failure

A

Kidney diseases

SAM Final PQS (18 decks)

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