PQ 5 Flashcards by Hege Osland

Which is not a type of periosteal reaction?

a. Lamellar
b. Columnar
c. Sunburst-like
d. Medullar

Medullar

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Which location is not typical of OCD in dogs?

a. Tarsus
b. Carpus
c. Shoulder
d. Stifle

Carpus

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Which instrument is not a member of the abdominal instrumentation set?

a. Balfour self retraining retractor
b. Doyen clamp
c. Finochietto self retaining retractor
d. Atraumatic tissue forceps

Fianchietto self-retaining retractor

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Which of the following instruments is a member of the thoracic instrumentation set?

Fianchietto self-retaining retractor

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Which of the following instruments is not a member of the thoracic instrumentation

set?

Finochietto retractor

atraumatic instruments

staplers

De Bakey / Satinsky vascular clamp

De bakey/satinsky vascular clamp

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Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesiologic considerations of

hypothyroidism?

a. Due to thermoregulatory imbalance hyperthermia occurs
b. The overall metabolic rate is decreased, drug metabolism is slower, therefore

the “vulnerability” of the patient to anesthesia is lower

c. Myocardial contractibility is decreased, tachycardia is present
d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

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Which local anaesthetic technique is the safest from the patient’s aspect?

a. Infiltrational
b. Epidural
c. Intrathecal
d. Paravertebral

Infiltrational

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Which colour is typical for compensatory stage of shock?

a. Pale
b. Cyanotic
c. Dirty red
d. Bright red

Bright red

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Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an

antibiotic?

a. Splenectomy
b. Small intestine biopsy
c. Ovariectomy
d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament replacement material

Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating filament replacement material

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Which of the following factors doesn’t affect the success of feline perineal

urethrostomy?

a. Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma
b. Transection of bulbospongious muscle
c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle
d. Type of the suture material

Transection of ischiocavernous muscle

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Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of

urinary bladder tumours?

a. Double contrast cystography
b. Ultrasonography
c. Urine sediment analysis/cytology
d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

Therapy-irresponsive haematuria

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. Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad

defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?

a. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
b. Status of the thoracic wall
c. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
d. ARD

Status of the thoracic wall

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Which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV?

A) Stabilization orogastric tubation and gastric lavage gastrocentesis adequate narcosis surgery

B) stabilization and gasstrocentesis adequate narcosis orogastric tubation and gastric lavage surgery

C)stabilization gastric lavage gastrocentesis surgery

D) stabilizatzion gastrocentesis adequate narcosis surgery orogastric tubation and gastric lavage

A) Stabilisation orogastric tubation - Gastric lavage gastrocentesis – Adequate narcosis Surgery

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According to Shamir et al, which of the following features is incorrect concerning the

typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?

a. Male
b. Bite wound
c. Bodyweight is less than 10kg
d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg

Body weight <10kg

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What is the sequester?

a. Connective tissue surrounded cavity filled with pus
b. Natural body cavity filled with pus
c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone
d. Vital, demarcated area in the bone

Necrotised, demarcated area in the bone

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Which is necessary for bone healing?

a. Antibiotic treatment
b. NSAID treatment
c. Good bloody supply
d. Fluid therapy

Good blood supply

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Which method is chosen as first case of foreign body-caused caudal thoracic

(prediaphragmatic) oesophageal obstruction
a. Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
b. Endoscopic removal
c. Laparotomy + gastrotomy + transluminal foreign body removal
d. Thoracotomy + esophagotomy

Endoscopic removal

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Which statement is correct? In case of renal traumatic bleeding.

a. The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)
b. The plain abdominal radiography is usually pathognomonic
c. Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
d. Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life threatening circulatory changes

retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually

does not lead to life-threatening circulatory changes

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Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial cruciate

ligament repair?

a. The suture material is non-absorbable
b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential
c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done
d. The suture material is placed outside the joint

The suture material is non-absorbable

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Which statement is incorrect regarding linear foreign body-caused small intestinal

obstruction?

a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
b. It usually requires multiple GI incisors
c. Iatrogenic perforation might be caused
d. Multiple GI incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single GI opening

It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy

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Which is typical of cauda equine compression?

Hansen type-II disc protrusion

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Which of the following causes is not primary in the aetiology of external otitis in

dogs?

a. Bacteria
b. Paracite
c. Grass awn
d. Atopia

Bacteria

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Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of

scrotal hernia

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder

Small intestine

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Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate in feline

otitis media?

Ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO)

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Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone involvement of oral tumours? a. Radiography b. Fine needle aspiration biopsy c. Computed tomography d. Ultrasonography

Radiography

Which of the following decisions is correct in the case of fundus necrosis during GDV surgery? a. Billroth 1 gastroduodenostomy b. Partial gastrectomy c. Euthanasia d. Resorption and gastroplexy

Partial gastrectomy

Which is the most effective and appropriate procedure in canine otitis externa & media?

TECA + LBO

Which is correct regarding intervertebral disc disease?

It is generally acute in chondrodystrophic dogs (short legs, long back)

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding incisional hernia? ## Footnote a. It is an atrogenic complication b. It might be suppurative c. It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases d. It may be caused by surgical technical error

It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases

Which conditions indicate liver lobectomy? ## Footnote a. Liver abscess b. Superficial liver rupture c. Cholelithiasis d. Diffuse hepatomegaly

Liver abscess

Synovial fluid is determined as septic if…

The WBC count is \>40g/L; With mostly neutrophils

Which statements are correct? ## Footnote a. Mepivicain is less irritant than lidocaine b. Bupivacain har longer duration than mepivacaine c. Bupivacain has approx. 4 hours of duration d. All of them are correct

Mepivicaine is less irritating than lidocaine; Bupivicaine has a longer duration than mepivacaine; Bupivicaine has approximately 4 hours of duration All are correct

Which statement is correct regarding patellar luxation in dogs a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line b. It is always lateral in large breeds c. It is always traumatic d. It is mostly caudal

Regarding patellar luxation in dogs, the anatomical & functional axis of the leg is not in the same line

Which layers need to be closed first during a midline laparotomy? ## Footnote a. Rectus sheet b. Falciform ligament c. Peritoneum d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle

External rectus sheet (the internal rectus sheet & peritoneum are not to be sutured as this leads to adhesion formation)

## Footnote Which statement is correct concerning syringe pumps a. Syringe pumps are less accurate than infusion pumps regarding continuous drug dosage b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h) are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h) c. Conventional infusion lines are suitable for as accurate dosing of drugs as syringe pumps, by counting drop numbers d. In case of a power-cut, even modern syringe pumps stops, just like anesthesia machines

Parameters required for adequate calculation of infusion rate (ml/hr) are body weight, drug conc. and the dose of the drug to be administered

Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anesthesia ## Footnote a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left inflated on extubation c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation

Recovery from anaesthesia takes place when the administration of the anaesthetics are discontinued or antagonists are administered

Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals ## Footnote a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive

ACP is recommended for young, anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition

## Footnote Optional drug for preoperative analgesia are? a. Phenotiazines and butyrophenone-derivates b. Alpha2-antagonist and NMDA-agonist c. Local anesthetics and muscle relaxants d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

alpha 2 agonists (medetomidine) & NMDA-antagonists (ketamine/gabapentin)

Which activity is done first in case of pneumothorax? ## Footnote a. Thoracocentesis b. Percutaneous chest drainage c. Oxygenisation d. Thoracotomy/sternotomy/lobectomy

Thoracocentesis

Which procedure can be used to demonstrate urethral rupture? ## Footnote a. Double contrast cystography b. Intravenous urography c. Excretory urethrography d. Retrograde urethrography

Retrograde urethrography

Increasing sequence of capacity of vein catheter ## Footnote a. Yellow, blue, pink, green b. Blue, pink, grey, yellow c. Yellow, pink, blue grey d. Green, pink, blue, yellow

Yellow, blue, pink green

Stadium analgesia ## Footnote a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisation

Transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

Barium sulphate can be used for which procedure? ## Footnote a. Myelography b. Gastric emptying study c. Retrograde cystography d. Arthrography

Gastric emptying study

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesia of patients with renal dysfunction? ## Footnote a. The prevention of intraoperative hypertonia is the primary goal b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function c. Ketamine is contraindicated in dogs with kidney dysfunction d. Fentanyl and NSAID´s are recommended for intraoperative analgesia (not)

alpha 2 agonists decrease renal function

GGE (guaipgenesine) ## Footnote a. It has good analgesic effect b. It is available for induction alone c. It doesn’t cause ataxia d. It is a muscle relaxant

Muscle relaxant

General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs & cats? ## Footnote a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h b. 10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h c. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h d. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min

1ml/kg/hr e.g 17-20 drops/kg/hr

During nephrotomy? ## Footnote a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein b. Renal vein is to to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact c. Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact d. The ureter is also occluded

The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery & vein

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in the male dog? a. Urethrohydropropulsio b. Prescrotal urethrostomy c. Scrotal urethrostomy d. Perineal urethrostomy

Urethrohydropropulsion

Which ligament repair is required in case of patellar luxation? ## Footnote a. Cranial cruciate ligament b. Patellar straight ligament c. Both of them d. None of them

Patellar straight ligament

Which statement is correct? ## Footnote a. Compressive spinal injury needs emergency treatment b. Spinal cord injury has no effect for visceral functions c. The treatment of patients with spinal cord injury is hopeless d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury

Corticosteroid & NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury

Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomic in case of cranial cruciate ligament rupture? a. Radiology b. Cranial drawer test c. Gait analysis d. Historical date

Cranial drawer test

Which examination is not enough alone for diagnosing cauda equine myelography? ## Footnote a. MRI b. Plain X-ray c. CT d. CT myelography

CT myelography

Which statement is false? ## Footnote a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain b. Haematoma can be the consequence of a contusion c. The urinary bladder injury can cause bloody urine d. In case of severe pneumothorax, emergency thoracocentesis is necessary

The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain

Which of the following breeds is congenital cleft palate common? ## Footnote a. French bulldog b. German shepherd c. Yorkshire terrier d. Hungarian vizsla

French bulldog

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma (HSA)? a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor d. Splenic HSA does not metastatise into the heart

The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor

Which of the following is least effective in German Shepherd’s perineal fistulation? ## Footnote a. Fistulectomy b. Cyclosporine c. Prednisolone d. Conservative management

Conservative management

Which oral region is mostly affected by oral tumours? ## Footnote a. Soft palate b. Hard palate c. Gingiva d. Tongue

Gingiva

Which statement is correct concerning pulse oximetry? ## Footnote a. The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oxymetry values b. Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oxymetry values c. Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oxymetry values d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

Hypertension has no effect on pulse-oximetry values (but hypotension does)

Reversible drugs and their antagonists

Diazepam & flumazenil; Fentanyl & Naloxone; Medetomidine & atipamezole

Which statement is correct concerning preanaesthetic assessment? ## Footnote a. Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses b. Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea, Urea, ALT and AST d. The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance, blood glucose and urinalysis

C) Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Creatinine, Urea, ALT & AST

Which of the following sterilisation methods operate at the highest temperature? ## Footnote a. Autoclave (steam) b. Gamma-beam radiation c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation

Autoclave (steam)

Which of the following can happen if alpha 2 agonists are injected intraarterially? ## Footnote a. Collapse b. Oxytocin-like effect c. Awakening d. Ileus

Collapse

Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients? ## Footnote a. Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are increased b. The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased d. GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased

Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

Which statement is correct? ## Footnote a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds b. The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing c. Both d. None

The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds

Which belong to signs of arthrosis on the radiograph? ## Footnote a. Perichondral osteophyte formation b. Irregular subchondral bone c. Widened joint space d. Cortical osteolysis

Perichondral osteophyte formation; Irregular subchondral bone; Cortical osteolysis

The columnar periosteal reaction is typical of which disorder? ## Footnote a. Hypertrophic osteopathy b. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy c. Nonunion d. Osteochondrosis dissecans

Hypertrophic osteopathy

Which of the following breeds is mostly predisposed to wobbler syndrome? ## Footnote a. Dobermann b. German shepherd c. Dachshound d. Labrador retriever

Doberman; Great Dane

Which isn’t a postural reaction? ## Footnote a. Hopping b. Placing c. Wheelbarrowing d. Panniculus reflex

Panniculus reflex

Which statement is incorrect regarding perianal adenoma? ## Footnote a. It is uncommon in females b. It mostly occurs in males c. It mainly originates from circumanal glands d. It originates from the anal sac in females

It originates from the anal sac in females; It mostly occurs in males

What is the major difference between midline & incisional gastropexy? ## Footnote a. Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst incisional operates with penetrating sutures b. The technique fix different areas of the stomach c. In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done, unlike midline gastropexy d. Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

The technique fixes different areas of the stomach

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter? ## Footnote a. It may cause dysuria b. In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes d. The urinary incontinence is always constant

The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation? ## Footnote a. Adrenal gland b. Skin c. Brain d. Bone marrow

Brain

Which solution has the most alkalising effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis? ## Footnote a. NaCl solution b. NaHCO3 solution c. Lactated Ringer´s d. Acetated Ringer´s

NaHCO3 solution

Which statement is correct concerning capnometry? ## Footnote a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2) b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2 c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption) d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled & exhaled gas mixture

Which statements are correct? ## Footnote a. Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound b. The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound c. Both d. None

none

Which of the following doesn’t contraindicate the use of NSAIDs? ## Footnote a. Shock b. Prolonged mucous membrane bleeding time c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system d. Active gastro-intestinal ulceration

Immaturity of the skeletal system

Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature? ## Footnote a. Medial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch b. Medial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch c. Distal surface faces to the apex d. Distal surface faces to the crown

Medial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch

Which statement is correct?

The formation of bullae are typical of II-degree burns

Which of the following suture patterns is tension-relieving?

Interrupted horizontal mattress

Which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in a dog? ## Footnote a. Osteochondrosis dissecans b. Osteomyelitis c. Osteoporosis d. Osteomalacia

Osteomyelitis

Which is not correct regarding balance anaesthesia? ## Footnote a. recovery is better than at the inhalational anesthesia b. mortality rate is reduced than at inhalational anesthesia c. MAC is lower than at inhalational anesthesia d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

Drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

Which structure can be seen in a radiograph of a healthy dog? ## Footnote a. joint cartilage b. subchondral bone c. periosteum d. adrenal gland

Subchondral bone

The recommended fluid to lavage a joint is a. Sterile, isotonic infusion solution b. Sterile, hypertonic infusion solution c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution d. Sterile, hypertonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution