Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

SAM Final PQS > PQ6 > Flashcards

PQ6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism?

a. the choice of anesthetic is substantially influenced by the underlying

endocrine changes

b. the actual risk factors are multiorgan changes that result from the primary

condition ( ie hyperadrenocorticism )

c. pathological changes associated with the disease result in safer anaesthesia
d. limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation

necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

A

Limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the

maintenance phase of anaesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics?

a. they are flammable and explosive agents
b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp
c. in low doses , they are no threat to the health of the surgical personnel in the

long run (occupational risk)

d. as isoflurane is highly irritative as inhalation , halothane is preferred for mask

induction

A

Most inhalant anaesthetics are liquid at room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where are the scrotal incisions made for castration?

a. along the line of raphe scroti
b. parallel with raphe scroti -1cm from the midline, 1 incision
c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions
d. parallel with raphe scroti- 5cm from the midline ,2 incisions

A

Parallel with raphe scroti, 1 cm from the midline; 2 incisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which belong to the core vaccines in dogs?

A

Leptospira; Parvoviral enteritis; Distemper; Rubarth disease; Rabies; Canine hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which muscles can be used for IM drug application?

A

M. semitendinosus/semimembranosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To perform a complete blood count exam, you need…

A

EDTA blood sampling tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In case of hypovolaemia, the first-choice infusion is…

A

Lactated ringer solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In case of epistaxis…

A

As soon as possible haemostasis & coagulation profile test are required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The point of maintenance infusion therapy is to…

A

Treat dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Characteristics of feline herpes viral rhinitis

A

Bilateral mucopurulent nasal & ocular discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The concept of moist wound therapy does not include…

A

A wet to dry dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Primary assessment of the circulation, which is incorrect?

a. Detection of bleeding
b. Perform ECG and heart US examination
c. Check mucous membranes and CRT
d. Check pulse rate and quality

A

Perform ECG and heart US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does “3-metric” mean on a suture material pack

A

Material is 0.3mm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis

A

Crackles & wheezes with auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the golden period in treatment of fresh traumatic wounds?

A

6-8 hours from injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During the early healing phase, what are the most essential WBCs in the wound?

a. the neutrophyl granulocyte
b. the monocyte
c. the T-Lymphocyte
d. the eosinophyl granulocyte

A

Monocytes( macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What characterises the proliferative phase of wound healing?

A

angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Granulation tissue is especially sensitive to…

A

Dessication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Primary wound closure should be avoided in…

A

gunshot and bite wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Delayed primary closure

A

Is usually performed 2-5 days after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Preferred method of debridement in a fresh lacerated wound is

A

Surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In case of wound infection presumable caused by a multi-resistance organism

A

The patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

First aid key points

A

Haemostasis & prevention of further contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The concept of moist wound treatment is
Based on the idea of preserving wound exudate in contact with the wound surface
26
Which statement is false?
A good bandage reduced blood flow to the wound
27
Which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds?
Calcium alginate
28
Used as a topical wound medication, the mechanism of action is based on hyperosmolarity
Sugar & honey
29
Surgical site infection
Often results in wound b breakdown and dehiscence (rupture)
30
A layer of the Robert-jones bandage
Secondary absorbent layer – Cotton wool
31
. Not a risk factor for wound infection
obesity
32
Which statement is correct?
Sugar wound therapy enhances granulation
33
Pseudomonas spp. grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy granulation tissue. This is most likely due to…
contamination
34
What is the most dangerous complication of bandaging?
distal limb oedema
35
Which does not require emergency care?
Tracheal hypoplasia; Heartworm disease; Gastric ulcer; Hydrocephalus; Cystitis; Patellar luxation; Subcutaneous/skin autoimmune disease
36
Which statement is false?
All critical care patients require intensive ward care
37
Which statement is false?
Primary survey is used to determine all organic disorders
38
Which statement is false? ## Footnote Primary assessment of the circulation. Mark the incorrect answer! a. Detection of bleeding b. Perform ECG and heart US examination c. Check mucous membranes and CRT d. Check pulse rate and quality
b) Perform ECG and heart Us examination
39
When can you see the foetal skeleton on the x-ray?
After the 45th day
40
When can HD (hip dysplasia) be seen on the x-ray?
After 6 months
41
If you see decreased radiopacity of the femoral head & neck on an x-ray of a spitz, what do you suspect?
Perthe’s disease
42
How early do you x-ray a dog with ileus once fed with contrast medium
12 hours
43
What is the principle of ALARA
To keep the radiation As Low As Reasonably Achievable
44
When can an osteophyte be detected?
after 3 weeks
45
Which part of the carpus is the most affected in OCD?
cartilage
46
“Hansen I” can also be described as…
An extrusion; Typical in chondrodystrophic breeds, calcification of the nucleus pulposis, anulus fibrosis rupture and rapid deterioration
47
Statement of bone tumour; Age and type
5-6 years: Middle/large breeds; Fibrosarcoma, malignant melanoma, squamous cell carcinoma
48
Predisposed for Perthe’s disease
Young, small toy breeds
49
Bilateral forelimb periosteal reaction, what should be x-rayed next?
Thoracic cavity; Lung for metastasis
50
What bone disease leads to fracture?
Renal osteodystrophy
51
What is seen on x-ray in case of intestinal linear foreign body?
Intestines appear pleated
52
Hansen type-II
Large breeds; Aged \> 8 years; Nuleus pulposis fibrinisation; Annulus fibrosus intact; Protrusion; Chronic process
53
Fusion time of anconeus process?
4-5 months
54
Security around x-rays?
Radiation of vet \> Radiation of patient; People are not allowed to restrain the animal; ALARA; Immobilise by sedation; Lead apron; Thyroid gland protection; Lead gloves; Rotate restrainer; Distance; Personal monitoring device
55
Tissue radiodensity in order
Metal/stone (Radiopaque) \> Bone \> Fluid/soft tissue \> Fat \> Gas (Radiolucent)
56
Position of malignant bone tumours?
Stifle near; Elbow far
57
Which beam emits the most UV radiation?
UV beams
58
Common disease in Westie?
Craniomandibular osteopathy
59
Developmental disease of the spine in small animals
Spina bifida; Block vertebrae; Hemivertebrae; Transient vertebrae
60
Which contrast media would you choose for the urinary tract?
Hyperosmotic; Ionic iodine
61
Where do we do the epidural injection?
Sacro-coccygeal junction; C1 – C2
62
Tracheal collapse of the cervical trachea is seen during
inspiration
63
Tracheal collapse of the thoracic trachea is seen during
expiration
64
What does kV mean?
Kilovolt – Unit of electrical potential
65
What does mAs mean?
Miliampere – Unit used for electric current
66
What types of x-ray generators are used today?
Single-phase with low capacity; 3-phase which needs 3 phase electric current; Highfrequency, largest and most stable capacity
67
Which disorder is mostly diagnosed on a plain abdominal radiograph?
Intestinal obstruction
68
Which statement is not true? In a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen
On the left in DV view
69
Which statement is true? In a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen
Ventrally in left lateral recumbency; Ventrally in the right lateral recumbency; On the right in VD view
70
Which statement is false?
If there is no dangerous amount of fluid in the oral cavity, remove the tube with the cuff inflated
71
Which statement is false?
Stadium analgesiae – Max. pupil dilation; Ø Corneal tension
72
Which statement is false? ## Footnote a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive
Acepromazine should have a higher does because lower doses notably elongate the duration of action
73
Which statement is false?
Propofol general dose: 0.5 ml/bwkg IV
74
Which statement is true?
Propofol general dose: 5 mg/bwkg IV
75
Which statement is false?Mixing system of the anaesthetic machine? ## Footnote a. Y-piece b. Absorbed canister with soda lime c. Flowmeter d. Breathing tubes
Mixing system of the anaesthetic machine – Absorbed canister with soda lime
76
Which statement is false?
Parameters of ventilation – Inhalation:Exhalation time ratio = 1:2-8:1
77
Which statement is true?
Parameters of ventilation – Inhalation:Exhalation time ratio = 1:2 – 1:3
78
Which statement is false?
Capnometry – paCO2 \< etCO2
79
. Which statement is false?
Pain sensation is not influenced by fear & stress
80
Which statement is false?
Pain management is not very important in young animals, but it is in adults
81
Which statement is false?
Preoperative analgesics – Phenothiazine but butyrophenone derivates
82
Which statement is false?
Antagonists – Propofol: Dantrolene
83
Which statement is false?
Physical characteristics of young patients – BBB is less permeable, so puppies until 4 weeks of age require higher doses
84
Which statement is false?
Old patients have increased vital capacity, respiratory frequency & compliance
85
Which statement is false?
Opioids cannot be administered intraoperatively
86
Which statement is false?
Epidural anaesthesia – 10% lidocaine is most frequently used
87
Which statement is true?
Epidural anaesthesia – 2% lidocaine is most frequently used
88
Which statement is false?
Most postoperative complications can be manifested using balance anaesthesia (PIVA)
89
Which statement is true?
Greyhounds should not be given thiopental
90
Which statement is true?
Boxers should not be given phenothiazines
91
Which statement is true?
Large breeds & individuals are sensitive to hypoxia
92
Which statement is true?
Premedication – ACP + Butorphanol
93
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Medetomidine + Butorphanol
94
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Midazolam + Butorphanol
95
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Medetomidine + Butorphanol + Butorphanol
96
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Diazepam + Butorphanol
97
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Fentanyl
98
Which statement is true?
Pre-operative antibiotics are indicated in orthopaedic surgery – 30 mins prior and a second dose lasting for 3 hours
99
When should antibiotics be used?
If surgery \>90 mins; Implantation; Infection; Orthopaedics; Oesophageal; Dirty surgery – Faecal/urine contamination
100
Which drugs are contraindicated in liver patients?
Ketamine; Diazepam; Methoxyflurane; Halothane – Fentanyl is recommended
101
Which drug is given in cases of spinal injury?
Methylprednisolone
102
Which statement is true?
Propofol has no antagonists
103
In patients with decreased kidney perfusion, we can give…
Propofol & Inhalational anaesthetic (but not alpha 2-agonists)
104
Which statement is false?
General anaesthesia causes rigid muscles
105
You don’t give ketamine to patients with…
Heart problems; Glaucoma; Head trauma patients; Hyperthyroidism patients
106
Which statement is false?
X-ray beams are generated in the generator (X-ray tube is correct)
107
Which statement is false?
The anode is the negatively charged in the x-ray tube
108
Which statement is true?
The intensifying screen and the image receptor in the fluoroscope are made of the same material
109
Which statement is false?
DR systems use laser scanners to read the phosphor plate
110
Which statement is true?
Intensifying screens with larger crystal size require a smaller dose of radiation
111
Which statement is true?
Decreasing the film-object distance results in sharper image
112
Which statement is true?
Yellow discolouration of the image is a result of insufficient film rinsing
113
Which statement is true?
Too light images can be corrected by increasing the exposure values
114
Which statement is true?
Green sensitive films are pink
115
Which statement is true?
Dosimeters need to be sent to a lab to analyse radiation exposure
116
The lead apron should contain…
0.5mm Pb equivalent of lead-rubber
117
Which statement is false?
Barium sulphate can be used for urography
118
The dose of BaSO4 for gastric emptying studies is…
10-15 ml//kg
119
Rupture of the ureter can be examined by…
IV contrast
120
Which statement is true?
Iodine must be given for suspected oesophageal/GI rupture because BaSO4 is contraindicated
121
Which statement is false?
The oesophagus is visible on the survey radiograph
122
Which statement is false?
The most used negative contrast medium is BaSO4 (Not true because it is a positive contrast medium; Air is a negative contrast medium)
123
Which statement is false?
Excretory urography can be used for examination of the kidney, ureter, bladder & urethra (false because tis contrast stops at the bladder due to the sphincter)
124
Which statement is true?
BaSO4 tends to adhere to mucosal lesions

SAM Final PQS (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions