resp 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

<p>10. Which of the following skills can safely be delegated routinely to an NAP?
A. Oropharyngeal suctioning
B. Airway suctioning using a closed method
C. Endotracheal tube care
D. Tracheostomy care</p>

A

<p>A. Oropharyngeal suctioningRationaleAlthough an NAP may routinely handle oropharyngeal suctioning, the other skills require the training and judgment of an RN. The nurse is responsible for cardiopulmonary assessment and evaluation of the patient during the skill performance. Only in cases of a permanent tracheostomy or a well-established artificial airway in a stable patient may the skill of suctioning be delegated to an NAP.</p>

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2
Q

<p>11. Why is it important to assess a patient's understanding of a procedure?
A. Encourages cooperation of the patient during and after the procedure
B. Minimizes risks to the patient
C. Identifies teaching needs
D. All of the above</p>

A

<p>D. All of the aboveRationaleAll of these outcomes are applicable to assessing patient knowledge of the procedure. If the patient understands what will happen to him during a procedure and why this is important for his health, he tends to cooperate during and after the procedure. If the patient understands the procedure and what he needs to do afterward to remain safe and free of complications, risks will be minimized. Also, by discussing the procedure with the patient, the nurse can identify teaching needs.</p>

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3
Q

<p>12. If a patient is accidentally extubated, which of the following actions are appropriate?
A. Remain with the patient.
B. Assist respirations with bag-valve mask as needed.
C. Assess patient for airway patency, spontaneous breathing, and vital signs
.D. Prepare for reintubation.
E. All of the above.</p>

A

<p>E. All of the above.RationaleAll of the listed interventions are appropriate for unexpected extubation. The nurse should stay with the patient until assistance arrives to continually assess respiratory status and the need for any of the listed interventions.</p>

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4
Q
<p>13. 	Several factors affect the volume and consistency of endotracheal secretions. Which of the following causes an increase in the amount and thickness of secretions? Choose all that apply
.A.	Fluid intake
B.	Infection
C.	Respiratory rate
D.	Humidification</p>
A

<p>B. InfectionRationalePatients with respiratory infection, such as pneumonia, are prone to increased secretions that are thicker and sometimes are more difficult to expectorate. Fluid intake increases the amount of secretions but will thin them. Humidity loosens secretions, facilitating airway suctioning when the patient cannot clear secretions effectively. Rate of respirations will not effect the amount or viscosity of secretions.</p>

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5
Q

<p>15. Which chest tube placement location promotes the removal of air?
A. Apical (second or third intercostal space)
B. Mediastinal
C. Posterior (fifth or sixth intercostal space)
D. None of the above</p>

A

<p>A. Apical (second or third intercostal space)RationaleThe location of the chest tube indicates the type of drainage expected. Apical (second or third intercostal space) and anterior chest tube placement promote removal of air. Because air rises, these chest tubes are placed high, allowing evacuation of air from the intrapleural space and lung reexpansion.</p>

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6
Q

<p>17. Current evidence indicates that patients who have chest tubes longer than 20 days are at increased risk for health care–associated infection (HAI). Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for decreasing this risk? Choose all that apply.
A. Encouraging deep breathing exercises
B. Assisting patient with early mobility
C. Refraining from use of analgesia because this would depress respirations
D. Providing patient education regarding these practices</p>

A

<p>A. Encouraging deep breathing exercisesB. Assisting patient with early mobilityD. Providing patient education regarding these practicesRationaleResearchers have found that patients who have chest tubes longer than 20 days are at six times greater risk of developing an HAI than those who have chest tubes for a period shorter than 20 days. On the basis of this information, nurses should be vigilant regarding the need for a chest tube, should encourage deep breathing exercises and early mobility, as well as use of appropriate analgesia to promote activity, and should provide patient education regarding these practices. Patients should be given appropriate analgesia so they will be able to increase their mobility and to cough and deep breathe more effectively.</p>

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7
Q

<p>19. An unconscious patient with a head injury has an oral airway that has been taped in place for several days. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is most critical because of the patient's status?
A. Frequency of mouth care with lemon glycerin swabs
B. Condition of the lips and surrounding skin
C. How often the patient is being repositioned
D. Status of the patient's oral airway</p>

A

<p>B. Condition of the lips and surrounding skinRationaleThe patient is unable to let the nursing staff know whether the lips or the skin around the mouth is hurting. An oral airway can cause significant lip and tongue erosion. Lemon glycerin swabs should not be used because they are drying to mucosal tissues. The other assessments are important but do not relate to the presence of the oral airway.</p>

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8
Q

<p>8. Before discharge, the nurse designs a patient teaching plan to help the patient and family correctly perform chest physiotherapy. Why is this teaching an important aspect of patient safety?
A. Reduces readmission to a health care facility
B. Decreases the amount of medical equipment needed in the home care setting
C. Because patients and families need to know changes or effects associated with chest PT and when to notify the health care providerD. Decreases anxiety of the family caregiver</p>

A

<p>C. Because patients and families need to know changes or effects associated with chest PT and when to notify the health care providerRationaleThe patient and the caregiver need to know and recognize changes in the patient's respiratory or physiologic status to determine the effectiveness of therapy and to know when they should inform the health care provider of the need for additional therapy.</p>

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9
Q

<p>9. A patient is receiving chest physiotherapy in the home setting. The home health nurse observes the session and notes that the patient is not tolerating the procedure well. Which of the following is the best choice for modifying care?A. Reduce treatments by 2 per day.B. Suggest using an Acapella device.C. Let the patient select when treatment is given.D. Administer a bronchodilator therapy.</p>

A

<p>B. Suggest using an Acapella device.RationaleAn Acapella device in conjunction with CPT maneuvers provides airway vibration and assists in clearing the airways. Reducing treatment sessions at all is not acceptable because the patient needs the therapy. The nurse may shorten the session if the patient is able to clear the airway with a shorter session. Administering a bronchodilator requires an order from the health care provider; this would take some time, and the nurse can institute other therapies. Letting the patient select when to have CPT therapy may not be appropriate in that these therapies may have to be scheduled at specific time periods.</p>

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10
Q

<p>A cough generally becomes significant when it</p>

A

<p>persists, is recurring, or is productive.</p>

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11
Q

<p>A patient experiences severe dyspnea and hemoptysis during a session of chest physiotherapy (CPT). After stopping the CPT, what is the initial appropriate nursing intervention?o 1Notifying the health care providero 2Administering a bronchodilator to ease the dyspneao 3Assessing patiento 4Elevating the head of patient's bed</p>

A

<p>3 Rationale: A current assessment of the patient is needed before decisions regarding treatment can be made. There can be a number of causes for the dyspnea and the bleeding. The health care provider will be notified but will expect current patient information to be available.</p>

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12
Q

<p>A patient has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min that is rhythmic and moderate in depth. What term would you use to describe this breathing pattern?</p>

A

<p>Tachypnea</p>

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13
Q

<p>A patient hospitalized for acute pneumonia has a 10-year history of chronic lung disease and cannot clear her respiratory secretions from the posterior pharynx even with coughing. Which suctioning intervention is appropriate? o 1Oropharyngealo 2Nasopharyngealo 3Endotrachealo 4Tracheal</p>

A

<p>1 Rationale: Oropharyngeal suction uses a Yankauer or tonsillar tip suction device to remove large amounts of thick mucus. This would be most appropriate for a patient who cannot clear her airway by herself and does not have an artificial airway.</p>

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14
Q

<p>A patient is in the intensive care unit after a thoracotomy and has subsequent hypoxia. Which of the following manifestations is an associated symptom of hypoxia?o 1Increased mentationo 2Feeling of calmo 3Normal heart rate and rhythmo 4Lethargy</p>

A

<p>4 Rationale: The common symptom of hypoxia is lethargy. Patients exhibit anxiety and restlessness, not a feeling of calmness, with hypoxia. In addition, patients will have tachycardia and potential dysrhythmias secondary to hypoxia. Hypoxia can cause all patients to be confused with a diminished level of consciousness</p>

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15
Q

<p>A patient is receiving oxygen by nasal cannula. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching regarding oxygen therapy has been effective?o 1“I was feeling better, so I removed my oxygen.”o 2“I asked my spouse not to put Vaseline on my lips.”o 3“I can take off my oxygen to walk to the bathroom.”o 4“I do not want to be oxygen dependent, so I need continuous pulse oximetry.”</p>

A

<p>2 Rationale: Petroleum jelly products should not be used around oxygen because of the possibility of friction, which can cause a fire. Options 1, 3, and 4 demonstrate that the patient needs education.</p>

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16
Q

<p>A patient is to be placed on a ventilator. Which nursing action has been found to be most effective in reducing ventilator-associated pneumonia?A. Performing mouth care at least four times a dayB. Repositioning the patient every 2 to 3 hoursC. Assessing lung sounds every shiftD. Performing range-of-motion exercises three times a day</p>

A

<p>A. Performing mouth care at least four times a dayRationaleStudies have shown that frequent mouth care decreases the incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia. The other procedures are important to do, but they do not affect the incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia.</p>

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17
Q

<p>A patient needing chest physiotherapy finished his lunch at 1 PM. When is the soonest that he should receive postural drainage?o 130 minutes latero 2At 2 PMo 3Before his next snacko 4Right after dinner</p>

A

<p>2 Rationale: Postural drainage should be avoided for 1 to 2 hours after meals. If he finished his lunch at 1 PM, the soonest that postural drainage can be done is at 2 PM.</p>

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18
Q

<p>A patient needs an FiO2 of 80%. Which of these oxygen delivery devices can deliver oxygen at this FiO2 level? (Select all that apply.)o 1Nasal cannula at 6 L/mino 2Venturi mask at 12 L/mino 3Nonrebreathing mask at 6 L/mino 4Partial rebreathing mask at 6 L/min</p>

A

<p>2 Rationale: A Venturi mask is the only method of delivering an FiO2 of 80% with the stated liters per minute. The nasal cannula delivers 44% at most, the partial rebreather must be set at a minimum of 8 liters, and the nonrebreather must be set at a minimum of 6 liters.</p>

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19
Q

<p>A patient needs both the trachea and the oral pharynx suctioned. In which order should the nurse suction these areas and why? Place in correct order. o 1Suction the oral cavity lasto 2Suction the oral cavity firsto 3Suction nasotracheally firsto 4Suction nasotracheally last</p>

A

<p>1, 3 Rationale: There are usually fewer infectious microorganisms in the trachea compared with the mouth. Suction from the least contaminated to the most contaminated.</p>

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20
Q

<p>A patient with pneumonia has a major significant accumulation of thick secretions and requires chest physiotherapy (CPT). Which action by the nurse will help the patient clear respiratory secretions following CPT?o 1Set up a fluid intake schedule with a goal of 1500 mL/dayo 2Have patient use his incentive spirometer twice each shifto 3Ambulate patient as much as possible to prevent stasiso 4Encourage patient to take several warm showers every day</p>

A

<p>1 Rationale: To help liquefy secretions, patients need a minimum of 1500 mL daily unless contraindicated by other physiologic problems. Setting up a fluid intake schedule would best help alleviate this problem</p>

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21
Q

<p>A patient with pulmonary edema had BiPAP started 30 minutes ago. The nurse should inform the patient that he will undergo which diagnostic test shortly?A. Arterial blood gasB. Chest X-rayC. Pulmonary function testD. Pulse oximetry reading</p>

A

<p>A. Arterial blood gasRationaleWhen a patient is placed on noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (BiPAP), it is necessary to evaluate the oxygenation and ventilation status of the patient. Although an arterial blood gas is an invasive procedure, it is important to know the patient's oxygen and carbon dioxide levels. Chest X-ray will provide information on fluid overload, and a pulmonary function test is inappropriate when a patient is acutely ill. A pulse oximetry reading would yield information on oxygenation.</p>

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22
Q

<p>At the beginning of the shift, you have only one critical care bed available. During your shift, you receive calls for assistance on the following patients:• Patient A has burns on her face, scalp, and chest and is coughing up sputum with black streaks.• Patient B has pneumonia and has suddenly become confused.• Patient C is short of breath and complaining that he can’t breathe. His skin is cool and moist, and he is coughing up clear sputum with small bubbles in it.• Which patient would you admit to the critical care bed? Why?</p>

A

<p>All of these patients have problems affecting oxygenation that may require admission to a critical care bed. Consider which patient is at immediate risk. When immediate risk isconsidered, patient C is the correct answer.</p>

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23
Q

<p>begins when the diaphragm contractsand the chest cavity is pulled downward.</p>

A

<p>Inhalation</p>

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24
Q

<p>both \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ report to the respiratory center in the brainstem</p>

A

<p>chemoreceptors and lung receptors</p>

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25
Q

<p>causes a low level of dissolved carbon dioxide in the blood, called hypocarbia (also called hypocapnia).</p>

A

<p>Hyperventilation</p>

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26
Q

<p>causes an excess of dissolved carbon dioxide in the blood, called hypercarbia (also called hypercapnia).</p>

A

<p>Hypoventilation</p>

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27
Q

<p>Chemoreceptors</p>

A

<p>detect changes in blood pH, O2, and CO2 levels,</p>

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28
Q

<p>Chemoreceptors located</p>

A

<p>medulla of the brainstem, the carotid arteries, and the aorta</p>

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29
Q

<p>During chest physiotherapy (CPT) the patient's oxygen saturation goes from 96 to 90. Which action should the nurse take initially? o 1Check patient's vital signso 2Stop the CPT session for that timeo 3Stop and ask patient how he feelso 4Listen to patient's lungs</p>

A

<p>3 Rationale: The oxygen saturation levels are reasonable considering what is being done to the patient. If the patient says he feels all right, continue with the therapy while continuing to monitor him. If the patient doesn't feel well, stop the session and assess further.</p>

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30
Q

<p>How can you ensure that the suction catheter enters the trachea and not the esophagus?</p>

A

<p>• Insert the catheter into the pharynx.• Advance it into the trachea during inspiration.• Once the suction catheter enters the trachea, it will stimulate coughing. If the catheter is not advanced on inspiration, it will enter the esophagus and may trigger gagging or vomiting.</p>

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31
Q

<p>Humidification is added to a nasal cannula when the flow is set at:o 11 L/min.o 22 L/min.o 33 L/min.o 44 L/min.</p>

A

<p>4 Rationale: When the oxygen rate is 4 L/min or greater, humidification is needed to prevent drying of the nasal mucous membrane. Under 4 L the moisture can be provided by the nasal passages.</p>

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32
Q

<p>Hypoventilation severe enough to cause hypercarbia is usually associated with hypoxemia because</p>

A

<p>inadequate amounts of oxygen are inhaled.</p>

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33
Q

<p>hypoxic central nervous system tissue causes</p>

A

<p>abnormal brain functioning (e.g., altered level of consciousness),</p>

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34
Q

<p>hypoxic limb tissue results in</p>

A

<p>abnormal muscle functioning (e.g., muscle weakness and pain with exercise).</p>

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35
Q

<p>hypoxic renal tissue causes</p>

A

<p>abnormal kidney functioning (e.g., poor urine output</p>

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36
Q

<p>Identify at least five signs that you may observe in a patient experiencing dyspnea.</p>

A

<p>• Nasal flaring• Head bobbing• Retractions• Use of accessory muscles during inspiration• Grunting• Orthopnea• Inability to speak complete sentences without stopping to breathe (conversational dyspnea)• Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea• Stridor• Wheezing</p>

37
Q

<p>Identify at least three nursing interventions to pro- mote optimal respiratory function in a hospitalized patient with chronic lung disease.</p>

A

<p>• Annual influenza vaccination• Annual pneumonia vaccination• Frequent position changes to keep all areas of lungs well ventilated• Incentive spirometry 10 to 20 times per hour• Positioning upright for meals</p>

38
Q

<p>Identify normal PO2, SaO2, and PCO2 levels.</p>

A

<p>• PO2, 80 to 100 mm Hg• SaO2, 95% to 100%• PCO2,35to45mmHg</p>

39
Q

<p>In assessing the adequacy of oxygen therapy, which of the following is most effective? o 1Checking the color of mucous membraneso 2Counting the respiratory rateo 3Measuring pulse oximetryo 4Auscultating lung sounds</p>

A

<p>3 Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures arterial saturation immediately. Options 1 and 2 do not address the adequacy of oxygenation. Option 4 provides information about the presence of secretions or airway narrowing but not about the adequacy of oxygen therapy</p>

40
Q

<p>In which structures of the lung does gas exchange take place?</p>

A

<p>type I alveolar cells</p>

41
Q

<p>Information from chemoreceptors and lung receptors</p>

A

<p>adjust ventilation accordingly</p>

42
Q

<p>inserted to remove air or fluid from the pleural space so that the lungs can fully expand.</p>

A

<p>A chest tube</p>

43
Q

<p>lung receptors, located in the lung and chest wall, are sensitive</p>

A

<p>to breathing patterns, lung expansion, lung compliance, airway resistance, and respiratory irritants.</p>

44
Q

<p>Major risks to oxygenation for children:</p>

A

<p>incomplete development of lungsweak immune systemaspiration drowning</p>

45
Q

<p>Major risks to oxygenation for older adults:</p>

A

<p>costal cartridge begins to calcifyless recoil of lungsloss of elasticity of alveolicough reflex is less effectivedecreased ciliaexhalation less effectivedecreased immune response</p>

46
Q

<p>Name the oxygen delivery method that is appropri- ate for the following patients:A patient prescribed to receive 2 L/min of oxygenA patient who complains of being claustrophobic and requires low-flow humidified oxygenA patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with an order for oxygen at an FIO2 of 24%A patient who wants to avoid intubation but requires an FIO2 of 100%</p>

A

<p>Nasal cannulaFace tentVenturi maskNonrebreather mask</p>

47
Q

<p>Nasopharyngeal airways should be used on patients</p>

A

<p>who are semiconscious; they can tolerate nasal air- ways because they do not stimulate the gag reflex.</p>

48
Q

<p>Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NIPPV) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ without the need for an artificial airway. Fill in the blank.</p>

A

<p>Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NIPPV) maintains positive airway pressure and improves alveolar ventilation without the need for an artificial airway.</p>

49
Q

<p>normal value of SAO2</p>

A

<p>95% to 100%.</p>

50
Q

<p>occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, allowing the chest and lungs to return to their normal resting size.</p>

A

<p>Exhalation</p>

51
Q

<p>Oropharyngeal airways should be used only in</p>

A

<p>unconscious patients because they are likely to trigger gagging, vomiting, or laryngospasm when airway reflexes are intact.</p>

52
Q

<p>Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is</p>

A

<p>respiratory distress that awakens someone at night during sleep - related to posture</p>

53
Q

<p>patient with an oxygen mask with a reservoir bag is seen while making initial rounds. Which problem might the patient experience if the reservoir bag becomes deflated?o 1Elevated oxygen levelso 2Elevated carbon dioxide levelso 3Drying of the nasal mucous membraneso 4Decrease in the number of respirations</p>

A

<p>2 Rationale: If the reservoir is deflated, the patient can breathe large amounts of carbon dioxide.</p>

54
Q

<p>Patients are unable to speak when they have an ET tube in place. What is the recommended method to communicate with these patients?o 1Talk to patients as if they have a hearing loss by speaking very loudly.o 2Leave a pen and paper within reach to allow them to write comments.o 3Provide a communication board such as an alphabet board for family to communicate with patient.o 4Ask family members to explain the plan of care to the patient.</p>

A

<p>2, 3 Rationale: When caring for an intubated patient, nurses are encouraged to use verbal and nonverbal communication. Alphabet charts, pen and paper, slates or chalkboards, and computers are some common communication tools. Intubated patients do not have a hearing loss; thus speaking loudly may frustrate them and does not promote communication. Families can speak to the patient, but the patient still needs a mechanism of communication.</p>

55
Q

<p>Patients who have a pneumothorax have which type of chest tube?o 1Pleural tubes placed in the second or third intercostal spaceo 2Pleural tubes placed in the fifth or sixth intercostal spaceo 3Pleural tubes placed laterallyo 4Pleural tubes placed posteriorly</p>

A

<p>1 Rationale: Apical (second or third intercostal space) and anterior chest tube placement promotes removal of air.</p>

56
Q

<p>Patients with chest tubes that remove bloody drainage from the chest cavity usually are at risk for respiratory problems. These patients have many care priorities. What are two important priorities related to management of the chest tube system?o 1Monitoring chest tube drainage and maintaining chest tube patencyo 2Monitoring chest tube drainage and promoting activityo 3Promoting airway clearance and maintaining chest tube patencyo 4Promoting activity and airway clearance</p>

A

<p>1 Rationale: Monitoring chest tube drainage and maintaining chest tube patency are the key priorities when a patient has a chest tube.</p>

57
Q

<p>PCO2 values fall.</p>

A

<p>In hyperventilation, large amounts of carbon dioxide diffuse into the alveoli and are exhaled into the air,</p>

58
Q

<p>PCO2 values rise.</p>

A

<p>In hypoventilation, less carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli for exhalation, leaving more carbon dioxide in the arterial blood,</p>

59
Q

<p>Pharyngeal suctioning clears secretions</p>

A

<p>that have collected in the back of the throat.</p>

60
Q

<p>provides the primary stimulus to breathe.</p>

A

<p>blood CO2 level</p>

61
Q

<p>Respiration is</p>

A

<p>gas (carbon dioxide and oxygen) exchange.</p>

62
Q

<p>SaO2 reflects</p>

A

<p>the percentage of hemoglobin molecules carrying oxygen.</p>

63
Q

<p>secondary drive to breathe</p>

A

<p>hypoxemia. Low blood O2 levels stimulate breath- ing to get more oxygen into the lungs.</p>

64
Q

<p>small amount of air is moved into and out of the lungs, which is caused by a decreased rate and/or depth of breathing.</p>

A

<p>Hypoventilation</p>

65
Q

<p>The level of which gas (oxygen or carbon dioxide) is the primary stimulant for breathing?</p>

A

<p>Carbon dioxide</p>

66
Q

<p>The nurse is assisting the health care provider with removal of a chest tube. Which of the following statements is incorrect?o 1The patient must be in a prone position to complete the chest tube removal.o 2The nurse administers the ordered analgesia 30 minutes before the procedure.o 3The nurse provides emotional support during tube insertion.o 4The nurse has suction available.</p>

A

<p>1 Rationale: The patient must not be in a prone position to complete the chest tube removal. The skill reads to help patient sit on edge of bed or lie supine or on the side without chest tubes. The following statements are true related to chest tube removal: The nurse administers the ordered analgesia 30 minutes before the procedure. The nurse offers emotional support during tube insertion. The nurse has suction available.</p>

67
Q

<p>The nurse is caring for a patient with a new chest tube. The patient is anxious and fearful of taking pain medications because he knows that he needs to be active, take deep breaths, and cough. Which action is the best for the nurse to take to address this fear?o 1Tell him that the medication will make him sleepyo 2Explain that by controlling pain he will be able to be active and cough wello 3Notify the health care providero 4Give him the medication anyway</p>

A

<p>2 Rationale: Explaining that by controlling pain he will be able to be active and cough well is a true statement. However, there is no guarantee that the medication will not make him sleepy.</p>

68
Q

<p>The nurse is caring for a patient with an artificial airway whose pulse oximeter reading drops from 90% to 85%. What is the priority nursing action?o 1Check for the presence of a pulseo 2Assess for an adequate blood pressureo 3Check for a patent airwayo 4Check the connections of the oxygen supply</p>

A

<p>3 Rationale: Whenever there is a drop in the patient's oxygen saturation, the patency of the patient's airway should be assessed for an open airway. This follows the ABCs of cardiopulmonary assessment.</p>

69
Q

<p>Tracheal suctioning clears secretions</p>

A

<p>that have entered the lower airways.</p>

70
Q

<p>Use of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (CPAP or BiPAP) has the potential to cause carbon dioxide retention in selected patients. Patients with which of the following underlying diagnoses are at greatest risk for carbon dioxide retention?A. Heart failureB. Pulmonary fibrosisC. Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseD. Pulmonary edema</p>

A

<p>C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseasePatients diagnosed with COPD who have ventilatory failure are at risk to retain carbon dioxide. Patients with heart failure, pulmonary fibrosis, or pulmonary edema are at greatest risk for oxygen failure.</p>

71
Q

<p>Ventilation is</p>

A

<p>the movement of air into and out of the lungs through the act of breathing.</p>

72
Q

<p>What are the effects of very high carbon dioxide levels on the nervous system?</p>

A

<p>anesthetic effect on the nervous system and can lead to somnolence progressing to coma and death, a syndrome known as carbon dioxide narcosis.</p>

73
Q

<p>What are the effects of very low carbon dioxide levels on the nervous system?</p>

A

<p>stimulating effect on the nervous system and lead to muscle twitching or spasm (especially in the hands and feet) and numbness and tingling in the face and lips.</p>

74
Q

<p>What are the three main expected outcomes after a chest tube has been inserted?1. Breath sounds are noted in all lobes.2. The patient's vital signs and oxygen saturation are within normal limits.3. The patient complains of chest discomfort.4. The patient's breathing is nonlabored.</p>

A

<p>C. 1, 2, 4RationaleExpected outcomes of chest tube insertion include breath sounds noted in all lobes, vital signs and oxygen saturation within normal limits, and breathing that is nonlabored. Complaints of chest discomfort are not expected. The patient may need analgesia for this complaint or may have to undergo further assessment by the health care provider.</p>

75
Q

<p>What areas should you include in a nursing history for a patient with oxygenation concerns who is undergoing a comprehensive assessment?</p>

A

<p>• Demographic data• Health history• Respiratory history• Cardiovascular history • Environmental history • Lifestyle</p>

76
Q

<p>What does surfactant do for alveoli?</p>

A

<p>substance that lowers the surface tension inside alveoli and prevents their walls from being drawn together. Adequate levels are key to preventing alveolar collapse and allowing alveolar expansion during breathing.</p>

77
Q

<p>What environmental and lifestyle factors that influence ventilation can be avoided or minimized?</p>

A

<p>• Poor nutrition• Obesity• Sedentary lifestyle • Smoking• Substance abuseTo a lesser extent, exposure to poor air quality, altitude, temperature extremes, and stress can be minimized.</p>

78
Q

<p>what is dyspnea</p>

A

<p>shortness of breath, labored breathing</p>

79
Q

<p>what is orthopnea</p>

A

<p>breathing difficulty while lying down, received by sitting or standing</p>

80
Q

<p>What is the purpose of mechanical ventilation?</p>

A

<p>Mechanical ventilation assists a patient to breathe. It can merely assist breathing or breathe entirely for the patient.</p>

81
Q

<p>what tool is used to give a noninvasive estimate of arterial blood oxygen saturation (SaO2)</p>

A

<p>Pulse oximetry</p>

82
Q

<p>What types of injuries are most likely to cause oxy- genation problems?</p>

A

<p>• Injuries to the chest wall• Injuries to the CNS that may affect regulation of breathing• Injuries that may be associated with embolus formation</p>

83
Q

<p>Whenever an airway is inserted (intubation), the following facts should be recorded:</p>

A

<p>• The type and size inserted• The patient’s response to the insertion• Once the airway is in place, that breath sounds were heard (to establish that both lungs are ventilated)• Periodic reassessment of breath sounds, as part of airway maintenance</p>

84
Q

<p>Which of the following are necessary to prepare the patient for postural drainage? Choose all that apply.A. Encourage fluid intake of 1500 to 2000 mL.B. Explain the procedure and positioning techniques.C. Schedule treatment 1 to 2 hours after meals.D. Coordinate treatments with other respiratory or medical therapies.</p>

A

<p>A. Encourage fluid intake of 1500 to 2000 mL.B. Explain the procedure and positioning techniques.C. Schedule treatment 1 to 2 hours after meals.D. Coordinate treatments with other respiratory or medical therapies.RationaleCoordinating therapy around a patient's meals and activities reduces the risks for aspiration, conflict with other therapies, and fatigue. In addition, adequate fluid intake helps to liquefy secretions so the patient can easily clear them. As always, informing patients of any therapy promotes cooperation and decreases anxiety.</p>

85
Q

<p>Which of the following are signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax? Choose all that apply.A. Distended neck veinsB. HypotensionC. HypertensionD. Tachycardia</p>

A

<p>A. Distended neck veinsB. HypotensionD. TachycardiaDistended neck veins, hypotension, and tachycardia are cardinal signs of a tension pneumothorax. Option "C," hypertension, is not normally seen in a tension pneumothorax.</p>

86
Q

<p>Why is oxygen humidified?</p>

A

<p>Oxygen is humidified to prevent drying of the airway mucosa and to keep secretions thin.</p>

87
Q

<p>You are preparing to observe a patient with COPD perform incentive spirometry exercises. With which of the following steps is the patient likely to have difficulty?o 1Placing the mouthpiece correctlyo 2Being able to hold breath for 3 seconds after inhalationo 3Being able to blow quickly into the deviceo 4Performing incentive spirometry three times for each reading</p>

A

<p>2 Rationale: A patient with COPD often has difficulty holding the breath at the end of inhalation. There is no reason the patient would not be able to hold the mouthpiece. Patients do not blow into an incentive spirometer. Three readings are made with a peak flow meter.</p>

88
Q

<p>You hear a pulse oximeter alarm sound in a nearby patient room and find it reading 75%.• What observations should you make?What actions should you take?</p>

A

<p>The first action that should be taken is to observe the patient for signs of altered breathing pattern or poor oxygenation. Does the patient appear to be in any distress? What is the patient’s level of consciousness?If the patient is alert and is in no apparent distress, the probe may have become dislodged. Check the site and the application. If the patient is in distress, he will need immediate intervention. The intervention will depend on the nature of the patient’s condition.</p>

89
Q

<p>• 1A patient arrives on the nursing unit because of a sudden onset of dyspnea. Which assessment data would the nurse expect to find?1 A respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min2Cyanosis3Clubbing of the fingers4A regular breathing pattern</p>

A

<p>1 Rationale: A respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min could be seen in a dyspneic patient. All of the other options would be seen when hypoxia has been present for a long period of time.</p>