Reproductive System Flashcards

1
Q

What does the male reproductive anatomy consist of?

A

Testicle, epididymis, ductus deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are the testes located?

A

descends from near kidney to scrotum by birth or soon after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In some lab animals where will the testes lie?

A

within the inguinal canal naturally at maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does “High flanker” mean?

A

testes are in canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does “Cryptorchid” mean?

A

testes in abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the testicle used for?

A

site of daily sperm formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many sperm cells do dogs make in a day?

A

millions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many sperm cells do cats make in a day?

A

50-100 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many sperm cells do bulls, rams make in a day?

A

billions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many sperm cells do horses make in a day?

A

3.5- 6 billion a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many sperm cells do dogs make for insemination need?

A

125 million (breed every other day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many sperm cells do cats make for insemination need?

A

50-100 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many sperm cells do bulls make for insemination need?

A

20-30 million (60 inseminations/ejaculate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many sperm cells do horses make for insemination need?

A

500 million (6 inseminations/ejaculate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the epididymis used for?

A

sperm mature and are stored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What can the ductus deferens also called?

A

Vas deferens and deferent duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the ductus deferens used for?

A

conducts sperm to urethra for ejaculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is the deferent artery located?

A

vein along the ductus deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the testicular artery?

A

vein to the testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a Pampiniform Plexus?

A

vein contoured to form a cooling system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the Pampiniform Plexus do?

A

takes heat out of the artery to the testicle to help the testicle remain cool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why should the testicle be kept cool?

A

it is important to sperm production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The testicular vein grabs the what and takes it back to the body leaving what to reach the testicle?

A

heat, cooler arterial blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the Cremaster muscle do?

A

raises and lowers the testicle to help maintain optimum temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens with the Cremaster muscle in some species?

A

draws the testicle into the canal or even abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A cryptorchid animals may have the testicle located where?

A

the path of travel from the kidney to the canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When should the testicle in a cryptorchid animal be removed?

A

at castration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens if the testicle in a cryptorchid animal is not removed?

A

it can still produce sperm and the apparently “castrated” animal will still be fertile and exhibit male characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does a testicle living in the abdomen with a high temperature cause?

A

it can cause it become cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do accessory sex glands contribute to in males?

A

fluid to semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do accessory sex glands in males cause?

A

motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Accessory dex glands in males have volume for what?

A

transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Accessory sex glands in males have nutrition to what?

A

sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Accessory sex glands in males buffer against what?

A

acidic female tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ductus passes through what before reaching urethra?

A

ampullae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In what animals are ampullae found in?

A

bull, stallion, ram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In what animal is the ampullae small?

A

dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where do seminal vesicles empty with ductus deferent into?

A

urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where are seminal vesicles located?

A

lie next to ampullae dorsal to bladder in caudal abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In what animals are seminal vesicles located?

A

bull, stallion, ram, boar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where is the prostate located?

A

surrounds urethra distal to neck of bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In what animals can the prostate be found?

A

all species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Enlargement of the prostate does what?

A

causes pain, interferes with urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In what species does enlargement of the prostate especially interfere with urination?

A

dogs and humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is bulbourethral?

A

Cowper’s gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is the bulbourethral located?

A

distal to prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In what animals can the bulbourethral be found in?

A

cat, bull, horse, boar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does the Cremaster muscle do?

A

raises and lowers the testicle for temperature control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When is the testicle lower?

A

during warm environmental temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is the testicle closer to the body?

A

in cold temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a penis?

A

cavernous tissue fills with blood to cause erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a prepuce?

A

haired sheath covering penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a scrotum?

A

haired sack containing the testicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the four parts of a sperm?

A

head, neck, mid piece, and tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does the head of a sperm contain?

A

nucleus, 1/2 chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the mid piece of a sperm?

A

the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does the mid piece of a sperm provide?

A

ATP energy for motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does the tail do in a sperm?

A

provides motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Alterations in sperm structure are associated with what?

A

infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In cattle abnormalities are divided into what categories?

A

major and minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

15% major abnormalities are due to what?

A

questionable breeder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

30% minor abnormalities are due to what?

A

questionable breeder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

10% of abnormal head, mid piece, and tail is used means what in cats?

A

BAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

15% of abnormal head, mid piece, and tail is used means what in dogs?

A

BAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Head abnormalities cannot exceed what?

A

10-12%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are cytoplasmic droplets?

A

bits of cell fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where are cytoplasmic droplets located and where do they go?

A

at head and work way down tail with maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What can cytoplasmic droplets affect?

A

motility (therefore fertility)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Cytoplasmic droplets means what?

A

sperm kicked out of epididymis too early because of overuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Semen was okay and now after use cytoplasmic droplets was seen what should solve the problem?

A

sexual rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When something is wrong developmentally with cytoplasmic droplets it is usually seen when?

A

after the animal has been rested sexually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Motility can also mean what?

A

fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Motility means what?

A

forward progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Some abnormalities shown inhibit what?

A

forward movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Movement through the female tract are enhanced by what?

A

uterine contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Uterine contractions are stimulated by what?

A

mating process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Capacitation means what?

A

increased metabolic activity of sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When does Capacitation occur?

A

over time as sperm remain in female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What happens in Capacitation?

A

breakdown of outer coverings of sperm head, enzymes to penetrate ovum are released, leads to fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Many sperm are needed to alter the protective covering around the egg to allow fertilization but only one what?

A

sperm fertilizes the egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How long is sheep sperm viable in female reproductive tract?

A

2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How long are cows sperm viable in female reproductive tract?

A

1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How long are horses sperm viable in female reproductive tract?

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How long is human sperm viable in female reproductive tract?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What 4 factors does Sperm formation occur?

A

FSH, LH, Testosterone, and Photoperiod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is FSH?

A

follicle stimulating hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is LH

A

luteinizing hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is photoperiod?

A

of hours of daylight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What gland produces FSH and LH?

A

pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

FSH initiates what?

A

spermatogenesis in testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

LH triggers what?

A

testosterone release by testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Testosterone and FSH causes what?

A

sperm to mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Sperm production involves how long of a cycle?

A

60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

50 out of the 60 days in sperm production happens is to what?

A

testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

10 out of the 60 days in sperm production is to what?

A

epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How long does it take to recover production from inflammation of the testicles?

A

2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does testosterone also cause?

A

secondary male sex characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are some secondary male sex characteristics?

A

massive head, less fat, increased size, behaviors such as marking and aggression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How many ovaries is there?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Where are ovaries located?

A

near kidney usually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Where are the ovaries located in cows?

A

near brim of pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are some other names for Oviduct?

A

uterine tube or fallopian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What does the fallopian tube have at the edge of infundibulum?

A

fimbriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are fimbriae used for?

A

to capture egg after it ovulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does the fallopian tube do?

A

transports egg to uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What occurs in the fallopian tubes?

A

fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What does the uterus consist of?

A

2 uterine horns, 1 body, and 1 cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What occurs in the uterus?

A

fetal growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Uterus and ovaries are supported by what?

A

broad ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is a broad ligament?

A

a fold of peritoneum that wraps around the reproductive tract?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Mesometrium

A

uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Mesovarium

A

ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Mesosalpinx

A

uterine tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What does the suspensory ligament of ovary do?

A

fixes ovary to body wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What does the round ligament do?

A

extends through lateral broad ligament to body wall at the internal inguinal ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is a problem in some species during partition?

A

vaginal tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Where is the vestibule located?

A

between vagina and vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Where does the urethra empty?

A

into urethral tubercle via urethral orifice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the urethra a landmark for?

A

placing a urethral catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Urethral orifice marks boundary between what?

A

vestibule and vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Urine pooling is a what and causes what?

A

conformation problem, causes infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is a vulva?

A

outer genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Signs of heat occur where in the female?

A

vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

One or more follicles develop on one or more ovaries depending on what?

A

species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

FSH from pituitary stimulates what?

A

one cell to enlarge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Monotocous

A

1 cell enlarges, inhibits formation of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Polytocous

A

several cells enlarge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

As follicle matures, what develops?

A

fluid-filled cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is it called when a follicle matures and a fluid-filled cavity develops?

A

graffian follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What does the fluid in the graffian follicle contain?

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Follicle bulges to where?

A

outside of ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

LH from pituitary causes what?

A

ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Fimbriae does what?

A

brings egg to oviduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are fimbriae?

A

fringed end of the infundibulum which is the opening of the oviduct that wraps around the outside of the ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

+/- Corpus hemorrhagicum forms where?

A

on the ovary

136
Q

When does +/- Corpus hemorrhagicum form?

A

after ovulation if a blood vessel has ruptured

137
Q

LH causes what?

A

cells around cavity to multiply and fill cavity

138
Q

What else can the LH be called?

A

corpus luteum

139
Q

What does corpus luteum produce?

A

progesterone

140
Q

What does progesterone maintain?

A

pregnancy

141
Q

If not pregnant, corpus luteum does what?

A

regresses later

142
Q

Failure of follicle to rupture

A

cystic ovary

143
Q

high estrogen therefore symptoms of what?

A

constant heat

144
Q

Failure of corpus luteum to regress causes what?

A

infertility, high progesterone therefore body thinks is PG, no heat cycle, pseudopregnancy

145
Q

Monestrous

A

1 heat cycle/year

146
Q

Polyestrous

A

constant cycle

147
Q

Seasonally polyestrous

A

many cycles at certain season

148
Q

What animal is monestrous?

A

dogs

149
Q

Which animals are polyestrous?

A

cows, mares, sows, primates

150
Q

Which animals are seasonally polyestrous?

A

cat and ewe

151
Q

What are the 5 stages of the estrous cycle?

A

proestrus, estrus, metestrus, diestrus, anestrus

152
Q

What happens during the proestrous stage?

A

“build-up” Increased FSH, decreased LH from pituitary

153
Q

What forms during the pro estrous stage?

A

follicles

154
Q

Estrogen production in follicular fluid is absorbed into what?

A

blood causing “build-up”

155
Q

What happens when estrogen production in follicular fluid is absorbed into the blood causing “build-up”?

A

vaginal wall thickens, uterine vascularity increases, vaginal smear can detect changes

156
Q

What happens during the estrous stage?

A

heat

157
Q

What is heat determine by?

A

high estrogen levels

158
Q

How can heat be detected?

A

with behavior, tease, vaginal smell

159
Q

Ovulation times to occur during or soon after what?

A

heat

160
Q

Decreases what, increased what causes ovulation?

A

decreased FSH and increased LH

161
Q

What are the 2 types of ovulators?

A

spontaneous and induced

162
Q

What ovulators happen regardless of breeding?

A

spontaneous

163
Q

In what animals does spontaneous ovulators occur?

A

cow, sow, ewe, goat, mare, bitch, primates, mouse, rat, guinea pig

164
Q

In induced ovulators breeding stimulates what gland to produce LH peak?

A

pituitary

165
Q

What ovulator may take several breeding for enough LH for ovulation?

A

induced

166
Q

If not bred in induced ovulator, what does the ovum do?

A

generally regresses

167
Q

In what animals does induced ovulators occur?

A

cat, rabbit, ferret, mink, camel, llama, alpaca

168
Q

In induced ovulators, problems occur if what?

A

not bred and ovum does regress

169
Q

The persistent what causes severe depression of bone marrow resulting in what?

A

high estrogen and aplastic anemia

170
Q

What should you do with ferrets that are not breeding?

A

spay

171
Q

What happens in metestrus stage?

A

corpus luteum functions to increase progesterone (and decrease estrogen)

172
Q

What does the metestrus stage promote change in?

A

uterus, vagina (smear can detect)

173
Q

What does the metestrus stage change support in?

A

implantation of fertilized ovum, nourishment of developing embryo, development of mammary gland

174
Q

When does the diestrus stage happen?

A

during breeding season of polyestrous female

175
Q

during diestrus stage, short period of inactivity happens before beginning what?

A

proestrus again

176
Q

When does anestrus stage happen?

A

between sexual seasons

177
Q

What happens during the anestrus stage?

A

long period of inactivity

178
Q

What is the diestrus stage related to?

A

photoperiod

179
Q

What may the diestrus stage equal length to?

A

gestation

180
Q

What is the gestation time for mares?

A

336 days = 11 months

181
Q

What is the gestation time for sows?

A

114 days = 3 months 3 weeks 3 days

182
Q

What is the gestation time for dogs and cats?

A

63 days = 2 months

183
Q

What is the gestation time for cows?

A

282 days = 9 months

184
Q

What is the gestation time for ewes?

A

150 days = 5 months

185
Q

What is the gestation time for guinea pigs?

A

68 days = 2 months

186
Q

guinea pigs are what at birth?

A

precocious

187
Q

What is the gestation time for rats?

A

23 days = 3 weeks+

188
Q

What is the gestation time for mice?

A

21 days = 3 weeks

189
Q

What is the gestation time for ferrets?

A

41-42 days = 1 month, 10 days

190
Q

What is the gestation period for chinchillas?

A

111 days = 3 months, 3 weeks

191
Q

ferrets are what at birth?

A

precocious

192
Q

What does precocious mean?

A

hair, teeth, eyes and ears are open

193
Q

What is the gestation time for rabbits?

A

33 days = 1 month

194
Q

What is the gestation time for gerbils?

A

23 days = 3 weeks+

195
Q

What is the gestation time for hamsters?

A

15 days = 2 weeks

196
Q

What does pseudopregnancy mean?

A

false pregnancy about same length as gestation

197
Q

Uterine changes resemble what?

A

pregnancy

198
Q

What happens during pseudopregnancy?

A

persistant CL, uterine changes, active mammary glands, behaviors as nesting, caring for stuffed animals

199
Q

What can result during uterine changes that resemble pregnancy?

A

pyometra and it can make the animal sick

200
Q

How long are eggs viable?

A

12 hours

201
Q

How long is sperm viable?

A

6/7 days depending on species

202
Q

How long is puberty in mares?

A

18 months

203
Q

Are mares polyestrous?

A

yes

204
Q

How long is the estrus length in mares?

A

6 days

205
Q

How long is foal heat?

A

9 days post partum

206
Q

What is silent heat?

A

ovulation without estrus signs

207
Q

What are some signs of estrus?

A

flag tail, urinate, wink vulva, stand to be mounted

208
Q

How long is puberty in cows?

A

varies with breed, ranges 4-25 months

209
Q

Are cows polyestrous?

A

yes

210
Q

How long is estrus length in cows?

A

18 hours

211
Q

Heat detection is extremely important in what?

A

cows

212
Q

What are some signs of estrus in cows?

A

stand to be mounted or mount other cattle

213
Q

How many female cows can 1 male cow mate with?

A

15-40 females depending on age/efficiency

214
Q

When may cows bleed in metestrus?

A

1-3 days

215
Q

When does puberty occur in ewes?

A

1st fall if well fed

216
Q

What kind of cycle do ewes have?

A

seasonally polyesters with long anestrus

217
Q

How many consecutive cycles can an ewe have?

A

1-20

218
Q

How long is estrus in ewes?

A

30 hours

219
Q

When does puberty occur in sows?

A

7 months, delayed with poor diet

220
Q

What kind of cycle do sows have?

A

polyestrous

221
Q

How long is estrus in sows?

A

40-46 hours

222
Q

How many ovas do sows ovulate?

A

16.4

223
Q

How long after weaning are sows fertile estrus?

A

7-9 days

224
Q

When does puberty occur in small bred bitches?

A

6-8 months

225
Q

When does puberty occur in large bred bitches?

A

1 1/2 years- 2 years

226
Q

What kind of cycle do bitches have?

A

monestrous

227
Q

When do bitches breed?

A

on 3rd heat, allow pelvis to grow

228
Q

What is a concern in young bitches used for breeding?

A

pelvis size

229
Q

What are signs of heat proestrus in bitches?

A

vulva swells, bleeding=RED

230
Q

What are signs of heat estrus in bitches?

A

decreased bleeding=straw colored, willing to stand for male to mount her, vaginal smears used

231
Q

How long is estrus in bitches?

A

up to 2 weeks

232
Q

Bitches breed on what days?

A

alternate

233
Q

On days 9, 11, and 13 bitches will do what?

A

won’t accept male

234
Q

What are signs of pseudopregnancy in bitches?

A

lactation, nesting, adoption

235
Q

How long is puberty in queens?

A

10 months

236
Q

What kind of cycle do queens have?

A

seasonally polyestrous, especially spring and fall

237
Q

How long is estrus in queens?

A

2-3 days

238
Q

What are signs of estrus in queens?

A

vocal, posturing (cat fights often are really breeding behavior instead)

239
Q

How many times of queens cycle?

A

2-3 x/ year

240
Q

When is it best to beed cats?

A

2nd or 3rd heat

241
Q

Gestation definintion

A

extends from fertilization of ovum to birth

242
Q

How many trimesters does gestation consist of?

A

3

243
Q

What is organogenesis?

A

first organ system formed is CNS, happens during 1st trimester

244
Q

What is critical in the 1st trimester?

A

time. major problems caused when things go wrong

245
Q

What does the embryo resemble at the end of the 1st trimester

A

adult

246
Q

What happens during the 2nd trimester?

A

fetal growth

247
Q

What happens during the 3rd trimester?

A

great increase in size. hair last 2 weeks

248
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

fallopian tube

249
Q

How long does the embryo remain in the oviduct?

A

days

250
Q

Cell division goes from cleavage to what and then what?

A

morula and then blastula in oviduct

251
Q

Where does blastula return to?

A

uterus

252
Q

What does implantation imply?

A

implies a deep penetration into the uterus endometrium to connective tissues beneath epithelium

253
Q

What does attachment imply?

A

less penetration, non-invasive cell to cell junctions between embryo tissues and uterine epithelium

254
Q

Nutrients derive from what prior to implantation/attachment?

A

yolk sac

255
Q

One yolk sac embeds in uterus, nutrients from dam via what?

A

placenta

256
Q

In what animals does implantation occur?

A

primates and rodents

257
Q

In what animals does attachment occur?

A

most domestic animals

258
Q

Placenta connects to fetus via what?

A

umbilicus

259
Q

What does placenta bring in close contact with maternal blood?

A

fetal blood

260
Q

What does the placenta have?

A

nutrients, O2, wastes diffuse across barrier

261
Q

Fetal blood always separated from maternal blood by at least one cells wall. The two bloods never do what?

A

mix

262
Q

Where does the placenta implant in horses and cows?

A

near bifurcation

263
Q

Where is placenta located in dogs, cats, and pigs?

A

spread out evenly in hours

264
Q

What are the 4 types of placentas?

A

discoidal, zonary, cotyledonary, and diffuse

265
Q

What is discoidal placenta?

A

attached in disk-shaped area

266
Q

What animals have discoidal placenta?

A

man, primates, some rodents

267
Q

What is zonary placenta?

A

attached in a girdle-like band

268
Q

What animals have a zonary placenta?

A

dogs and cats

269
Q

What is cotyledonary placenta?

A

“button” attachment with no placental attachment between buttons=placetome

270
Q

Maternal side

A

mushroom-like caruncles

271
Q

fetal side

A

villus projections into caruncle called cotyledons

272
Q

What animals have cotyledonary placenta?

A

ruminants as sheep, goats, and cows

273
Q

What is diffuse placenta?

A

fetal villi project into crypts scattered over entire endometrium of uterus

274
Q

What animals have diffuse placenta?

A

horses and pigs

275
Q

What two membranes surround the fetus?

A

allantoic sac and amniotic sac

276
Q

What is the allantoic sac?

A

outer water bag

277
Q

Where is the allantoic sac located?

A

fused to fetal placenta

278
Q

Which is the 1st water sac to rupture?

A

allantoic sac

279
Q

rupture of allantoic sac stimulates what?

A

uterine contractions

280
Q

What is amniotic sac?

A

inner water bag immediately around fetus

281
Q

What happens to the amniotic sac?

A

clean membranes away when born

282
Q

When fetus breathes or swallows what can happen?

A

amniotic sac membrane are sucked into stomach, trachea

283
Q

Fetus produces increased ACTH from its out pituitary which causes increased secretion of what from the fetus?

A

adrenal gland steroids

284
Q

Fetal what cause maternal uterus to secrete increased what?

A

adrenal gland steroids, PGF2a

285
Q

What is PGF2a?

A

prostaglandin

286
Q

What does PGF2a cause?

A

the release of oxytocin from maternal pituitary

287
Q

What does oxytocin cause?

A

uterine contractions

288
Q

increase abdomen size, increased mammary glands and begin to secrete, edema ventral abdomen, vulva swells, relaxation of abdominal wall, sinking tail head, restless , seeks seclusion, urinate often, build a nest, discharge cervical plug is lost are all signs of what?

A

impending labor

289
Q

What are the 3 stages of labor?

A

dilation of cervix, delivery of fetus, delivery of placenta

290
Q

What happens during the 1st stage of labor?

A

uterine contractions force water bag against cervix

291
Q

Can we see contractions form the outside?

A

no

292
Q

What is a sign that an animal is having a contraction?

A

looks at side, kicks at side

293
Q

How long do contractions last in cows and ewes?

A

2 to 6 hours

294
Q

How long do contractions last in mares?

A

1 to 4 hours

295
Q

How long do contraction last in sows?

A

2 to 12 hours

296
Q

What happens in the 2nd stage of labor?

A

presence of parts of fetus in vagina rupture of water bags cause contraction of abdominal muscles and straining

297
Q

What protects canals in ungulates?

A

“hoof caps”

298
Q

What happens to “hoof caps” after birth?

A

wear off soon after birth/ walking

299
Q

What can “hoof caps” help with?

A

telling if an animal got up after being born

300
Q

What happens in the 3rd stage of labor?

A

placenta normally follows fetus almost immediately

301
Q

What happens if the placenta is retained in the uterus too long?

A

infection

302
Q

What is a normal presentation of the fetus being born?

A

front feet first with head extended and nose between front feet, dorsal of fetus in contact with sacrum

303
Q

Dystocia

A

difficult birth

304
Q

What are some treatments for dystocia?

A

C-section is safest, fetotomy to save dam

305
Q

What is fetotomy?

A

cut up fetus

306
Q

How many mammary glands do bitch, sow, and queen have?

A

chain of glands

307
Q

How many mammary glands do mare, sheep, goats, and some rodents have?

A

inguinal pair (2)

308
Q

How many mammary glands do cows have?

A

inguinal 4

309
Q

How many mammary glands do anthropoids and elephants have?

A

pectoral pair (2)

310
Q

Mammary glandular system is what for each teat?

A

separate

311
Q

What does the mammary glandular system resemble?

A

lung tissue

312
Q

Hormones stimulate mammary gland alveoli to produce what?

A

milk

313
Q

Prolactin and growth hormone comes from what?

A

pituitary

314
Q

Adrenal corticoids come from what?

A

adrenal glands

315
Q

Oxytocin contracts what and causes what?

A

smooth muscle and causes milk letdown

316
Q

How is oxytocin released?

A

under influence of suckling, milking routine

317
Q

Letdown is inhibited by what?

A

emotionally disturbing stimuli as dogs barking, loud noise, pain, cold H2O is used to washed the udder

318
Q

What is colostrum?

A

first milk

319
Q

What does colostrum contain?

A

protein, cells, energy source, vitamins, minerals, water

320
Q

What proteins does colostrum contain?

A

albumins and globulins

321
Q

What energy sources does colostrum contain?

A

lipids, milk proteins, carbohydrates

322
Q

What lipids does the colostrum contain?

A

triglycerides

323
Q

What milk protein does the colostrum contain?

A

albumin

324
Q

What carbohydrates does the colostrum contain?

A

lactose- low in colostrum, higher in milk later

325
Q

What vitamins does the colostrum contain?

A

A and D

326
Q

What mincers does colostrum contain?

A

Iron

327
Q

What does colostrum provide?

A

passive immunity

328
Q

What is 1/2 life of colostral abs?

A

14-21 days

329
Q

Antibody levels can be high to do what?

A

interfere with vaccinations yet too low to protect against disease as the antibody levels decrease

330
Q

Why are some dairy young not allowed to nurse?

A

Johne’s Disease

331
Q

How is Johne’s Disease transmitted?

A

mother to offspring via fecal contamination

332
Q

When should nursing begin?

A

1-2 hours, 4-6 hours at the most

333
Q

How to tell if have nursed adequately?

A

check TP (total protein)

334
Q

Why would TP tell you anything?

A

When they nurse they consume protein which makes it into the blood

335
Q

What proteins were consumed with colostrum?

A

albumin and globulin

336
Q

Which are most important for immunity?

A

Globulins= antibodies to diseases to which dam has been exposed

337
Q

Which will be picked up the most on the TP test?

A

Albumins are the large proteins that provide osmotic pressure in the blood and serve to transport other molecules in the blood