PQ 2 Flashcards by Hege Osland

Which of the following is the permanent data of the animal?

Species;

Breed;

Sex;

Colour;

Colour pattern;

Nose/muzzle impression;

Blood group;

Marks – Whorls, blemishes or defects

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What colour is the mucosa in case of hypovolaemic shock?

Cyanotic
Yellow
Pale
Dirty red

Dirty red

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. What to check when you inspect the testes?

Location; Size; Shape; Structure; Surface; Painfulness; Symmetry; Movability;

Consistency; Cryptorchidism (should descend by 6 months of age → sertoli cell tumour

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LMN lesion signs

Diminished or absent reflexes; Decreased or absent tone

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Physical exam of the kidney

Enlarged kidney size is always associated with renal disease in cats; Painful kidney may

indicate acute disease, renal stone, or tumour.

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Common causes of kidney shrinkage?

Congenital renal dysplasia; End-stage kidney disease; Chronic pyelonephritis

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What can B-mode echocardiography show?

DCM & HCM

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What is a pathognomic symptom?

Specific. Characteristic for a particular disease. Sign whose presence means that the

disease is present without any doubt

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Instruments needed for a neurological exam

Reflex hammer; Penlight; Arterial clamp; Needle

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What is anisocoria?

Unequal pupil size

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What can be examined by inspection of joints?

Skin; Angle; Swelling; Deformities; Symmetry

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What are the methods of neurological examination?

X-ray; EEG; CT; MRI; Blood count; Pathogen detection; CSF analysis

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Type of exam commonly carried out together with an ECG

Phonocardiography (PCG) (heart sounds)

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Choose the correct statement?

• CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are then relayed to a computer that reconstruct the image.
• MRI uses X-ray imaging
• MRI uses the properties of hydrogen atoms when warmed up

CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are

then replayed to a computer that reconstructs the image

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What is an election of the skin with fluid and volume under 1 cm without epithelial

surrounding?

Bulla
Vesicle
Cyst

Vesicle

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What is not part of status praesens?

Nutritional status
History
General impression

History

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Indications of tracheoscopy or bronchoscopy?

Acute cough in cases of suspected foreign body; Chronic cough if the cause is unknown

or the patient doesn’t respond to therapy; Unexplained abnormal breathing pattern;

Tracheal collapse → Confirmation & staging; Chronic bronchitis → Staging & sample

collection; Stridor; Removal of mucoid obstruction in atelectatic lung lobes; Suspected

narrowing of the airway; Suspected metastatic pulmonary neoplasia; Haemoptoe

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Signs of conscious pain perception in the dog

Leg withdrawal

Leg extension
Crying
Biting towards the examiner
Lifting the head up

Crying; Biting towards the examiner

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Indications for colonoscopy

Large bowel diarrhoea; Haematochezia; Blood in faeces; Increased faecal mucous;

Tenesmus; Dyschezia; Palpable rectal masses

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Where does the basic clinical value belong to?

Status praesens

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What could cause a cardiac beat dislocation?

Pneumothorax; Hydrothorax; Abscess; Tumour

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What is not transient data?

Type of coat; Cropped/docked tail

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What is transient data?

Age; Body weight; Brand marks; Tattoos; Micro-chips

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What are the reduced mental statuses?

Dementia
Stupor
Indolentia
Somnolentia
Delirium
Coma
Furor
Aggressive
excitatio

Dementia; Stupor; Indolentia (freedom from pain); Somnolentia (sleepy/drowsy);

Delerium; Coma

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. In dogs, LSHF can lead to… ## Footnote * Ascites * Dyspnoea * Coughing * tachypnoe

Dyspnoea; Coughing; Tachypnoea (FALSE – consequence of right sided heart failure)

When is RDW (red cell distribution width) elevated?

Regenerative anaemia

A papule is…

Small; Solid elevation \<1cm

Acoustic impedance

Density of product x Acoustic velocity

In case of hepatopathy, AST is…

Sometimes increased; Not liver specific; Only used together with ALT; “Useless” is apparently the correct answer?

In what conditions would you hear a stronger heartbeat?

Thin thoracic wall

. What is ataxia?

Incoordination of movement

What is true about angioedema and urticaria ## Footnote * Due to corticosteroids * Appear within 15-20h * Usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion, bee stings (high allergic reaction) * Not recommended to give antihistamins or calcium * Always strong pruritus

Usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion or bee stings (allergic reaction)

How can you categorise the heart sounds by auscultation? ## Footnote Frequency Intensity Size of the cardiac dullness Amplitude of the hearts sounds Rhythm Demarcation of the heart sounds Adventitious murmur Turbulency of the heart sounds Tone of the heart sounds Resonancy of the heart sound

FRIDA: Frequency; Rhythm; Intensity; Demarcation of heart sounds; Adventitious murmur

Which of the following findings indicate that your patient might have lower urinary tract disease?(MCQ) Polyuria, polydipsia Pollakiuria Dysuria, stranguria Thrombosis Sudden blindness Central nervous signs Periuria Ascites Haematuria

Pollakiuria; Dysuria; Stranguria; Periuria; Haematuria

Regarding its origin, a seizure can be ## Footnote Focal Bipol Generalized Lateral Extracerebral Extracerebellar

Generalised; Extracerebral

Which are most specific symptoms to heart disease/failure? ## Footnote respiratory arrhythmia, cough porcelain white mucous membranes, dyspnoe murmur, arrhythmia, dyspnoe ascites, subcutaneous edema

Murmur; Arrhythmia; Dyspnoea

What are not indications for rhinoscopy? ## Footnote Sneezing, reverse sneezing Nasal discharge Epistaxis Salivation Vomitus Facial swelling or distorsion Suspicion of foreign body inhalation (suspicion/knowledge?!)

salivation Vomitus

Which is a directly audible respiratory sound? ## Footnote Expiratory stridor in laryngeal paralysis Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse Snoring sound in case of tracheal obstruction Sniffing sound in case of pharyngeal stridor

Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse; Snoring sound in case of tracheal obstruction

What is not classed as an additional exam? ## Footnote Biopsy Cystocentesis Percussion Fine needle aspiration

Percussion

Basic clinical values? ## Footnote Temperature, pulse, blood pressure, respiratory rate, capillary refilling time Temperature, pulse, respiratory rate Temperature, pulse, capillary refilling time, coagulation time Pulse, heart rate, respiratory rate, rumen contraction, buccal bleeding time

Temperature; Pulse; Respiratory rate (TPR)

The main characteristics of endoscopy(MCQ) ## Footnote It is a complementary diagnostic procedure It is a semiinvasive procedure Cheap Therapeutic application is not possible Mostly performed on awake patients Has a minimal instrumental requirement ?? What does that mean?(Endoscope=Instrumental method) Sample collection is not possible

Complementary diagnostic procedure; Semi-invasive procedure

Characteristic of the normal cardiac dullness during percussion on the left side ## Footnote Dog: absolute Cat: absolute Dog: relative Cat: relative

Dog: Absolute dullness; Cat: Relative dullness

Normal HR of cats in the clinic ## Footnote 60-70 120-130 140-180 220-250

140-180 bpm

Normal HR of dogs in the clinic

60-140m

The bronchial respiratory sound can be heard under normal conditions… ## Footnote Only above the lung Above the larynx and trachea Only above the larynx Only above the trachea

Above the larynx & trachea

Which sentence is false? ## Footnote The cough originated in the larynx is retching/gagging like, has a tendency to vomit The cough in tracheitis is loud, explosive, barking like The cough in trachea collapse is goose honking like The cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive, barking like

In dogs, the cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive & barking-like

Alopecia is…MCQ ## Footnote is the loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete is a primary skin lesion in endocrine disorders and follicular dysplasias is a secondary skin lesion to trauma or inflammation occurs always with erythema means increased shedding traumatic (=secondary alopecia) is a physiologic phenomenon is never moth eaten, or symmetrical or asymmetrical patchy

The loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete; A primary skin lesion in endocrine disorders & follicular dysplasia; A secondary skin lesion to trauma or inflammation; Physiologic in the case of trauma

Which sentence is not true? ## Footnote Held inspiration can be due to narrowed upper airway’s Held inspiration van be due to increased abdominal pressure Held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

Which sentences are true?

Held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity & micro-bronchitis

Which sentences are true?

Asymmetric breathing can be due to one main bronchus obstruction & pain in one side of the chest

Which sentences are true?

Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a painful chest disorder

Which statement is false? ## Footnote A)regurgitation is passive and consequence of disorder of oesophagus or pharynx B)vomiting is characterized by active abdominal movement and preceded by nausea C)the vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic D)the pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic

The pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic

Which parameters cannot be examined by palpation? (MC) ## Footnote Painfulness Colour Consistency Movability Smell /odour Percussion sound Size

Colour; Smell/odour; Percussion sound

Which parameters can be examined by palpation?(Mc) ## Footnote Painfulness Colour Consistency Movability Smell /odour Percussion sound Size

Painfulness; Consistency; Movability; Size

What are appropriate tests to examine the endocrine function of the pancreas? ## Footnote Blood glucose TLI (tripsine-like immunorectivity) (exocrine!) Fructosamine Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test Insulin ACTH-stimulation test

Fructosamine; Insulin

Method of the hepatojugular reflux test? ## Footnote A)Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis B)compress the jugular vene and observeits refilling C)compress the v. jugularis on one side and observe the other side D)compare the jugular vein to the vena cava

Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis

Part of the brain responsible for mental status? Medulla oblongata Thalamocortex Chiazma Limbic system

Thalamocortex

Premedication A) Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthetia B) Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anaesthetia C) Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anaesthetia D) Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anaesthetia

Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anaesthesia

Calming A) Analgesia B)Anxiolysis C) sedation D)Anaesthetia

Sedation

Reduction of fear? A) Analgesia B) Anxiolysis C) Sedation D) Anaesthetia

Anxiolysis

Pain relief? A) analgesia B) anxiolysis C) sedation D) catalepsy

Analgesia

Catalepsy may be caused by? A) Ketamine B) Propofol C) Fentanyl D) xylazine

Ketamine

Neuroleptanalgesia. Pick the false answer? Superficial “sleeping”; Analgesia; Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination Caused by benzodiazepine + opoid combination

Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

Types of anaesthesia. Pick the false answer? Local; Regional; General; Subtotal

subtotal

General anaesthesia criteria. Pick the false answer? Hypnosis; Analgesia; Muscles relaxant Inhalational

Inhalational

Balanced anaesthesia. Pick the false answer? * Acheivable with a single monoanaesthetic drug * Consciousness may be steered with anaesthetics; * Pain may be controlled by analgesics; * Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants

Acheivable with a single Monoanaesthetic drug

Dissociative anaesthesia. Pick the false answer? Thalamocortical dissociation; Limbic depression Peripheral analgesia; Alteration of consciousness

Limbic depression

Phenothiazines may cause life-threatening hypotension in… A) Dobermans B) Boxers C) Staffordshire terriers D) greyhounds

Boxers

Brachycephalic breeds need. Pick the false answer? * Pre-oxygenation; * Short induction; * Fast intubation * Early extubation

early extubation

MDR-1 gene defect is detected in. Pick the false answer? * Australian shepherd; * English shepherd; * German shepherd * Pug

Pug

Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the false answer? Mucous membranes; Spleen size CRT; Pulse frequency & quality

Spleen size

Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the false answer? Heart muscle biopsy Auscultation; ECG; US

heart muscle biopsy

Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam? Pick the false answer? WBC count; Haematocrit; Parasitological examination of faeces TPP;( total plasma protein) Urea; Creatinine; ALT

Parasitological examination of faeces

ASA 1? A) Healthy state B) Symptom free state C)low anaesthetia risk D) age 0 day- 8 years

age 0 day- 8 years

ASA 2. pick the false answer? A) Mild systemic disease B) No apparent functional disorders C)High aneaesthetia risk(in exam they had low anaesthetia risk) D) Age 6 weeks-5 years

age 6 weeks- 5 years

ASA 3. Pick the false answer? A) severe systemic disease B) Visible functional impairment C) age 6 weeks- 5 years D) not life threatening status

C) age 6 weeks- 5 years

ASA 4. Pick the false answer? A) severe systemic disease B) constant threat to life C)Age 0-3 days or over 10 years D) age 6-16 years

D) age 6-16 years

CEPOD classification. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote CEPOD I -Immediate, life-saving intervention; CEPOD II – Urgent intervention; CEPOD III – Intervention planned for near future; CEPOD IV – no time for classifiation

CEPOD IV- no time for classification

Pre-anaesthetic fasting. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote Usually 6 hours; Less than 6 hours in very young patients; Only 2 hours in emergency patients More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs

More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs

Advantages of premedication. pick the false answer? ## Footnote Decreases stress, fear & aggression; Lowers anaesthetic demand; Decreases drug expenditure; Increases the excitation phase

Increases the excitation phase

Steps of general anaesthesia. Pick the false answer? * Premedication; * Induction; * Recovery * Stadium analgesia

Stadium analgesia

Effects of premedication.Pick the false answer? ## Footnote Increased O2 demand Decreases pain, stress, fear & aggression; Decreases anaesthetic dosage, side-effects & costs; Eliminated the excitation

Increased O2 demand

Reasons of vein cannulation. choose the wrong answer? Drug administration; Fluid therapy; Emergency access Monitoring core temperature

Monitoring core temperature

Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote Anaesthetics with moderate (or no) side effects; Long duration Rapid onset of action; Short duration or counteractable

Long duration

Maintenance of general anaesthesia. pick the false answer? ## Footnote Epidural Intramuscular; Intravenous; Inhalational

Epidural

Role of the anaesthesiologist. pick the false answer? Control the depth of anaesthesia; Reduce surgical time Patient monitoring; Maintain homeostasis

Reduce surgical time

Stages of narcosis (I-IV). Pick the fals answer A. Stadium analgesiae = induction phase B. Stadium excitationis = excitatory phase C. Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

Characteristics of general anaesthesia. pick the false answer? Unconsciousness; Lack of perception; Analgesia Muscle rigidity

Muscle rigidity