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SAM Final PQS > PQ 5 (2) > Flashcards

PQ 5 (2) Flashcards

1
Q

Sunburst-like periosteal reaction is typical for which disorder?

a. malignant bone tumors
b. bone cyst
c. osteochondrosis dissecans
d. benign bone tumors

A

Malignant bone tumours

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2
Q

Which statement is true?

a. The joint capsule is visible in the radiograph.
b. The subchondral bone is not visible in the radiograph.
c. The joint cartilage is not visible in the radiograph.
d. Joint ligaments are visible in the radiograph.

A

The joint cartilage is not visible on the radiograph

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3
Q

Which abnormality can be connected to clinical signs?

a. spondylosis deformans
b. hemivertebra
c. calcified nucleus pulposus
d. SH-2 epiphysiolysis

A

A) Spondylosis deformans

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4
Q

The number of vertebrae in dogs?

a. 6 cervical, 13 thoracic , 6 lumbar
b. 7 cervical 13 thoracic , 7 lumbar
c. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic , 7 lumbar
d. 6 cervical, 12 thoracic , 6 lumbar

A

C7; Th13; L7

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5
Q

Which answer is true? The radiographic sign of a Wobbler-syndrome can be

a. deformed cervical vertebra
b. deformed thoracic vertebra
c. deformed lumbar vertebra
d. deformed sacrum

A

Deformed cervical vertebra; C2 – C7

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6
Q

Hansen type I discus hernia?

a. Is called protrusion in Latin
b. is generally acute clinical process
c. generally affects large breed dogs
d. the fibrotic change of the nucleus pulposus in the background

A

B.Is a generally acute clinical process;

Chondrodystrophic breeds; Nucleus pulposis

calcification; Annulus fibrosis rupture; Extrusion; Rapid deterioration

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7
Q

Which radiographic change is not connected generally to clinical signs?
a. spondylosis deformans
b. discospondylitis
c. extradural compression on the myelogram

A

spondylosis deformans

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8
Q

Which statement is false regarding discospondylosis?

a. it is characterized by osteolytic changes
b. it is an aseptic process
c. the end plates of the vertebrae are affected
d. it generally goes with pain and pyrexia

A

It is an aseptic process

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9
Q

Which of the following features defines the suture material’s drainage ability?

a. Monofilament vs multifilament
b. Tensile strength
c. Knot security
d. Absorption

A

Monofilament vs Multifilament

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10
Q

Which statement is correct regarding intra-and post-operative hypothermia?

a. Decreased anesthetic demand
b. Doxopram is the drug of choice in case of hypothermia
c. Is mostly due to the use of opioids
d. Increases the oxygen demand of the central nervous system

A

There is decreased anaesthetic demand

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11
Q

Which statement is correct concerning the maintenance phase of anaesthesia?

a. General anesthesia may be maintained by either inhalant or injectable agents;

combinations for maintenance are contraindicated

b. In the maintenance phase of anesthesia, application of 100 ml/bwkg/h

crystalloid infusion is recommended to maintain normovolemia and

normotension

c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anesthesia using

the lowest sufficient dose of anesthetics

d. The main duties of the anesthetist are monitoring of the patient,

maintenance of homeostasis, fine adjustment of the depth of anesthesia and

preservation of vagotonia

A

The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anaesthesia using the lowest

sufficient dose of anaesthetics

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12
Q

What is the normal value of the Norberg angle in healthy dogs?

A

Higher than 105 degrees

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13
Q

Which statements are true?

a. Acids can cause coagulation necrosis
b. Alkalines can cause colliquation necrosis
c. Both
d. None

A

Acids can cause coagulation necrosis; Alkalises can cause colliquation necrosis

Both

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14
Q

What is the number of permanent teeth in dogs?

A

42

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15
Q

What is the number of permanent teeth in cats?

A

30

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16
Q

Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thinnest suture material?

A

4.0

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17
Q

What statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC) ?

a. Disc calcification indicated SCC
b. A survey radiograph is generally enough to diagnose SCC
c. SCC can be caused exclusively by the intervertebral disc
d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

A

Myelography is a useful tool in the diagnosis of SCC

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18
Q

Which of the following suture materials are non-absorbable?

a. Polypropylene
b. Polydioxanone
c. Both
d. None

A

Polypropylene; Polyamide

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19
Q

The proper name of the “oxspring” view for the examination of the navicular bone

A

Dorsoproximal-palmarodorsal oblique view

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20
Q

Which parameter decreases in DIC?

A

Fibrinogen

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21
Q

Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular

cardiovascular suture material?

a. Monofilament features
b. Good tensile strength
c. Good knot security
d. Unique thrombophob feature

A

Good tensile strength

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22
Q

What does “2-metric” mean on a suture material pack?

A

The suture material is 0.2mm in diameter

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23
Q

Current concepts of pain management/analgesia is…

a. Presumptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of

action)

b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites

of action)

c. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multilocal (acting at several different sites of

action)

d. Of higher importance in adults than in pediatric patients

A

Pre-emptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

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24
Q

What is spongostan?

A

Gelatine sponge

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25
Q

Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the paediatric patient?

A

The vegetative innervation of the heart and the vasomotor function is immature

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26
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Clean soft tissue procedures require broad spectrum antibiotic treatment

preoperatively

b. Clean soft tissue procedures require first generation cephalosporins

preoperatively

c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis
d. In clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures, amoxicillin treatment is the

therapy of choice

A

Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis

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27
Q

Which one is an opioid antagonist?

A

Naloxone

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28
Q

Phase of wound healing are…

A

Acute inflammation – Resorption – Proliferation – Remodelling

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29
Q

What is the main shock organ of the cat?

A. Lung

B. Liver

C. GI Tract

D. Pancreas

A

Lung

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30
Q

What is the main shock organ of the dog?

A. Lung

B. Liver

C. GI Tract

D. Pancreas

A

GI tract

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31
Q

Which statement is correct regarding dentine in the dog?

a. It is capable of repair in living tooth
b. Dentine layer is thickening towards enamel during production
c. It comprises more than 98% inorganic elements (false)
d. It is continuously narrowing during aging

A

It is capable of repair in living tooth

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32
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to

acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?

a. Urinary bladder
b. Small intestines
c. Large intestines
d. Uterus

A

Urinary bladder

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33
Q

Which statement is false? An active drain…

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain
b. Can be open suction-drain
c. Can be closed suction-drain
d. Is used as flushing drain

A

Is not recommended as flushing drain

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34
Q

What does “epulis” mean?

A. Benign papillomatous mass on the gingiva

B. Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

C. Benign melanoid mass on the gingiva

D. Malignant fibromatous mass on the gingiva

A

Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

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35
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the salivary mucocele?

a. Its etiology can be either traumatic or inflammatory
b. It is common in poodle
c. One of its effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst
d. It definitely indicates surgery

A

One of its effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst

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36
Q

According to the Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006), which of the following liver

biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage?

ligature biopsy

laparoscopic pinch biopsy

needle biopsy

none of them

A

Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy

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37
Q

Which statement is true? Injuries of the tongue

a. Are not be operated on
b. Mostly heal with complications
c. Mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures
d. Always be regarded as contaminated

A

Injuries of the tongue are always regarded as contaminated

38
Q

Which of the following conditions doesn’t cause hydronephrosis?

a. Ureteral torsion
b. Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery
c. Ureteral tumor
d. Ureterolithiasis

A

Ureteral torsion

39
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body?

a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 95%
b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure
c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation
d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy

A

The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure

40
Q

Which approach is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair?

a. Laparotomy
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. Sternotomy

A

Laparotomy

41
Q

Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal

intussusception?

a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section
b. Positive contrast abdominal GI radiography
c. Lack of feces
d. Vomiting

A

Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

42
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Glucocorticoids specifically inhibit the cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzyme
b. Non-steroids (NSAID´s) inhibit the production of leukotrienes
c. NSAID´s inhibit phospholipase A2 (false)
d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

A

Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

43
Q

Which statement is correct concerning the endotracheal tube?

A

Not only aspiration may be prevented by using endotracheal tubes, but it also allows for

connection to the anaesthesia machine by the Y-piece and mechanical ventilation

44
Q

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis?

a. Partial nephrectomy
b. Unilateral nephroureterectomy
c. Kidney-drainage
d. Euthanasia

A

Partial nephrectomy

45
Q

Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic dogs?

A

Ventral rhinotomy (due to lack of space dorsally)

46
Q

Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply?

a. Left gastric
b. Left gasteoepiploic
c. Short gastric
d. Splenic

A

Left gastric

47
Q

Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally
immature dogs?

a. Panosteitis
b. Perthes disease
c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy
d. Achilles tendineopathy

A

Biceps tendon insertion tendinopathy

48
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis?

a. It can occur bilaterally
b. It can lead to ureterolithiasis
c. It can be caused by congenital disorder
d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

A

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

49
Q

Which sign reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (spO2 is <60mmHg)

a. Dyspnoe
b. Cyanosis
c. Hyperventilation
d. Labial breathing

A

Cyanosis

50
Q

Which anal zone involves Circumanal hepatoid glands?

a. Zona cutanea
b. Linea anorectalis
c. Zona intermedia
d. Zona columnaris

A

Zona cutanea

51
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning prostate US?

a. It can detect fluid accumulation within the organ
b. It can detect parenchymal hypertrophy
c. It can differentiate cyst from abscess
d. It provides possibility of core biopsy

A

It can differentiate cysts from abscesses

52
Q

Which nerve is most prone to iatrogenic injury during TECA + LBO procedure?

A. Maxillary n.

B. Auriculotemporal branch of facial n.

C. Auriculopalpebral branch of facial n.

D. Hypoglossal n.

A

Auriculopalpebral branch of the facial nerve

53
Q

Which tool is next to be chosen in the case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?

a. Thoracocentesis
b. Abdominocentesis
c. Ultrasonography
d. Respiratory endoscopy

A

Ultrasound

54
Q

Intramedullary pinning is not good for?

a. Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture
b. Femoral fracture treatment in cats
c. Fixing calcaneal fractures
d. Treatment of avulsion fractures

A

Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture

55
Q

Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis?

A. Linear foreign body ingestion

B. Obturation

C. Ileus

D. Mesenteric torsion

A

Mesenteric torsion

56
Q

Which is not correct regarding pelvic fractures?

A

It is an absolute indication for surgical treatment

57
Q

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction form

of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)?

a. Stabilization + perirenal urethrostomy
b. Stabilization + cystocentesis
c. Stabilization + urinary bladder expression
d. Stabilization + urethral catheterization

A

Stabilisation + Urethral catheterisaion

58
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding gastric dilation and volvulus

(GDV)?

a. GDV starts right after the last feeding
b. The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders
c. There is also a chronic form of GDV
d. GDV is usually of acute onset

A

GDV starts right after the last feeding

59
Q

Which suture material is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

a. PDS
b. Polyglyconate
c. Glycomer
d. Polyglecaprone

A

Poliglecaprone

60
Q

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureters?

a. Cystoscopy
b. Double contrast cystography
c. Intravenous urography + pneumocystography
d. Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4-

A

IV urography + pneumocystography; + Negative contrast

61
Q

What does “Skeletonisation” mean?

a. Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be

resected

b. V-shaped excision of the mesentery
c. Excision of the affected intestinal section
d. Suturing of the V-shaped mesenteric defect

A

Cassation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected

62
Q

How many lung lobes does the dog have?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 7

D. 5

A

7

63
Q

How many lung lobes does the cat have?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 7

D. 5

A

6

64
Q

Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts?

a. Marsupalisation
b. Omentalisation
c. Drainage
d. Puncture

A

Puncture

65
Q

What is the advantage of scrotal uretrostomy?

a. Castratio can prevent urinary incontinence
b. The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided
c. Early dissectable urethral section, wider and safer stroma
d. The cystotomy can be avoided

A

Early dissectible urethral section, wider and safer stroma

66
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe?

a. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
b. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for

surgical indication

c. It definitely requires emergency care
d. It is caused by morphological and/ or functional disorders of abdominal

organ(s)

A

A) The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication

67
Q

Which of the following breeds is usually not affected by ectopic ureter?

a. German shepherd
b. Labrador
c. Husky
d. West highland terrier

A

German shepard

68
Q

Which of the diagnostic findings indicate the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture?

a. If the cystourethral catheterization cannot harvest urine in a traumatized

patient

b. If the urine is bloody obtained via cystourethral catheterization in a traumatized patients
c. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography
d. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

A

If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

69
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning diaphragmatic hernias?

a. They take 5 to 10 % of diaphragmatic hernias
b. Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: axial and para-esophageal
c. The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited
d. The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of

septum transversum (true)

A

The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

70
Q

Which statement is true regarding inguinal hernia?

a. In direct hernia: the small intestines escape to the subcutaneous space of the

scrotum

b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one
c. Both
d. None

A

The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one

71
Q

Ideal therapy in case of a joint injury is…

a. Joint lavage within 6 hours
b. Joint lavage within 10 hours
c. Joint lavage within 10 hours
d. Joint lavage within 10 hours

A

Joint lavage withing 6 hours

72
Q

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?

a. Dorsal latissimus m
b. Dorsal serratus m
c. Ventral serratus m
d. M.cutaneus trunci

A

M. cutaneuous trunci

73
Q

Which of the following nerves are most prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO)?

A. Maxillary n.

B. Auriculotemporal branch of facial n.

C. Auriculopalpebral branch of facial n.

D. Hypoglossal n.

A

Hypoglossal nerve

74
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

Double layer continuous lembert

Double layer penetrating lembert

Single layer seromuscular continuous

Double layer interrupted lembert

A

Double layer (penetrating + lambert) suture

75
Q

Which of the following statements is correct? Penrose drain is ?

a. A tube drain
b. Made of latex
c. A multi-lumen drain
d. Mostly used s active drain

A

B) Made of Latex

76
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of diffuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery?

a. Billroth I gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrotomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy

A

Euthanasia

(Note fundus necrosis answer is partial gastrotomy)

77
Q

Which urolith is surely radiodense?

a. Struvite
b. Calcium-oxalate
c. Ammonium-urate
d. Cystine

A

calcium oxalate

78
Q

Which brachycephalic disorder is not surgically curable?

A

tracheal hypoplasia

79
Q

Which statement is correct? A passive drain

a. Is always a single exit drain
b. Can only be used as double exit drain
c. Is mostly used for flushing
d. Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

A

Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

80
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The overexposed area is dark in the digital x-ray image
b. The overexposed area is “noisy” in the digital x-ray image
c. It is easy to overexpose digital radiographs
d. Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs

A

Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs

81
Q

Which statement is correct regarding pain?

a. During hypnosis there is no conscious perception of pain, therefore analgesia

is only required pre-, and postoperatively

b. Stress and fear have no effect on subjective pain sensation
c. Of several concurrent noxious stimuli, the most intensive one is perceived
d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and

the intensity of pain experience by the patient

A

There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage and the intensity of

pain experienced by the patient

82
Q

Which statement is correct regarding electricity-caused injuries?

a. It is always lethal above 50 mA
b. It is always lethal above 100 mA
c. Both
d. None

A

It is always lethal above 100mA

83
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The fast healing is typical of contused wounds
b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
c. The traumatic shock is not common in contused wounds
d. The anerobic wound infection is rare in contused wounds

A

The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

84
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesia of patients with liver dysfunction?

a. Diazepam is the choice of drug in a patient with hepatic disease, instead of

midazolam

b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic

encephalopathy

c. Isoflurane and sevoflurane significantly affects hepatic function
d. Administration of colloid solutions in case of hypoalbuminemia is risky

A

Phencyclidines (e.g Ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic encephalopathy

85
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Wobbler-syndrome affects small breeds
b. The site of disc protrusion can be exactly determined in the survey radiograph
c. The basic types of compressive processes found with myelography: extradural, intradural, extramedullary
d. Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anesthesia

A

Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anaesthesia

86
Q

Which therapy is of primary importance in case of cranial injury?

a. Analgesia
b. Anti-convulsion therapy
c. Intracranial pressure decrease
d. Artificial hypothermia

A

Intracranial pressure decrease

87
Q

Which of the following doesn’t represent an increased risk of infection of surgical infection?

a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure
b. Prolonged hospitalization
c. Obesity
d. Prolonged procedure time

A

Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure

88
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge approximation?

a. Skin-intradermal-subcutaneus-muscular-fascial
b. Interrupted vs continuous
c. Appositional-inverting-tension relieving?
d. Simple-matress-cruciate

A

a. Skin-intradermal-subcutaneus-muscular-fascial

89
Q

Which radiographic change is not connected generally to clinical signs?

a. spondylosis deformans
b. discospondylitis
c. extradural compression on the myelogram
d. vertebral fracture

A

Spondylosis deformans

90
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body

a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 95%
b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure
c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation
d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy

A

the gastrotomy is a contaminated/ septic procedure

SAM Final PQS (18 decks)

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