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Anatomy > Digestive System > Flashcards

Digestive System Flashcards

1
Q

What anatomy makes up the mouth?

A

jaws, lips, tongue, palates, cheeks and teeth

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2
Q

What is the soft palate like in brachycephalic dogs or cats?

A

elongated or just in the way

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3
Q

What is the soft palate like in horses?

A

long soft palate normally placed ventral to epiglottis

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4
Q

Lymphoid tissues

A

tonsils

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5
Q

What do lymphoid tissues do?

A

monitor what goes in and try to protect

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6
Q

What do pigs have that allows pills and stomach tubes to get caught?

A

diverticulum

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7
Q

Where is the esophagus located?

A

dorsal to trachea

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8
Q

IV injections are made on the right side of the neck in the horse why?

A

because the esophagus is located on the left side of the neck

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9
Q

What two types of stomachs are there?

A

Simple stomach and Abomasum

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10
Q

What type of animals have simple stomachs?

A

nonruminants

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11
Q

What time of animals have abomasum?

A

ruminants

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12
Q

The small intestine contains what?

A

duodenum, jejunum and ileum

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13
Q

Where are some accessory glands located?

A

salivary glands, liver, and pancreas

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14
Q

What are some non ruminants?

A

dog, cat, and horses

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15
Q

What are functions of the teeth?

A

Prehension and Mastication

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16
Q

Prehension

A

grasping and slicing

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17
Q

what teeth are responsible for prehension?

A

incisors and canines

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18
Q

Mastication

A

grinding and chewing

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19
Q

What teeth are responsible for mastication?

A

molars and premolars

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20
Q

Mammals typically exhibit heterodonty except what?

A

sharks

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21
Q

heterodonty

A

various types of teeth specialized for different aspects of prehension and mastication

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22
Q

Scapanorhynchus

A

teeth appear to have crown, root, and neck of brachyodont tooth

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23
Q

how tall are Megalodon teeth?

A

0.5 in to 7 in in height

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24
Q

What types of teeth are there?

A

Brachyodont, Radicular Hypsodont, and Radicular Hypsodont

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25
Q

Brachyodont teeth

A

form and fully erupt

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26
Q

Brachyodont teeth occur in most what?

A

mammals

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27
Q

Radicular Hypsodont teeth

A

Grows until it forms a root

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28
Q

Radicular Hypsodont teeth only occur in what animal?

A

Horses

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29
Q

Radicular Hypsodont tooth is close rooted, meaning?

A

no new dental tissue created after root formation

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30
Q

Aradicular Hypsodont teeth

A

continuously erupting, never forms a root

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31
Q

Aradicular Hypsodont teeth are open rooted, meaning?

A

new dental tissues continue to form for the life of the animal as tooth erupts

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32
Q

What are some examples of Aradicular Hypsodont teeth?

A

Pig tusks, Rodent and rabbits; incisors and cheek teeth for some

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33
Q

What happens of the incisors and causes a continuous growth ?

A

Malocclusion

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34
Q

What can continuous growth of cheek teeth result in?

A

entrapment of tongue if arcades not aligned for wear

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35
Q

Which animals cheek teeth are brachyodont?

A

rats, mice, gerbils, and hamsters?

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36
Q

In animals whose teeth are brachyodont incisors are what?

A

aradicular hypsodont- so they grow forever

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37
Q

Which animals teeth are open rooted?

A

Guinea pigs, chinchillas, and rabbits

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38
Q

Crown

A

above gum

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39
Q

root

A

below gum

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40
Q

the crown and root are located in socket of bone called what?

A

alveolus

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41
Q

What are crowns and roots attached by?

A

periodontinum

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42
Q

neck

A

at gum line

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43
Q

dentin

A

main mass of the tooth

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44
Q

enamel

A

covers the dentin (hardest substance in body)

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45
Q

Enamel is irreplaceable because?

A

the ameloblasts that form enamel are lost following formation of the tooth

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46
Q

Cementum

A

Covers the root of brachyodont, extends root to crown in hypsodont

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47
Q

pulp

A

blood and nerve supply located in the dental cavity within the dentin

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48
Q

Occlusal surface

A

grinding surface, when contact opposing arcade come into wear

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49
Q

wear patterns are used to facilitate what?

A

aging of older animals

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50
Q

Medial surface

A

closer to the center of the arcade

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51
Q

distal surface

A

away from the center of the arcade

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52
Q

buccal surface

A

toward cheek

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53
Q

Labial surface

A

front of mouth

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54
Q

upper arcade

A

teeth in upper jaw

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55
Q

lower arcade

A

teeth in lower jaw

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56
Q

“when contacting the opposing arcade” means?

A

when the upper teeth contact the lower teeth and vice versa

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57
Q

Lingual surface

A

inner surface on lower arcade

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58
Q

palatal surface

A

inner surface on upper arcade

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59
Q

Maxillary arcade

A

upper arcade, also includes incisive bone

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60
Q

Mandibular arcade

A

lower arcade

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61
Q

diastema

A

gap in arch between the incisors and the cheek teeth

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62
Q

diphyodont

A

develop a set of deciduous teeth that fall out and are replaced with permanent teeth

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63
Q

All domestic animals are what?

A

diphyodont

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64
Q

other terms for deciduous teeth

A

baby teeth and milk teeth

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65
Q

erupt

A

growing teeth emerge from gums

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66
Q

Consisting times of eruption of teeth permit accurate what?

A

aging of young animals

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67
Q

Tall straight crown, no discernible neck, slowly erupting, incisors of horse, rodent, cheek teeth horse, some rodents are all anatomy of what?

A

hypsodont

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68
Q

crown, neck, ruminant incisors, dog and cat teeth, check teeth in rat, mouse, gerbil, hamster are all anatomy of what?

A

brachyodont

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69
Q

Incisors

A

front teeth

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70
Q

incisors have how many roots?

A

1

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71
Q

what animal lacks incisors?

A

cattle

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72
Q

what do cows have instead of incisors?

A

dense, keratinized dental pad

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73
Q

Llamas have what in their upper arcade?

A

dental pad and incisor 3

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74
Q

what is the llamas incisor 3 used for?

A

fighting

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75
Q

Central incisors

A

I1

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76
Q

Intermediate incisors

A

I2

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77
Q

Canine teeth

A

eyeteeth, bridle teeth, tusks

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78
Q

How many roots does the canine have?

A

1

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79
Q

Which animals lack canines?

A

cattle and sheep

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80
Q

In what animals can canines be well developed?

A

male horses

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81
Q

Canines are large in what animals?

A

pigs, especially boars

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82
Q

Premolars

A

cheek teeth

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83
Q

how many roots do premolars have?

A

1-3

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84
Q

First premolar is often absent in what animal?

A

horse

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85
Q

In horses the first premolar is smaller than others, if called what?

A

wolf tooth

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86
Q

When do premolars typically erupt in horses?

A

6 months

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87
Q

when are premolars shed in horses?

A

2 1/2 years

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88
Q

Upper arcade contains which premolars?

A

PM1 and PM2

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89
Q

Lower arcade contains which premolars?

A

PM2

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90
Q

premolars are missing from the lower arcade in which animal?

A

cats

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91
Q

Molars

A

Cheek teeth

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92
Q

how many roots does a molar have?

A

1-3

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93
Q

which teeth have no precursor deciduous teeth?

A

molars

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94
Q

Carnassial

A

lower 1st molar

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95
Q

How many deciduous teeth do dogs have?

A

28

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96
Q

How many deciduous teeth do cats have?

A

26

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97
Q

How many deciduous teeth do horses have?

A

24

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98
Q

How many deciduous teeth do cattle have?

A

20

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99
Q

How many permanent teeth do dogs have?

A

42

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100
Q

How many permanent teeth do cats have?

A

30

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101
Q

how many permanent teeth do horses have?

A

40-42

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102
Q

How many permanent teeth do cattle have?

A

32

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103
Q

What is a dental formula?

A

a written formula for the types of teeth each animal has

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104
Q

Formula for Permanent teeth

A

I, C, P, (or PM), M

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105
Q

Formula for Deciduous teeth

A

Di, Dc, Dp, Dm

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106
Q

What does information within parentheses represent?

A

one side of the mouth, upper and lower

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107
Q

What happens to the information in parentheses in the formula?

A

it is multiplied by 2

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108
Q

What is the deciduous dental formula for dog?

A

2(Di 3/3 Dc 1/1 Dp 3/3)= 28

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109
Q

What is the deciduous dental formula for cat?

A

2(Di 3/3 Dc 1/1 Dp 3/2)= 26

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110
Q

What is the deciduous dental formula for pig?

A

2(Di 3/3 Dc 1/1 Dp 4/4)= 32

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111
Q

What is the deciduous dental formula for horse?

A

2(Di 3/3 Dc 0/0 Dp 3/3)= 24

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112
Q

What is the deciduous dental formula for cow?

A

2(Di 0/4 Dc 0/0 Dp 3/3)= 20

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113
Q

What is the permanent dental formula for dog?

A

2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

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114
Q

What is the permanent dental formula for cat?

A

2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30

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115
Q

What is the permanent dental formula for pig?

A

2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 3/3)= 44

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116
Q

What is the permanent dental formula for horse?

A

2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3-4/3 M 3/3)= 40-42

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117
Q

What is the permanent dental formula for horse?

A

2(I 0/4 C 0/0 P 3/3 M 3/3)= 32

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118
Q

What age do permanent canines erupt in dogs and cats?

A

4-6 months

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119
Q

What age do central incisors erupt in cattle?

A

1 1/2-2 years

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120
Q

What age does the 1st intermediate incisors erupt in cattle?

A

2-2 1/2 years

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121
Q

What age does the 2nd intermediate incisors erupt in cattle?

A

3 years

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122
Q

What age does the 3rd intermediate incisors erupt in cattle?

A

3 1/2-4 years

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123
Q

What age do permanent molars erupt in feedlot cattle?

A

M1 5-6 months

M2 1-1 1/2 years

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124
Q

What age do permanent central incisors erupt in horses?

A

2 1/2 years

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125
Q

What age does the permanent 1st intermediate incisor erupt in horses?

A

3 1/2 years

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126
Q

What age does the permanent 2nd intermediate incisor erupt in horses?

A

4 1/2 years

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127
Q

Where are “hooks” located in horses?

A

lateral edge of upper corner incisor

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128
Q

What age do hooks appear in horses?

A

7 years

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129
Q

“Capped” teeth occur in what animal?

A

horses

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130
Q

What are “Capped” teeth?

A

shell of deciduous tooth remains on top of adult tooth

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131
Q

“Retained deciduous teeth” occurs especially in what animals?

A

dogs and cats

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132
Q

What does “retained deciduous teeth” cause?

A

malposition of erupting permanent teeth and resultant rubbing causes damage to permanent teeth

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133
Q

What kind of dental care do dogs and cats require?

A

daily brushing

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134
Q

How often should dogs and cats get dental scaling?

A

1-2 times yearly

135
Q

What kind of dental care do horses require?

A

float teeth to remove points

136
Q

Where do points occur in horses?

A

on upper outer and lower inner surfaces

137
Q

What do points do to horses?

A

lacerate cheeks and tongue making eating painful

138
Q

non ruminants are…?

A

simple stomached animals

139
Q

What kind of stomachs do non ruminants have?

A

glandular stomachs

140
Q

What are cardia and pylorus?

A

sphincters to control passage of food in and out

141
Q

What happens when duodenum full?

A

it holds pylorus closed until there is room for more food to pass to it from the stomach

142
Q

What do glands produce?

A

mucus, enzymes or enzyme precursors, HCl

143
Q

What does mucus do?

A

protects surfaces from acid

144
Q

What do enzymes do?

A

begin fat and protein digestion in the stomach

145
Q

What does HCl do?

A

kills bacteria and activates the enzyme precursors

146
Q

What does the inner stomach look like?

A

smooth, slimy, rural folds

147
Q

ruminants are…

A

single stomach with multiple comparts

148
Q

True glandular stomach is preceded by what?

A

3 diverticulae of esophagus

149
Q

what do we call the 3 diverticulae of esophagus?

A

stomachs or forestomachs

150
Q

What are the fore stomachs of the ruminant lined with?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

151
Q

Do the fore stomachs have glands?

A

no

152
Q

Cellulose containing food is soaked, digested by what?

A

microorganisms in the forestomachs

153
Q

Nursing animals have what to bypass the fore stomachs?

A

esophageal groove

154
Q

having an esophageal groove to bypass the fore stomachs occurs naturally by what?

A

sucking reflex

155
Q

What happens to nursing animals when they don’t have the sucking reflex?

A

it may place milk in the rumen by mistake

156
Q

What happens to nursing animals when the milk is accidentally placed in the rumen?

A

it sours because there is no way for it to be digested

157
Q

What does the animal not receive when the milk sours in the rumen?

A

nourishment

158
Q

What are the 3 fore stomachs?

A

reticulum, rumen, omasum

159
Q

What does the reticulum look like?

A

a honeycomb

160
Q

What happens to food in the 3 fore stomachs?

A

it mixes back and forth between the reticulum and the rumen before passing into the omasum and then on to the abomasum

161
Q

what is the abomasum?

A

true stomach

162
Q

Where is the reticulum located?

A

on left side, next to heart

163
Q

What is the surface of the reticulum covered with?

A

intersecting ridges making small boxes

164
Q

What drops into the reticulum?

A

hardware

165
Q

What occurs when wire, nails, etc penetrates diaphragm, pericardium and the heart in the reticulum?

A

“hardware disease”

166
Q

Where is the rumen located?

A

behind reticulum

167
Q

At what rate does the rumen contract?

A

4x/min to mix food

168
Q

Dorsal surface of rumen is what?

A

smooth

169
Q

ventral surface of rumen is what?

A

papillae covered

170
Q

What lives in the rumen?

A

bacteria

171
Q

what does the rumen do?

A

digest cellulose

172
Q

What does a cow do with its food?

A

re-chews food, re-salivates the food, re-swallows

173
Q

what do microbes produce once the cow re-chews, re-salivates, and re-swallows its food?

A

volatile fatty acids, water-soluble vitamins, more microbes

174
Q

What does the omasum look like?

A

spherical

175
Q

Where is the omasum located?

A

to the right of rumen/reticulum

176
Q

What do the “leaves” of the omasum do?

A

fill the inside of the sphere, grinds food, squeeze out water from food as it passed to the abomasum

177
Q

Where is the abomasum located?

A

on right side and ventral to omasum

178
Q

What does the abomasum resemble?

A

non ruminant stomach

179
Q

What does the inner abomasum look like?

A

smooth, slimy, rural folds

180
Q

What jobs does the abomasum perform?

A

the same jobs as non ruminant stomach, i.e. begins fat and protein digestion

181
Q

What three structures to replace teeth and stomach do chickens utilize?

A

Ingluvius, Proventriculus, Ventriculus

182
Q

Ingluvius

A

crop

183
Q

Proventriculus

A

glandular stomach

184
Q

Ventriculus

A

gizzard

185
Q

What does the ingluvius do?

A

stores food, soaks food

186
Q

What does the Proventriculus have?

A

enzymes for digesion

187
Q

What does the Ventriculus do?

A

provides the muscular component for mixing food and breakdown of food, contains grit to grind food

188
Q

What are the major jobs of the small intestine?

A

digestion and absorption

189
Q

The small intestine is lined with cells that produce what?

A

music, amylase, enzymes to activate secreted precursor enzymes

190
Q

Duodenum

A

1st part of small intestine

191
Q

What is the duodenum also called?

A

short mesentery

192
Q

jejunum

A

coils

193
Q

What is the jejunum also called?

A

long mesentery, gathered skirt

194
Q

Ileum

A

before cecum

195
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

muscle contractions that move food along

196
Q

What is important for absorption as they increase the surface area for absorption?

A

villi

197
Q

what destroys villi and causes diarrhea?

A

viruses

198
Q

Parvovirus destroys what?

A

crypt cells

199
Q

Coronavirus and TGE destroys what?

A

tips of villi

200
Q

in what animals does parvovirus occur?

A

dogs and cats

201
Q

What animals does coronavirus occur?

A

dogs

202
Q

What is TGE?

A

a coronavirus of pigs

203
Q

What delivers substances to major, minor duoendal papilla on intestinal wall where it empties

A

pancreas

204
Q

Amylase

A

carbohydrate digestion

205
Q

lipase

A

fat digestion

206
Q

protein digest

A

protein digestion

207
Q

bicarbonate ion

A

to establish pH 8

208
Q

what is pH 8 best for?

A

transport, absorption and enzyme action in intestine

209
Q

Liver delivers what?

A

bile

210
Q

where does the liver deliver bile?

A

major duodenal papilla

211
Q

where is bile emptied?

A

the small intestine

212
Q

What are some major jobs of the large intestine?

A

secrete mucus, water absorption, distention at rectum causes defecation

213
Q

in the horse, cellulose digestion resulting in production of fermentation and volatile fatty acids occurs where?

A

in the cecum and ascending colon

214
Q

Fatty acids occurring in the cecum and ascending colon in the horse are absorbed in the remaining colon and provides what?

A

an important energy source to the horse

215
Q

Basic parts of the large intestine

A

cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon

216
Q

In the cow and pig the ascending colon is also called what?

A

ansa spiralis or spiral colon

217
Q

the pig has the same name for ascending colon but it is differently shaped

A

cone-shaped

218
Q

What is the cecum like in the horse?

A

large, extends from pelvis to sternum on the midline

219
Q

how else is the cecum like in the horse?

A

sacculated and has fibrous bands along it

220
Q

sacculated means?

A

pouches, out pocketing

221
Q

what is another name for ascending colon?

A

large colon

222
Q

What are the parts of the ascending colon on the horse?

A

right ventral colon, sternal flexure, left ventral colon, pelvic flexure, left dorsal colon, diaphragmatic flexure, right dorsal colon

223
Q

Where is the right ventral colon?

A

pelvis to sternum on right side

224
Q

Where is the sternal flexure located?

A

“u” turn at sternum

225
Q

Where is the left ventral colon located?

A

sternum to pelvis on left side

226
Q

Where is the pelvic flexure located?

A

narrow “u” turn at pelvis inlet

227
Q

What occurs at the pelvic flexure?

A

impactions

228
Q

Where is the dorsal colon located?

A

pelvis to sternum

229
Q

Where is the diaphragmatic flexure located?

A

“u” turn at the diaphragm

230
Q

Where is the right dorsal colon located?

A

sternum to pelvis on right side

231
Q

What are other names for descending colon?

A

small colon or floating colon

232
Q

Where is the descending colon located?

A

caudal abdomen

233
Q

What are the 4 main salivary glands?

A

Parotid, Zygomatic, Mandibular, Sublingual

234
Q

Where is the parotid gland located?

A

ventral to the ear

235
Q

What does the parotid gland empty?

A

near upper 4th PM

236
Q

Where is the zygomatic gland located?

A

above upper molars

237
Q

Where does the zygomatic gland empty?

A

near upper 4th PM

238
Q

Where is the Mandibular gland located?

A

ventral to the parotid salivary gland

239
Q

Where does the Mandibular gland empty?

A

sublingual at frenulum

240
Q

Where is the sublingual gland located?

A

cranial and medial to mandibular salivary gland and runs along the lower jaw

241
Q

Where does the sublingual gland empty?

A

sublingual at frenulum

242
Q

Ducts carry what to the mouth from the glands?

A

saliva

243
Q

When salivary glands rupture they can result in a painful cyst called?

A

ranula

244
Q

Where do ranula often occur?

A

under the tongue

245
Q

Secretions in animals have very little what?

A

enzymes

246
Q

serous

A

proved fluid and neutralize acid

247
Q

mucous

A

protects surfaces of mucous membranes within the GI from acids used in digestion

248
Q

Where is the pancreas located?

A

ventral to stomach and along descending duodenum

249
Q

What is the function of the pancreas?

A

exocrine ad endocrine

250
Q

Exocrine

A

into the duodenum

251
Q

Endocrine

A

into the blood

252
Q

Beta cells produce what to put glucose into cells and decrease glucose blood levels

A

insulin

253
Q

alpha cells produce what which acts on the liver to transform stored glycogen into glucose and increase glucose blood levels

A

glucagon

254
Q

Where is the liver located?

A

just caudal to the diaphragm

255
Q

What does the liver look like?

A

several lobes, red-brown color with speckled surface because of its structural units called lobules/ triads

256
Q

triad

A

blood vessels, bile duct, lymphatic

257
Q

Blood supply is from the ______ AND _______

A

portal vein AND hepatic artery

258
Q

Blood from the portal vein and hepatic artery flows into each liver lobule and does what?

A

mixes together in the sinusoids

259
Q

when the blood from the liver mixes in the sinusoids it allows the liver cells to do what?

A

process components of the blood, both nutrients and waste

260
Q

What also flows into the liver lobule?

A

lymph

261
Q

blood flows out of each liver lobule to the central vein and hen to the hepatic vein and on to the what?

A

vena cava and then to the heart

262
Q

sinusoid

A

dilated channel

263
Q

in the liver what flows out from each lobule through small bile ducts which join to larger ducts

A

bile

264
Q

what is a place to store bile?

A

gall bladder

265
Q

which animal does not have a gall bladder?

A

horse

266
Q

the gall bladder empties when the animal eats and bile flows where through the bile duct?

A

duodenum

267
Q

when does bile production increase?

A

when the animal eats

268
Q

bile is important in what?

A

digestion of fat

269
Q

emulsifies fat

A

breaks it into small pieces

270
Q

what are the livers functions?

A

bile production, protective, biotransformation, synthesis, storage

271
Q

bile production is made from what?

A

cholesterol

272
Q

bile production does what?

A

emulsifies fat in food

273
Q

What is the largest part of the RES system?

A

protective

274
Q

biotransformation does what?

A

detoxify

275
Q

changes drugs, toxins, products of daily metabolism is the jobs of what?

A

biotransformation

276
Q

If liver sees same toxin over and over this causes increase in enzyme systems to deal with that specific toxin is called what?

A

enzyme induction

277
Q

enzyme induction happen especially with what?

A

barbiturates

278
Q

bilirubin

A

the breakdown product of hemoglobin pigment “biliverdin

279
Q

bilirubin is conjugated and excreted in what?

A

bile

280
Q

bright red feces

A

lower GI bleeding

281
Q

black, tarry feces

A

upper GI bleeding

282
Q

Meconium

A

first stool of newborn

283
Q

“coffee grounds” in vomit

A

digested blood

284
Q

What does synthesis do?

A

processes food to produce glucose

285
Q

what is excess glucose stored as?

A

glycogen

286
Q

Processes store what to produce glucose if needed?

A

carbohydrate, fat, protein

287
Q

what plasma proteins does synthesis make?

A

albumin and clotting factors

288
Q

liver makes what as a late product of protein metabolism?

A

urea

289
Q

which organ is the second largest carbohydrate reserve in the body?

A

liver

290
Q

which is the main organ for iron storage?

A

liver

291
Q

which organ stores vitamin A, D, E, K?

A

liver

292
Q

how is the liver reserve capacity good?

A

lots can go wrong and the animal can still function

293
Q

how is the liver reserve capacity bad?

A

once signs show, the animal may be a precarious situation with little extra reserve to call upon in times of stress

294
Q

can the liver regenerate?

A

yes

295
Q

can a lobe-sized piece used as a liver transplant grow to normal size?

A

yes

296
Q

how long does it take a donor to regenerate liver mass lost?

A

couple of weeks

297
Q

Where does digestion begin?

A

in the stomach

298
Q

Where is food digested and absorbed in simple stomached animals?

A

small intestine

299
Q

which part of the small intestine secretes sodium bicarbonate to correct acid of stomach contents as it arrives?

A

the duodenum

300
Q

which part of the mall intestine is carbohydrate digestion performed of dogs and cats?

A

the duodenum

301
Q

Where is water absorbed?

A

the large intestine

302
Q

what does distention of the rectum cause?

A

defecation

303
Q

in which mammals does food stay longer in fore stomachs for microbe digestion, regurgitation, re-mastication, re-insalivation, and re-swallowing and more microbe digestion?

A

ruminants

304
Q

in what animal does cecum and ascending colon act as a rumen?

A

horses

305
Q

What are some volatile fatty acids?

A

acetic acid, butyric acid, propionic acid

306
Q

what comes from the volatile fatty acids in the situation in which other animals use glucose?

A

energy consumption of ruminants/horses

307
Q

Metabolism

A

SUM of all energy processes in body.

308
Q

What is metabolism governed by?

A

hormones

309
Q

anabolism

A

building and maintaining body tissue and storing energy

310
Q

catabolism

A

breaking down substances, releasing energy by breaking down ATP high energy bonds

311
Q

basal metabolic rate

A

related to body surface.

312
Q

what is needed in basal metabolic rate to maintain body at complete rest?

A

calories

313
Q

all foods break down differently but eventually reach what?

A

krebs cycle

314
Q

in the Krebs cycle down means what?

A

glucose is used to produce ATP

315
Q

in the Krebs cycle up means what?

A

excess foods are stored as glycogen, fats or proteins

316
Q

Metabolism of fats, carbohydrates and proteins is what?

A

intertwined

317
Q

in metabolism carbohydrates are?

A

primary energy source

318
Q

What can the liver make from fats and proteins?

A

glucose

319
Q

what is it called when the liver makes glucose?

A

gluconeogenesis

320
Q

gluconeogenesis occurs when?

A

glycogen stores are gone or no glucose entering cells

321
Q

what are the 2 primary glycogen storage depots?

A

muscle and liver

322
Q

when diet intake is ________, glycogen is source for food until it is gone

A

inadequate

323
Q

when there is no or low insulin blood glucose would be increased in this case as liver would build glucose levels from fats and proteins but the body has no insulin to move the glucose into the cell, what disease is this?

A

diabetes mellitus

324
Q

fats and proteins can be what?

A

energy sources

325
Q

what does liver use fats and proteins for?

A

to produce glucose for energy

326
Q

fats= _____

A

stored potential energy

327
Q

by-product of fat metabolism is what?

A

ketones

328
Q

too much ketone production does what to the animal?

A

makes them sick

329
Q

high producing dairy cows will mobilize fats and readily available fats acids cause what?

A

ketosis

330
Q

order of preference for energy sources

A

glucose(carbohydrate), fat, protein

331
Q

high protein diets encourage the body to use what?

A

carbohydrate and then fat

332
Q

cancer cells prefer what?

A

carbohydrate

333
Q

cancer diets are high in what?

A

fat and protein

334
Q

why are cancer diets high in fat and protein?

A

to starve the cancer cells by denying them carbohydrate

Anatomy (13 decks)

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