Reproductive Pathology Lecture 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 stages of sexual development

A
  1. Chromosomal sex
  2. Gonadal sex
  3. Phenotypic sex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

You chromosomal sex determines ___

A

Male vs female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Your gonadal sex determines ____

A

Ovaries vs testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You phenotypic sex determines ___

A

Secondary sex characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What gene determines if you form testes

A

SRY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What signal forms the wollfian ducts

A

Androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What hormone gets rid of Müllerian ducts in males

A

Anti-mullerian hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is XXY (Klinefelter syndrome)

A

Phenotypic males sterile due to failure of spermatogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is X (turner syndrome)

A

Phenotypic females and some with small stature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is XXX

A

Phenotypic females, most present with abnormal estrous cycles or an estrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in animals

A

Chimerism/mosaicism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a chimera

A

Single organism composed of cells with 2 or more distinct genotypes. Individuals are derived from multiple zygotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an example of chimerism

A

Freemartinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a mosaic

A

Single organism composed of cells with 2 or more distinct genotypes- individuals derived from a single zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does freemartisim occur

A

Cow is pregnant with male and female twin with shared placental vascular anastomosis so female twin is exposed to androgens (testosterone) and Anti-Mullerian hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Based on how freemartism spreads/ occurs in female twin it is considered a ___chimera

A

Hematopoietic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T or F: a freemartin female is fertile

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T or F: freemartin female twin is genetically female XX

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does the female genitalia of a freemartin female appear

A

Hypoplastic ovaries, rudimentary uterus, Hypoplastic vagina, vestibule, vulva, enlarged clitoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some masculinized genitalia that can be see with a freemartin female

A

Masculinized gonads, seminal vesicles, large tufts of vulvar hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where is the gene for orange fur and black fur located for calico and tortoiseshell cats

A

X chromosome as different alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the chromosomal types for male calico or tortoiseshell cats

A

XY/XX chimeras, XY/XXY mosaics or XXY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T or F: male calicos or tortoiseshell cats often infertile

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a pseudohermaphrodite

A

Only have one type of gonad (ovaries or testes) with some accessory sex organs of opposite sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a true hermaphrodite

A

Tissue from both types of gonads and often ambiguous secondary sex characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the chromosomal sex of a male pseudohermaphrodites

A

XY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Are male pseudohermaphrodites SRY positive or negative

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the most common intersexuality condition

A

Male pseudohermaphrodites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What genitalia do male pseudohermaphrodites have

A

Testies with female phenotype- well developed uterus, cervix and vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Male pseudohermaphrodites usually lack ___receptors or low ___production

A

Androgen, androgen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the chromosomal sex for female pseudohermaphrodites

A

XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Are female pseudohermaphrodites SRY positive or negative

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What genitalia for female pseudohermaphoridtes have

A

Ovaries and male phenotype- internal and external genitalia appear masculine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why does female pseudohermaphrodism occur

A

In utero exposure to androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 3 different combinations of gonadal tissue present in true hermaphrodites

A
  1. One side ovotesties and other side normal ovary or testicle
  2. Both gonads ovotestes
  3. Ovary on one side and testicle on the other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The amount of ___tissue will determine how masculine or feminine the external genitalia will appear

A

Testicular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True hermaphrodites often present with __external genitalia

A

Ambiguous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cows and camels have ___canals per teat

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ewes, and goats have ___canal per teat

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sows and mares have __ducts per teat

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most important mammary function

A

Passing immunoglobulins to their offspring in colostrum/ milk

42
Q

What can cause asymmetric or uneven udder

A

Previous trauma or mastitis

43
Q

What type of udders and in who is bruising and lacerations common in

A

Eww and goats with large pendulous udders

44
Q

What factor contributing to mastitis can vets control the best

A

Environmental factors

45
Q

Majority of mastitis cases are ___

A

Subclinical

46
Q

What pathogens cause mastitis and spread during milking

A
  1. S. Aureus
  2. S. Agalactiae
47
Q

What pathogens are environmental pathogens that cause mastitis

A

E. Coli

48
Q

What pathogen can exist as environmental or contagious mastitis

A

S. Dysgalactiae

49
Q

What are the 3 groups of pathogenic organisms for mastitis

A
  1. Gram negative pathogens
  2. Gram positive pathogens that cause severe acute mastitis
  3. Gram positive pathogens that cause chronic suppurative mastitis
50
Q

Different organisms causing mastitis can look very similar so the best thing to do to differentiate is ___

A

Culture

51
Q

What is the most important gram negative bacteria that can cause mastitis

A

E. Coli

52
Q

Gram negative bacteria release ___

A

Endotoxins

53
Q

What are some local effects of E. Coli (gram -) mastitis

A

Necrosis and vasculitis

54
Q

What are some systemic effects of E. Coli (gram-) mastitis

A

Hypocalcemia, endotoxemia

55
Q

What is the gross appearance of E. Coli (gram-) mastitis

A

Edema, hemorrhage, hyperemia, dry, friable, necrotic tissue

56
Q

What is the most common necrotizing gram positive bacteria to cause severe acute mastitis

A

S. Aureus

57
Q

Which pathogen that causes mastitis can cause glandular necrosis within minutes to hours

A

S. Aureus

58
Q

What type of response occurs in chronic mastitis

A

Neutrophilic response

59
Q

What cows typically get chronic suppurative mastitis

A

Cows in dry period

60
Q

What bacteria commonly causes chronic suppurative mastitis

A

T. Pyogenes

61
Q

What type of mastitis is this and what is likely cause

A

chronic suppurative mastitis, T. Pyogenes (gram +)

62
Q

What does granulmatous mastitis often occur with

A

Contaminated drug used for treatment or prevention

63
Q

What pathogen commonly causes granulomatous mastitis

A

Nocardia asteroids

64
Q

What are some local affects of granulomatous mastitis

A

Acute abscesses, pyogranulomas, chronic granulomas

65
Q

What type of mastitis is this

A

Granulomatous mastitis

66
Q

What bacteria can cause mastitis in goats and sheep

A
  1. M. Haemolytica
  2. S. Aureus
  3. Mycoplasma
67
Q

What bacteria that cause mastitis in goats and sheep can cause unexpected death with acute necrotizing and gangrenous mastitis

A

M. Haemolytica and S. Aureus

68
Q

What viruses can cause mastitis in sheep and goats

A
  1. Sheep- ovine progressive pneumonia (retrovirus)
  2. Goats- Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus
69
Q

Mastitis in goats is called ___

A

Hard udder

70
Q

Mastitis in sheep is called ___

A

Hard bag

71
Q

Describe the findings associated with hard udder/ hard bag

A

Chronic mastitis with fibrotic scar tissue or interstitial retroviral mastitis

72
Q

What type of mastitis appears blue and cold

A

Blue bag mastitis

73
Q

What causes blue bag mastitis

A

Severe mastitis with impairment of blood supply

74
Q

Blue bag mastitis is a type of ___mastitis

A

Gangrenous

75
Q

What causes contagious echythma

A

Ovine parapoxvirus

76
Q

What is contagious ecthyma also called

A

Sore mouth/ scabby mouth

77
Q

Contagious ecthyma most commonly results following ___

A

Trauma of coronary band and lips/gums

78
Q

What is the gross appearance of contagious ecthyma

A

Papules that progress to blisters or pustules before encrusting

79
Q

What is this and what is cause of lesions

A

Cause: ovine parapoxvirus
Contagious ecthyma

80
Q

Describe the cycle of being infected with contagious ecthyma

A

Infected kids have lesions on gums and lipids and then when nursing cause lesions on udders that can cause mastitis

81
Q

T or F: contagious ecthyma is zoonotic

A

True- Orf

82
Q

When do dogs typically get mastitis

A

Lactating post partum bitches or pseudo pregnancy

83
Q

What is an important negative affect of dogs with mastitis

A

Dams may neglect the neonates

84
Q

What is the most common mammary neoplasm

A

Epithelial tumors- adenoma, carcinoma

85
Q

What species commonly get mammary neoplasms

A

Dogs and cats

86
Q

Mammary gland tumors are the most common neoplasm in ___

A

Intact female dogs

87
Q

Approximately __% of mammary tumors are malignant but __% behave benign

A

50%, 80%

88
Q

What age do mammary gland tumors occur in dogs

A

10-11yrs

89
Q

What breeds are predisposed to mammary gland tumors

A

Toy and miniature poodles, spaniels, German shepherds

90
Q

Mammary gland tumors in dogs are associated with exposure to ___ and __

A

Estrogen and progesterone

91
Q

The incidence of mammary gland tumors in dogs is lowest if they are spayed before ___

A

1st estrus cycle

92
Q

In cats __% of mammary gland tumors are malignant

A

85%

93
Q

T or F: mammary gland tumors of cats often metastasize

A

True

94
Q

What are some common sites of mammary gland tumor metastasis in cats

A

Regional LN, lungs and other mammary glands

95
Q

What cat breed is predisposed to mammary gland tumors

A

Siamese

96
Q

T or F: early OVH in cats is just as preventative as early OVH in dogs

A

False

97
Q

What is the survival time post dx with mammary gland tumor in cats

A

<1yr

98
Q

What type of disease is feline fibroadenomatous hyperplasia

A

Pseudoneoplastic disease

99
Q

What cats typically get feline fribroadenomatous hyperplasia

A

Young intact females <2yrs

100
Q

Feline fibroadenomatous hyperplasia is associates with high levels of ___

A

Progesterone (often synthetic)

101
Q

What is tx for feline fibroadenomatous hyperplasia

A

OVH or spontaneous resolution