Reviewer #11 Flashcards

1
Q

Mature RBC are called

A

Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Carry oxygen to cells

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Abnormally low number of circulating RBCs, low haemoglobin concentration, or both.

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Usual cause of anaemia

A

Decreased numbers of circulating RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A nutritional anaemia, is most common type of anaemia

A

Iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When anaemia results from acute or chronic bleeding its classified as

A

Blood loss anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the compensatory mechanisms that are activated to maintain the cardiac output

A

The heart rate increases and Peripheral blood vessels constrict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If hemorrhage continues, compensatory mechanisms become less effective, increasing the risk of

A

Shock and Circulatory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RBCs are of normal size and shape

A

Normocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

RBCs are of small size and shape

A

Microcytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

RBCs are of normal color

A

Normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RBCs are of pale

A

Hypochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Key difference in acute blood loss and chronic blood loss anemia

A

If iron is sufficient the hemoglobin levels may return to normal within 3 to 4 weeks in acute blood loss however in chronic it depletes the rbc storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal red blood cell development

A

Erythropoesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A key nutrient necessary for haemoglobin synthesis

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vitamins that play a key role in RBC development

A

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) and B9 (Folate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vitamin B12 and folic acid anaemias are sometimes called

A

Megaloblastic anemia (due to enlarged nucleated RBCs called megaloblasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Malformed RBCs

A

Poikilocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The usual cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adults

A

Excessive iron loss due to chronic bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The most common cause in adult females

A

Menstrual blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Failure to absorb dietary vitamin B12 is called

A

Pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pernicious anemia develops due to a lack of

A

Intrinsic factor (substance
secreted by the gastric mucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pathognomonic sign of pernicious anemia

A

Beefy red tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Altered sensations, such as numbness or tingling) in the extremities

A

Paraesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vitamin B12 is important for

A

Neurological function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Characterized by fragile, megaloblastic (large and immature) cells

A

Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Alcoholics are especially at risk because

A

Alcohol suppresses folate metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Difference between B12 and B9 anemia

A

No neurological symptoms occur with folic acid deficiency anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Are characterised by premature destruction (lysis) of RBCs

A

Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Causes that arise from disorders within the RBC itself

A

Intrinsic causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cause that originates outside the RBC

A

Extrinsic cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Intrinsic disorders include

A

Cell membrane defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A hereditary, chronic haemolytic anaemia. It is characterised by of sickling

A

Sickle cell anemia (RBC becomes crescent shaped)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The disorder is transmitted as an

A

Autosomal recessive genetic defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sickle cell anaemia can significantly shorten lifespan, with most deaths occurring due to

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Marked by pooling of large amounts of blood in the liver and spleen

A

Sequestration crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Inherited disorders of haemoglobin synthesis in which either the alpha or beta chains of the haemoglobin molecule are missing or defective.

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mediterranean descent are more
likely to have beta-defect thalassaemias called

A

Cooley’s anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

One defective beta-chain forming gene may be present

A

Beta-thalassemia minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Both gene may be defective

A

Beta-thalassemia major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

One, two, three or all four may be defective

A

Alpha-thalassemia major

42
Q

People with thalassemia minor are often

A

Asymptomatic

43
Q

Results from haemolysis due to factors the RBC

A

Acquired Hemolytic Anemia

44
Q

Caused by a hereditary defect in RBC metabolism. It is relatively common in people of African and Mediterranean descent. The defective gene is located on the X chromosome and therefore affects more males than females.

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydro (G6PD) anaemia

45
Q

The bone marrow fails to produce all three types of blood cells

A

Aplastic Anemia

46
Q

A condition where the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the blood is lower than normal.

A

Pancytopenia

47
Q

A rare aplastic anaemia caused by defects of DNA repair

A

Fanconi anemia

48
Q

The underlying cause of about 50% of acquired
aplastic anaemia is unknown

A

Idiopathic aplastic anemia

49
Q

The priority of care in treating anaemia

A

Ensuring adequate tissue oxygenation

50
Q

Done to determine blood cell counts, haemoglobin, haematocrit and red blood cell indices. The severity of the anaemia and the shape, volume and iron content of the RBCs can help determine the cause of anaemia.

A

Full Blood Count (FBC)

51
Q

Performed to detect iron deficiency anaemia. A low serum iron concentration and elevated total iron-binding capacity are indicative of iron deficiency anaemia

A

Iron levels and total iron-binding capacity

52
Q

Low due to depletion of the total iron reserves available for haemoglobin synthesis. Ferritin is an iron-storage protein produced by the liver, spleen and bone marrow. Ferritin mobilises stored iron when metabolic needs are higher than dietary intake.

A

Serum ferritin

53
Q

A screening test to evaluate haemolytic
anaemia and detect HbS

A

Sickle cell test

54
Q

Separates normal hemoglobin from abnormal forms. It is used to evaluate haemolytic anemia, diagnose thalassemia and differentiate sickle cell trait from sickle cell disease

A

Haemoglobin electrophoresis

55
Q

Measures vitamin B12 absorption before and after intrinsic factor administration to differentiate between pernicious anaemia and intestinal malabsorption of the vitamin. A 24 hour urine sample is collected following
administration of radioactive vitamin B12. Lower than normal levels of the tagged B12 when intrinsic factor is given concurrently indicate malabsorption rather than pernicious
anaemia

A

Schilling test

56
Q

Done to diagnose aplastic anaemia. In aplastic anaemia, normal marrow elements are significantly decreased as they are replaced by fat cell

A

Bone marrow examination

57
Q

A major concern when iron dextran is given intravenously.

A

Anaphylaxis

58
Q

Method of injection is recommended for the intramuscular administration of iron because it decreases irritation and staining and assists
with sealing the medication in muscle tissue

A

Z track method

59
Q

A group of blood disorders characterised by abnormal-appearing bone marrow and cytopenia (low numbers of circulating blood cells).

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

60
Q

Anaemia that does not respond to treatment

A

Refractory anemia

61
Q

An excess of red blood cells characterised by a hematocrit higher than 55%.

A

Polycythaemia, or erythrocytosis

62
Q

The two main types of polycythaemia are

A

Primary and Secondary

63
Q

A third type of polycythaemia which results
from a fluid volume deficit, not excess RBCs

A

Relative Polycythemia

64
Q

A neoplastic stem cell disorder characterised by overproduction of RBCs and, to a lesser extent, white blood cells and platelets.

A

Primary polycythemia

65
Q

Primary polycythemia is classified as a

A

Myeloproliferative disorder

66
Q

Increased numbers of RBCs in response to excess erythropoietin secretion or prolonged hypoxia. Secondary polycythaemia is the most common form of polycythaemia.

A

Secondary polycythaemia, or erythrocytosis

67
Q

Difference of primary and secondary polycythemia

A

Spleenomegaly does not develop in secondary

68
Q

A group of chronic malignant disorders of white blood cells and white blood cell precursors.

69
Q

Stem cells that have developed to the stage where they are committed to forming a particular kind of new blood cell.

A

Precursor cells

70
Q

All leukaemias start in the

A

Bone marrow

71
Q

In leukaemia, the usual ratio of red to white blood cells is

72
Q

Characterised by uncontrolled proliferation of myeloblasts (the precursors of granulocytes) and hyperplasia of the bone marrow and spleen

A

Acute myeloid leukemia

73
Q

Characterised by abnormal proliferation of all bone marrow elements

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

74
Q

CML is usually associated with a chromosome abnormality called the

A

Philadelphia chromosome

75
Q

Characterised by proliferation and accumulation of small, abnormal, mature lymphocytes in the bone marrow, peripheral blood and body tissues.

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

76
Q

Treatment of choice for some types of leukaemia

A

Bone marrow transplant

77
Q

Malignancies of lymphoid tissue. They are
characterised by the proliferation of lymphocytes, histiocytes (resident monocytes or macrophages) and their precursors or
derivatives

78
Q

A rare lymphatic cancer, occurring most often in people between the ages of 15 and 35.

A

Hodgkins disease

79
Q

A diverse group of lymphoid tissue
malignancies that do not contain Reed Sternberg cells.

A

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas

80
Q

A malignancy in which plasma cells multiply uncontrollably and infiltrate the bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen and other tissues

A

Multiple Myeloma

81
Q

A platelet count of less than 150 × 109/L
of blood. It can lead to abnormal bleeding

A

Thrombocytopenia

82
Q

The most common drug-induced thrombocytopenia

83
Q

The two types of primary thrombocytopenia are

A

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

84
Q

Also known as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, is an autoimmune disorder in which platelet destruction is accelerated.

A

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

85
Q

A rare disorder in which thrombi occlude arterioles and capillaries of the microcirculation. Many organs are affected, including the heart, kidneys and brain

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

86
Q

Develops as a result of an abnormal response to heparin therapy

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

87
Q

A protein that occurs naturally in human tissues and inflammatory cells.

88
Q

A group of hereditary clotting factor disorders that lead to persistent and sometimes severe bleeding. Although often considered a disease of children, haemophilia may be diagnosed in adults

A

Hemophilia

89
Q

A disruption of haemostasis characterised by widespread intravascular clotting and bleeding. It may be acute and life threatening or
relatively mild. DIC is a clinical syndrome that develops as a complication of a wide variety of other disorders

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

90
Q

The most common cause of DIC

91
Q

Test for sickle cell anemia

92
Q

Caused by loss of blood volume, resulting in fewer blood cells

A

Hypovolemic anemia

93
Q

Is the pigmented, iron containing portion of hemoglobin

94
Q

Confirmation test for hypovolemic anemia is

95
Q

Erythrocytes in the process of maturation

A

Reticulocytes

96
Q

Crack at the corners of the mouth

97
Q

Erythrocyte destruction is manifested by

A

Jaundice due to Hyperbilirubinemia

98
Q

Prolonged erection

99
Q

A predictor of Acute Chest Syndrome

A

Increase in secretory phospholipase

100
Q

In sickle cell anemia the treatment is

A

Supportive rather than Curative

101
Q

Confirmatory test for Pernicious anemia

A

Schilling test