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SAM Final PQS > PQ 2 > Flashcards

PQ 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the permanent data of the animal?

A

Species;

Breed;

Sex;

Colour;

Colour pattern;

Nose/muzzle impression;

Blood group;

Marks – Whorls, blemishes or defects

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2
Q

What colour is the mucosa in case of hypovolaemic shock?

  • Cyanotic
  • Yellow
  • Pale
  • Dirty red
A

Dirty red

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3
Q

. What to check when you inspect the testes?

A

Location; Size; Shape; Structure; Surface; Painfulness; Symmetry; Movability;

Consistency; Cryptorchidism (should descend by 6 months of age → sertoli cell tumour

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4
Q

LMN lesion signs

A

Diminished or absent reflexes; Decreased or absent tone

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5
Q

Physical exam of the kidney

A

Enlarged kidney size is always associated with renal disease in cats; Painful kidney may

indicate acute disease, renal stone, or tumour.

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6
Q

Common causes of kidney shrinkage?

A

Congenital renal dysplasia; End-stage kidney disease; Chronic pyelonephritis

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7
Q

What can B-mode echocardiography show?

A

DCM & HCM

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8
Q

What is a pathognomic symptom?

A

Specific. Characteristic for a particular disease. Sign whose presence means that the

disease is present without any doubt

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9
Q

Instruments needed for a neurological exam

A

Reflex hammer; Penlight; Arterial clamp; Needle

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10
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

Unequal pupil size

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11
Q

What can be examined by inspection of joints?

A

Skin; Angle; Swelling; Deformities; Symmetry

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12
Q

What are the methods of neurological examination?

A

X-ray; EEG; CT; MRI; Blood count; Pathogen detection; CSF analysis

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13
Q

Type of exam commonly carried out together with an ECG

A

Phonocardiography (PCG) (heart sounds)

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14
Q

Choose the correct statement?

• CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are then relayed to a computer that reconstruct the image.
• MRI uses X-ray imaging
• MRI uses the properties of hydrogen atoms when warmed up

A

CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are

then replayed to a computer that reconstructs the image

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15
Q

What is an election of the skin with fluid and volume under 1 cm without epithelial

surrounding?

  • Bulla
  • Vesicle
  • Cyst
A

Vesicle

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16
Q

What is not part of status praesens?

  • Nutritional status
  • History
  • General impression
A

History

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17
Q

Indications of tracheoscopy or bronchoscopy?

A

Acute cough in cases of suspected foreign body; Chronic cough if the cause is unknown

or the patient doesn’t respond to therapy; Unexplained abnormal breathing pattern;

Tracheal collapse → Confirmation & staging; Chronic bronchitis → Staging & sample

collection; Stridor; Removal of mucoid obstruction in atelectatic lung lobes; Suspected

narrowing of the airway; Suspected metastatic pulmonary neoplasia; Haemoptoe

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18
Q

Signs of conscious pain perception in the dog

Leg withdrawal

  • Leg extension
  • Crying
  • Biting towards the examiner
  • Lifting the head up
A

Crying; Biting towards the examiner

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19
Q

Indications for colonoscopy

A

Large bowel diarrhoea; Haematochezia; Blood in faeces; Increased faecal mucous;

Tenesmus; Dyschezia; Palpable rectal masses

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20
Q

Where does the basic clinical value belong to?

A

Status praesens

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21
Q

What could cause a cardiac beat dislocation?

A

Pneumothorax; Hydrothorax; Abscess; Tumour

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22
Q

What is not transient data?

A

Type of coat; Cropped/docked tail

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23
Q

What is transient data?

A

Age; Body weight; Brand marks; Tattoos; Micro-chips

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24
Q

What are the reduced mental statuses?

  • Dementia
  • Stupor
  • Indolentia
  • Somnolentia
  • Delirium
  • Coma
  • Furor
  • Aggressive
  • excitatio
A

Dementia; Stupor; Indolentia (freedom from pain); Somnolentia (sleepy/drowsy);

Delerium; Coma

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25
Q

. In dogs, LSHF can lead to…

  • Ascites
  • Dyspnoea
  • Coughing
  • tachypnoe
A

Dyspnoea; Coughing; Tachypnoea

(FALSE – consequence of right sided heart failure)

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26
Q

When is RDW (red cell distribution width) elevated?

A

Regenerative anaemia

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27
Q

A papule is…

A

Small; Solid elevation <1cm

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28
Q

Acoustic impedance

A

Density of product x Acoustic velocity

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29
Q

In case of hepatopathy, AST is…

A

Sometimes increased; Not liver specific; Only used together with ALT; “Useless” is

apparently the correct answer?

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30
Q

In what conditions would you hear a stronger heartbeat?

A

Thin thoracic wall

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31
Q

. What is ataxia?

A

Incoordination of movement

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32
Q

What is true about angioedema and urticaria

  • Due to corticosteroids
  • Appear within 15-20h
  • Usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion, bee stings (high allergic reaction)
  • Not recommended to give antihistamins or calcium
  • Always strong pruritus
A

Usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion or bee stings (allergic reaction)

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33
Q

How can you categorise the heart sounds by auscultation?

Frequency

Intensity

Size of the cardiac dullness

Amplitude of the hearts sounds

Rhythm

Demarcation of the heart sounds

Adventitious murmur

Turbulency of the heart sounds

Tone of the heart sounds

Resonancy of the heart sound

A

FRIDA: Frequency; Rhythm; Intensity; Demarcation of heart sounds; Adventitious

murmur

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34
Q

Which of the following findings indicate that your patient might have lower urinary

tract disease?(MCQ)

Polyuria, polydipsia

Pollakiuria

Dysuria, stranguria

Thrombosis

Sudden blindness

Central nervous signs

Periuria

Ascites

Haematuria

A

Pollakiuria; Dysuria; Stranguria; Periuria; Haematuria

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35
Q

Regarding its origin, a seizure can be

Focal

Bipol

Generalized

Lateral

Extracerebral

Extracerebellar

A

Generalised; Extracerebral

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36
Q

Which are most specific symptoms to heart disease/failure?

respiratory arrhythmia, cough

porcelain white mucous membranes, dyspnoe

murmur, arrhythmia, dyspnoe

ascites, subcutaneous edema

A

Murmur; Arrhythmia; Dyspnoea

37
Q

What are not indications for rhinoscopy?

Sneezing, reverse sneezing

Nasal discharge

Epistaxis

Salivation

Vomitus

Facial swelling or distorsion

Suspicion of foreign body inhalation (suspicion/knowledge?!)

A

salivation

Vomitus

38
Q

Which is a directly audible respiratory sound?

Expiratory stridor in laryngeal paralysis

Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse

Snoring sound in case of tracheal obstruction

Sniffing sound in case of pharyngeal stridor

A

Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse; Snoring sound in case of tracheal

obstruction

39
Q

What is not classed as an additional exam?

Biopsy

Cystocentesis

Percussion

Fine needle aspiration

A

Percussion

40
Q

Basic clinical values?

Temperature, pulse, blood pressure, respiratory rate, capillary

refilling time

Temperature, pulse, respiratory rate

Temperature, pulse, capillary refilling time, coagulation time

Pulse, heart rate, respiratory rate, rumen contraction, buccal

bleeding time

A

Temperature; Pulse; Respiratory rate (TPR)

41
Q

The main characteristics of endoscopy(MCQ)

It is a complementary diagnostic procedure

It is a semiinvasive procedure

Cheap

Therapeutic application is not possible

Mostly performed on awake patients

Has a minimal instrumental requirement ?? What does that mean?(Endoscope=Instrumental

method)

Sample collection is not possible

A

Complementary diagnostic procedure; Semi-invasive procedure

42
Q

Characteristic of the normal cardiac dullness during percussion on the left side

Dog: absolute

Cat: absolute

Dog: relative

Cat: relative

A

Dog: Absolute dullness; Cat: Relative dullness

43
Q

Normal HR of cats in the clinic

60-70

120-130

140-180

220-250

A

140-180 bpm

44
Q

Normal HR of dogs in the clinic

A

60-140m

45
Q

The bronchial respiratory sound can be heard under normal conditions…

Only above the lung

Above the larynx and trachea

Only above the larynx

Only above the trachea

A

Above the larynx & trachea

46
Q

Which sentence is false?

The cough originated in the larynx is retching/gagging like, has a tendency to vomit

The cough in tracheitis is loud, explosive, barking like

The cough in trachea collapse is goose honking like

The cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive, barking like

A

In dogs, the cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive &

barking-like

47
Q

Alopecia is…MCQ

is the loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete

is a primary skin lesion in endocrine disorders and follicular dysplasias

is a secondary skin lesion to trauma or inflammation

occurs always with erythema

means increased shedding

traumatic (=secondary alopecia) is a physiologic phenomenon

is never moth eaten, or symmetrical or asymmetrical patchy

A

The loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete; A primary skin lesion in

endocrine disorders & follicular dysplasia; A secondary skin lesion to trauma or

inflammation; Physiologic in the case of trauma

48
Q

Which sentence is not true?

Held inspiration can be due to narrowed upper airway’s

Held inspiration van be due to increased abdominal pressure

Held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity

The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

A

The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

49
Q

Which sentences are true?

A

Held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity & micro-bronchitis

50
Q

Which sentences are true?

A

Asymmetric breathing can be due to one main bronchus obstruction & pain in one side

of the chest

51
Q

Which sentences are true?

A

Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a

painful chest disorder

52
Q

Which statement is false?

A)regurgitation is passive and consequence of disorder of oesophagus or pharynx

B)vomiting is characterized by active abdominal movement and preceded by nausea

C)the vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic

D)the pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic

A

The pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic

53
Q

Which parameters cannot be examined by palpation? (MC)

Painfulness

Colour

Consistency

Movability

Smell /odour

Percussion sound

Size

A

Colour; Smell/odour; Percussion sound

54
Q

Which parameters can be examined by palpation?(Mc)

Painfulness

Colour

Consistency

Movability

Smell /odour

Percussion sound

Size

A

Painfulness; Consistency; Movability; Size

55
Q

What are appropriate tests to examine the endocrine function of the pancreas?

Blood glucose

TLI (tripsine-like immunorectivity) (exocrine!)

Fructosamine

Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test

Insulin

ACTH-stimulation test

A

Fructosamine; Insulin

56
Q

Method of the hepatojugular reflux test?

A)Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis

B)compress the jugular vene and observeits refilling

C)compress the v. jugularis on one side and observe the other side

D)compare the jugular vein to the vena cava

A

Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis

57
Q

Part of the brain responsible for mental status?

Medulla oblongata

Thalamocortex

Chiazma

Limbic system

A

Thalamocortex

58
Q

Premedication

A) Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthetia

B) Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anaesthetia

C) Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anaesthetia

D) Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anaesthetia

A

Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anaesthesia

59
Q

Calming

A) Analgesia

B)Anxiolysis

C) sedation

D)Anaesthetia

A

Sedation

60
Q

Reduction of fear?

A) Analgesia

B) Anxiolysis

C) Sedation

D) Anaesthetia

A

Anxiolysis

61
Q

Pain relief?

A) analgesia

B) anxiolysis

C) sedation

D) catalepsy

A

Analgesia

62
Q

Catalepsy may be caused by?

A) Ketamine

B) Propofol

C) Fentanyl

D) xylazine

A

Ketamine

63
Q

Neuroleptanalgesia. Pick the false answer?

Superficial “sleeping”;

Analgesia;

Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination

Caused by benzodiazepine + opoid combination

A

Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

64
Q

Types of anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?

Local;

Regional;

General;

Subtotal

A

subtotal

65
Q

General anaesthesia criteria. Pick the false answer?

Hypnosis;

Analgesia;

Muscles relaxant

Inhalational

A

Inhalational

66
Q

Balanced anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?

  • Acheivable with a single monoanaesthetic drug
  • Consciousness may be steered with anaesthetics;
  • Pain may be controlled by analgesics;
  • Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants
A

Acheivable with a single Monoanaesthetic drug

67
Q

Dissociative anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?

Thalamocortical dissociation;

Limbic depression

Peripheral analgesia;

Alteration of consciousness

A

Limbic depression

68
Q

Phenothiazines may cause life-threatening hypotension in…

A) Dobermans

B) Boxers

C) Staffordshire terriers

D) greyhounds

A

Boxers

69
Q

Brachycephalic breeds need. Pick the false answer?

  • Pre-oxygenation;
  • Short induction;
  • Fast intubation
  • Early extubation
A

early extubation

70
Q

MDR-1 gene defect is detected in. Pick the false answer?

  • Australian shepherd;
  • English shepherd;
  • German shepherd
  • Pug
A

Pug

71
Q

Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the false answer?

Mucous membranes;

Spleen size

CRT;

Pulse frequency & quality

A

Spleen size

72
Q

Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the false answer?

Heart muscle biopsy

Auscultation;

ECG;

US

A

heart muscle biopsy

73
Q

Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam? Pick the false answer?

WBC count; Haematocrit;

Parasitological examination of faeces

TPP;( total plasma protein)

Urea; Creatinine; ALT

A

Parasitological examination of faeces

74
Q

ASA 1?

A) Healthy state

B) Symptom free state

C)low anaesthetia risk

D) age 0 day- 8 years

A

age 0 day- 8 years

75
Q

ASA 2. pick the false answer?

A) Mild systemic disease

B) No apparent functional disorders

C)High aneaesthetia risk(in exam they had low anaesthetia risk)

D) Age 6 weeks-5 years

A

age 6 weeks- 5 years

76
Q

ASA 3. Pick the false answer?

A) severe systemic disease

B) Visible functional impairment

C) age 6 weeks- 5 years

D) not life threatening status

A

C) age 6 weeks- 5 years

77
Q

ASA 4. Pick the false answer?

A) severe systemic disease

B) constant threat to life

C)Age 0-3 days or over 10 years

D) age 6-16 years

A

D) age 6-16 years

78
Q

CEPOD classification. Pick the false answer?

CEPOD I -Immediate, life-saving intervention;

CEPOD II – Urgent intervention;

CEPOD III – Intervention planned for near future;

CEPOD IV – no time for classifiation

A

CEPOD IV- no time for classification

79
Q

Pre-anaesthetic fasting. Pick the false answer?

Usually 6 hours;

Less than 6 hours in very young patients;

Only 2 hours in emergency patients

More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs

A

More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs

80
Q

Advantages of premedication. pick the false answer?

Decreases stress, fear & aggression;

Lowers anaesthetic demand;

Decreases drug expenditure;

Increases the excitation phase

A

Increases the excitation phase

81
Q

Steps of general anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?

  • Premedication;
  • Induction;
  • Recovery
  • Stadium analgesia
A

Stadium analgesia

82
Q

Effects of premedication.Pick the false answer?

Increased O2 demand

Decreases pain, stress, fear & aggression;

Decreases anaesthetic dosage, side-effects & costs;

Eliminated the excitation

A

Increased O2 demand

83
Q

Reasons of vein cannulation. choose the wrong answer?

Drug administration;

Fluid therapy;

Emergency access

Monitoring core temperature

A

Monitoring core temperature

84
Q

Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the false answer?

Anaesthetics with moderate (or no) side effects;

Long duration

Rapid onset of action;

Short duration or counteractable

A

Long duration

85
Q

Maintenance of general anaesthesia. pick the false answer?

Epidural

Intramuscular;

Intravenous;

Inhalational

A

Epidural

86
Q

Role of the anaesthesiologist. pick the false answer?

Control the depth of anaesthesia;

Reduce surgical time

Patient monitoring;

Maintain homeostasis

A

Reduce surgical time

87
Q

Stages of narcosis (I-IV). Pick the fals answer A. Stadium analgesiae = induction phase
B. Stadium excitationis = excitatory phase
C. Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis
D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

A

Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

88
Q

Characteristics of general anaesthesia. pick the false answer?

Unconsciousness;

Lack of perception;

Analgesia

Muscle rigidity

A

Muscle rigidity

SAM Final PQS (18 decks)

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