PQ 5 (2) Flashcards by Hege Osland

Sunburst-like periosteal reaction is typical for which disorder?

a. malignant bone tumors
b. bone cyst
c. osteochondrosis dissecans
d. benign bone tumors

Malignant bone tumours

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Which statement is true?

a. The joint capsule is visible in the radiograph.
b. The subchondral bone is not visible in the radiograph.
c. The joint cartilage is not visible in the radiograph.
d. Joint ligaments are visible in the radiograph.

The joint cartilage is not visible on the radiograph

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Which abnormality can be connected to clinical signs?

a. spondylosis deformans
b. hemivertebra
c. calcified nucleus pulposus
d. SH-2 epiphysiolysis

A) Spondylosis deformans

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The number of vertebrae in dogs?

a. 6 cervical, 13 thoracic , 6 lumbar
b. 7 cervical 13 thoracic , 7 lumbar
c. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic , 7 lumbar
d. 6 cervical, 12 thoracic , 6 lumbar

C7; Th13; L7

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Which answer is true? The radiographic sign of a Wobbler-syndrome can be

a. deformed cervical vertebra
b. deformed thoracic vertebra
c. deformed lumbar vertebra
d. deformed sacrum

Deformed cervical vertebra; C2 – C7

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Hansen type I discus hernia?

a. Is called protrusion in Latin
b. is generally acute clinical process
c. generally affects large breed dogs
d. the fibrotic change of the nucleus pulposus in the background

B.Is a generally acute clinical process;

Chondrodystrophic breeds; Nucleus pulposis

calcification; Annulus fibrosis rupture; Extrusion; Rapid deterioration

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Which radiographic change is not connected generally to clinical signs?
a. spondylosis deformans
b. discospondylitis
c. extradural compression on the myelogram

spondylosis deformans

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Which statement is false regarding discospondylosis?

a. it is characterized by osteolytic changes
b. it is an aseptic process
c. the end plates of the vertebrae are affected
d. it generally goes with pain and pyrexia

It is an aseptic process

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Which of the following features defines the suture material’s drainage ability?

a. Monofilament vs multifilament
b. Tensile strength
c. Knot security
d. Absorption

Monofilament vs Multifilament

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Which statement is correct regarding intra-and post-operative hypothermia?

a. Decreased anesthetic demand
b. Doxopram is the drug of choice in case of hypothermia
c. Is mostly due to the use of opioids
d. Increases the oxygen demand of the central nervous system

There is decreased anaesthetic demand

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Which statement is correct concerning the maintenance phase of anaesthesia?

a. General anesthesia may be maintained by either inhalant or injectable agents;

combinations for maintenance are contraindicated

b. In the maintenance phase of anesthesia, application of 100 ml/bwkg/h

crystalloid infusion is recommended to maintain normovolemia and

normotension

c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anesthesia using

the lowest sufficient dose of anesthetics

d. The main duties of the anesthetist are monitoring of the patient,

maintenance of homeostasis, fine adjustment of the depth of anesthesia and

preservation of vagotonia

The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anaesthesia using the lowest

sufficient dose of anaesthetics

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What is the normal value of the Norberg angle in healthy dogs?

Higher than 105 degrees

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Which statements are true?

a. Acids can cause coagulation necrosis
b. Alkalines can cause colliquation necrosis
c. Both
d. None

Acids can cause coagulation necrosis; Alkalises can cause colliquation necrosis

Both

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What is the number of permanent teeth in dogs?

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What is the number of permanent teeth in cats?

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Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thinnest suture material?

4.0

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What statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC) ?

a. Disc calcification indicated SCC
b. A survey radiograph is generally enough to diagnose SCC
c. SCC can be caused exclusively by the intervertebral disc
d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

Myelography is a useful tool in the diagnosis of SCC

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Which of the following suture materials are non-absorbable?

a. Polypropylene
b. Polydioxanone
c. Both
d. None

Polypropylene; Polyamide

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The proper name of the “oxspring” view for the examination of the navicular bone

Dorsoproximal-palmarodorsal oblique view

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Which parameter decreases in DIC?

Fibrinogen

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Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular

cardiovascular suture material?

a. Monofilament features
b. Good tensile strength
c. Good knot security
d. Unique thrombophob feature

Good tensile strength

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What does “2-metric” mean on a suture material pack?

The suture material is 0.2mm in diameter

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Current concepts of pain management/analgesia is…

a. Presumptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of

action)

b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites

of action)

c. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multilocal (acting at several different sites of

action)

d. Of higher importance in adults than in pediatric patients

Pre-emptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

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What is spongostan?

Gelatine sponge

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Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the paediatric patient?

The vegetative innervation of the heart and the vasomotor function is immature

Which statement is correct? ## Footnote a. Clean soft tissue procedures require broad spectrum antibiotic treatment preoperatively b. Clean soft tissue procedures require first generation cephalosporins preoperatively c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis d. In clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures, amoxicillin treatment is the therapy of choice

Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis

Which one is an opioid antagonist?

Naloxone

Phase of wound healing are…

Acute inflammation – Resorption – Proliferation – Remodelling

What is the main shock organ of the cat? A. Lung B. Liver C. GI Tract D. Pancreas

Lung

What is the main shock organ of the dog? A. Lung B. Liver C. GI Tract D. Pancreas

GI tract

Which statement is correct regarding dentine in the dog? ## Footnote a. It is capable of repair in living tooth b. Dentine layer is thickening towards enamel during production c. It comprises more than 98% inorganic elements (false) d. It is continuously narrowing during aging

It is capable of repair in living tooth

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia? a. Urinary bladder b. Small intestines c. Large intestines d. Uterus

Urinary bladder

Which statement is false? An active drain… ## Footnote a. Is not recommended as flushing drain b. Can be open suction-drain c. Can be closed suction-drain d. Is used as flushing drain

Is not recommended as flushing drain

What does “epulis” mean? ## Footnote A. Benign papillomatous mass on the gingiva B. Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva C. Benign melanoid mass on the gingiva D. Malignant fibromatous mass on the gingiva

Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the salivary mucocele? ## Footnote a. Its etiology can be either traumatic or inflammatory b. It is common in poodle c. One of its effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst d. It definitely indicates surgery

One of its effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst

According to the Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006), which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage? ligature biopsy laparoscopic pinch biopsy needle biopsy none of them

Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy

Which statement is true? Injuries of the tongue ## Footnote a. Are not be operated on b. Mostly heal with complications c. Mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures d. Always be regarded as contaminated

Injuries of the tongue are always regarded as contaminated

Which of the following conditions doesn’t cause hydronephrosis? ## Footnote a. Ureteral torsion b. Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery c. Ureteral tumor d. Ureterolithiasis

Ureteral torsion

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body? ## Footnote a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 95% b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy

The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure

Which approach is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair? ## Footnote a. Laparotomy b. Lateral thoracotomy c. Laparotomy + lateral thoracotomy d. Sternotomy

Laparotomy

Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal intussusception? a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section b. Positive contrast abdominal GI radiography c. Lack of feces d. Vomiting

Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

Which statement is correct? ## Footnote a. Glucocorticoids specifically inhibit the cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzyme b. Non-steroids (NSAID´s) inhibit the production of leukotrienes c. NSAID´s inhibit phospholipase A2 (false) d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

Which statement is correct concerning the endotracheal tube?

Not only aspiration may be prevented by using endotracheal tubes, but it also allows for connection to the anaesthesia machine by the Y-piece and mechanical ventilation

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis? ## Footnote a. Partial nephrectomy b. Unilateral nephroureterectomy c. Kidney-drainage d. Euthanasia

Partial nephrectomy

Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic dogs?

Ventral rhinotomy (due to lack of space dorsally)

Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply? ## Footnote a. Left gastric b. Left gasteoepiploic c. Short gastric d. Splenic

Left gastric

Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature dogs? ## Footnote a. Panosteitis b. Perthes disease c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy d. Achilles tendineopathy

Biceps tendon insertion tendinopathy

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis? ## Footnote a. It can occur bilaterally b. It can lead to ureterolithiasis c. It can be caused by congenital disorder d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

Which sign reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (spO2 is \<60mmHg) ## Footnote a. Dyspnoe b. Cyanosis c. Hyperventilation d. Labial breathing

Cyanosis

Which anal zone involves Circumanal hepatoid glands? ## Footnote a. Zona cutanea b. Linea anorectalis c. Zona intermedia d. Zona columnaris

Zona cutanea

Which statement is incorrect concerning prostate US? ## Footnote a. It can detect fluid accumulation within the organ b. It can detect parenchymal hypertrophy c. It can differentiate cyst from abscess d. It provides possibility of core biopsy

It can differentiate cysts from abscesses

Which nerve is most prone to iatrogenic injury during TECA + LBO procedure? ## Footnote A. Maxillary n. B. Auriculotemporal branch of facial n. C. Auriculopalpebral branch of facial n. D. Hypoglossal n.

Auriculopalpebral branch of the facial nerve

Which tool is next to be chosen in the case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia? a. Thoracocentesis b. Abdominocentesis c. Ultrasonography d. Respiratory endoscopy

Ultrasound

Intramedullary pinning is not good for? ## Footnote a. Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture b. Femoral fracture treatment in cats c. Fixing calcaneal fractures d. Treatment of avulsion fractures

Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture

Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis? A. Linear foreign body ingestion B. Obturation C. Ileus D. Mesenteric torsion

Mesenteric torsion

Which is not correct regarding pelvic fractures?

It is an absolute indication for surgical treatment

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction form of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)? a. Stabilization + perirenal urethrostomy b. Stabilization + cystocentesis c. Stabilization + urinary bladder expression d. Stabilization + urethral catheterization

Stabilisation + Urethral catheterisaion

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV)? a. GDV starts right after the last feeding b. The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders c. There is also a chronic form of GDV d. GDV is usually of acute onset

GDV starts right after the last feeding

Which suture material is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure? ## Footnote a. PDS b. Polyglyconate c. Glycomer d. Polyglecaprone

Poliglecaprone

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureters? ## Footnote a. Cystoscopy b. Double contrast cystography c. Intravenous urography + pneumocystography d. Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4-

IV urography + pneumocystography; + Negative contrast

What does “Skeletonisation” mean? ## Footnote a. Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected b. V-shaped excision of the mesentery c. Excision of the affected intestinal section d. Suturing of the V-shaped mesenteric defect

Cassation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected

How many lung lobes does the dog have? A. 6 B. 8 C. 7 D. 5

How many lung lobes does the cat have? A. 6 B. 8 C. 7 D. 5

Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts? a. Marsupalisation b. Omentalisation c. Drainage d. Puncture

Puncture

What is the advantage of scrotal uretrostomy? ## Footnote a. Castratio can prevent urinary incontinence b. The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided c. Early dissectable urethral section, wider and safer stroma d. The cystotomy can be avoided

Early dissectible urethral section, wider and safer stroma

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe? ## Footnote a. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication b. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication c. It definitely requires emergency care d. It is caused by morphological and/ or functional disorders of abdominal organ(s)

A) The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication

Which of the following breeds is usually not affected by ectopic ureter? ## Footnote a. German shepherd b. Labrador c. Husky d. West highland terrier

German shepard

Which of the diagnostic findings indicate the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture? ## Footnote a. If the cystourethral catheterization cannot harvest urine in a traumatized patient b. If the urine is bloody obtained via cystourethral catheterization in a traumatized patients c. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography d. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

Which statement is incorrect concerning diaphragmatic hernias? ## Footnote a. They take 5 to 10 % of diaphragmatic hernias b. Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: axial and para-esophageal c. The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited d. The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum (true)

The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

Which statement is true regarding inguinal hernia? ## Footnote a. In direct hernia: the small intestines escape to the subcutaneous space of the scrotum b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one c. Both d. None

The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one

Ideal therapy in case of a joint injury is… ## Footnote a. Joint lavage within 6 hours b. Joint lavage within 10 hours c. Joint lavage within 10 hours d. Joint lavage within 10 hours

Joint lavage withing 6 hours

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy? ## Footnote a. Dorsal latissimus m b. Dorsal serratus m c. Ventral serratus m d. M.cutaneus trunci

M. cutaneuous trunci

Which of the following nerves are most prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO)? A. Maxillary n. B. Auriculotemporal branch of facial n. C. Auriculopalpebral branch of facial n. D. Hypoglossal n.

Hypoglossal nerve

Which of the following suture patterns is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure? Double layer continuous lembert Double layer penetrating lembert Single layer seromuscular continuous Double layer interrupted lembert

Double layer (penetrating + lambert) suture

Which of the following statements is correct? Penrose drain is ? ## Footnote a. A tube drain b. Made of latex c. A multi-lumen drain d. Mostly used s active drain

B) Made of Latex

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of diffuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery? a. Billroth I gastroduodenostomy b. Partial gastrotomy c. Euthanasia d. Resorption and gastroplexy

Euthanasia (Note fundus necrosis answer is partial gastrotomy)

Which urolith is surely radiodense? ## Footnote a. Struvite b. Calcium-oxalate c. Ammonium-urate d. Cystine

calcium oxalate

Which brachycephalic disorder is not surgically curable?

tracheal hypoplasia

Which statement is correct? A passive drain ## Footnote a. Is always a single exit drain b. Can only be used as double exit drain c. Is mostly used for flushing d. Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

Which statement is correct? ## Footnote a. The overexposed area is dark in the digital x-ray image b. The overexposed area is “noisy” in the digital x-ray image c. It is easy to overexpose digital radiographs d. Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs

Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs

Which statement is correct regarding pain? ## Footnote a. During hypnosis there is no conscious perception of pain, therefore analgesia is only required pre-, and postoperatively b. Stress and fear have no effect on subjective pain sensation c. Of several concurrent noxious stimuli, the most intensive one is perceived d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage and the intensity of pain experienced by the patient

Which statement is correct regarding electricity-caused injuries? ## Footnote a. It is always lethal above 50 mA b. It is always lethal above 100 mA c. Both d. None

It is always lethal above 100mA

Which statement is correct? ## Footnote a. The fast healing is typical of contused wounds b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds c. The traumatic shock is not common in contused wounds d. The anerobic wound infection is rare in contused wounds

The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesia of patients with liver dysfunction? ## Footnote a. Diazepam is the choice of drug in a patient with hepatic disease, instead of midazolam b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic encephalopathy c. Isoflurane and sevoflurane significantly affects hepatic function d. Administration of colloid solutions in case of hypoalbuminemia is risky

Phencyclidines (e.g Ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic encephalopathy

Which statement is correct? ## Footnote a. Wobbler-syndrome affects small breeds b. The site of disc protrusion can be exactly determined in the survey radiograph c. The basic types of compressive processes found with myelography: extradural, intradural, extramedullary d. Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anesthesia

Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anaesthesia

Which therapy is of primary importance in case of cranial injury? ## Footnote a. Analgesia b. Anti-convulsion therapy c. Intracranial pressure decrease d. Artificial hypothermia

Intracranial pressure decrease

Which of the following doesn’t represent an increased risk of infection of surgical infection? a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure b. Prolonged hospitalization c. Obesity d. Prolonged procedure time

Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure

Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge approximation? a. Skin-intradermal-subcutaneus-muscular-fascial b. Interrupted vs continuous c. Appositional-inverting-tension relieving? d. Simple-matress-cruciate

a. Skin-intradermal-subcutaneus-muscular-fascial

Which radiographic change is not connected generally to clinical signs? a. spondylosis deformans b. discospondylitis c. extradural compression on the myelogram d. vertebral fracture

Spondylosis deformans

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 95% b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy

the gastrotomy is a contaminated/ septic procedure