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Pathology I > Lecture 1 and 2: Neuropathology > Flashcards

Lecture 1 and 2: Neuropathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are some clinical signs associated with cerebrum/forebrain

A

Ataxia, behavioral changes, seizures, head-pressing, circling, blindness

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2
Q

What are some clinical signs associated with midbrain/cerebellum/brainstem

A

Ataxia, hypermetria, hypertonicity, head tilt, circling, nystagmus, tremors, cranial nerve deficits

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3
Q

What are some clinical signs associated with Spinal cord

A

Paralysis/paresis, weakness, spasticity

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4
Q

What is a coup injury and what does it involve

A

Occurs on same side and can involve soft tissue, skull fracture, dural or subdural hematomas

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5
Q

What is a contrecoup injury and what does it involve

A

Injury on opposite side of injury that can cause hemorrhage and edema

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6
Q

What is a concussion

A

Head injury leading to loss of consciousness without gross evidence of injury

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7
Q

What is a contusion

A

Head injury that results in hemorrhage, +/- tearing of brain parenchyma, +/- skull fracture

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8
Q

What wrong

A

Subdural hemorrhage

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9
Q

Why are skull fractures dangerous

A

Act as FB or mechanism for laceration of neurological tissue it surrounds

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10
Q

What wrong

A

vertebral fracture

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11
Q

What occurs as a result of a hematoma

A

Space occupying lesion that will increase ICP leading to compression or herniation

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12
Q

Where does the cerebellum herniate through and why is it life threatening

A

Herniates through foramen magnum and life threatening because it compresses on respiratory centers within the brainstem

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13
Q

What wrong

A

Cerebellar herniation through foramen magnum

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14
Q

What do these images show

A

left: normal intervertebral disc
Right: degenerated disc, chalky nucleus pulposus

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15
Q

Intervertebral discs can herniate into spinal cord causing ___, ___, and ___

A

Hemorrhage, edema and necrosis

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16
Q

what wrong

A

Herniated disc

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17
Q

What is type 1 disc herniation (who gets it, acute or chronic, what herniates)

A

Chondrodystrophic breeds (dachshunds, frenchies), acute onset of clinical signs due to herniation of nucleus pulposus

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18
Q

What is type 2 disc herniation (who gets it, acute or chronic, what herniates)

A

More common in our large breed dogs
Gradual onset of clinical signs
Annulus fibrosis herniates

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19
Q

What is a major consequence of spinal cord trauma

A

Hemorrhagic myelomalacia

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20
Q

What is hemorrhagic myelomalacia

A

Ascending and/or descending hemorrhage and necrosis within the cord

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21
Q

How do animals with hemorrhagic myelomalacia present

A

Ascending or descending paralysis and sensory deficits within 12-24hrs after spinal cord injury

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22
Q

What is one reason/ location that can make myelomalacia life threatening

A

Lesion near phrenic nerve will cause suffocation because innervates diaphragm

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23
Q

What wrong

A

Hemorrhagic myelomalacia

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24
Q

What wrong

A

hemorrhagic myelomalacia

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25
Q

What is a stroke

A

Sudden onset of focal neurological deficits due to intracranial vascular event caused by local ischemia

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26
Q

What is the most common cause of stroke

A

Infarction- thrombosis

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27
Q

Which infarction is acute vs chronic

A

Left: acute (red to black)
Right: chronic (golden-brown, shrunken/depressed)

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28
Q

How do cats with feline ischemic encephalopathy present

A

Ataxia, circling, seizures, blindness, postural deficits

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29
Q

What does lesion from
FIE look like

A

Asymmetrical/ unilateral ischemic necrosis and atrophy of cerebral cortex that is supplied by middle cerebral artery

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30
Q

What artery is occluded with FIE

A

Middle cerebral artery

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31
Q

What is cause of FIE

A

Vascular disorder as a result of
1. Cardiomyopathy—> thrombosis
2. Parasite migration—> cuterebra

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32
Q

What this

A

FIE

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33
Q

What is fibrocartilaginous emboli (FCE)

A

Specific form of infarction caused by degenerative intervertebral disc material that extruded into spinal blood vessels to the parenchyma of spinal cord causing infarction

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34
Q

What this

A

FCE

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35
Q

What age and breeds are typically associated with CNS neoplasms

A

Older dogs, brachycephalic breeds

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36
Q

Brachycephalic breeds tend to get what specific CNS tumor

A

Gliomas

37
Q

What is the one brain tumor that can be seen in young or in-utero animals

A

Medulloblastoma

38
Q

What are some signs of CNS neoplasia

A

Seizures, depression, temperament changes, propulsive gait, blindness

39
Q

What is the number one type of CNS tumor in dogs and cats

A

Meningioma

40
Q

What are the 3 meninge layers

A
  1. Dura
  2. Arachnoid
  3. Pka mater
41
Q

The arachnoid matter and pia mater are called ___

A

Leptomeninges

42
Q

The pia matter is present in the __which is in the ventricles

A

Choroid plexus

43
Q

Where are meningiomas located

A

Brain, spinal cord and intraventricular possible due to pia in choroid plexus

44
Q

Are meningiomas benign or malignant

A

Benign but space occupying that cause damaging compression

45
Q

What is gross appearance of meningioma

A

Discrete, firm to rubbery mass with meningeal attachment

46
Q

What this

A

meningioma

47
Q

Although meningiomas do not infiltrate underlying structures they cause ___to tissues beneath them

A

Compression

48
Q

What is the 2nd most common brain tumor in dogs

A

Gliomas- astrocytomas and oligodendroglioma

49
Q

What are gemistocytes

A

Astrocytes that respond to injury by increasing their cytoplasm

50
Q

What are Alzheimer’s type 2 astrocytes and what are they associated with

A

Clusters of astrocytic nuclei that are swollen and clear

Associated with hepatic and renal encephalopathy

51
Q

What are these

A

Gemistocytes

52
Q

What is the function of oligodendrocytes

A

Form myelin wheat around axons in CNS

53
Q

What cell is responsible for myelinating axons in PNS

A

Schwann cells

54
Q

Are glial tumors malignant or benign

A

Malignant

55
Q

Where are astrocytomas typically located

A

Cerebrum- especially temporal lobe

56
Q

What this

A

astrocytomas

57
Q

Where are olgiodendrogliomas located

A

Cerebrum- frontal lobe

58
Q

What is the gross appearance of oligodendroglioma

A

Pink to gray, soft and gelatinous tumors

59
Q

What this

A

oligodendroglioma

60
Q

What is the appearance of oligodendroglioma on histology

A

Fried egg

61
Q

What does this histology indicated

A

Oligodendroglioma

62
Q

What sex are oligodendroglioma more prevalent in

A

Males

63
Q

What is the main function of microglia

A

Phagocytosis

64
Q

What is the third most common type of CNS tumors in dogs

A

Choroid plexus epithelial derived tumors- papilloma, carcinoma, adenoma

65
Q

What cells do choroid plexus derive from

A

Epithelial cells

66
Q

Where is the choroid plexus located

A

Lateral ventricle

67
Q

What is the function of choroid plexus

A

Produce CSF

68
Q

Where is the most common location for choroid plexus tumor

A

4th ventricle

69
Q

How do animals with choroid plexus tumors present

A

Vomiting, positional nystagmus, head tilt, and tetraparesis

70
Q

What type of tumors are these based on location

A

choroid plexus tumors

71
Q

What is a major sequela of choroid plexus tumors

A

Hydrocephalus due to ventricular obstruction

72
Q

Identify layers of cerebellar cortex 1-6

A
  1. Leptomeninges
  2. External granular cell layer
  3. Molecular layer
  4. Purkinje cell layer
  5. Granular cell layer
  6. White matter
73
Q

What are medulloblastomas composed of

A

Undifferentiated cells of neural tube

74
Q

Where and who do medulloblastomas occur in

A

Cerebellum of young animals, most commonly in calves

75
Q

Where do medulloblastomas arise from

A

External granular cell layer

76
Q

What is gross appearance of medulloblastomas

A

Gray masses in cerebellum

77
Q

Necropsy of young dog- What this

A

Medulloblastoma

78
Q

What is method of metastatic spread to CNS

A

Hematogenous

79
Q

What is pattern of metastatic neoplasia in CNS

A

Multifocal, embolic pattern

80
Q

What are the most common metastatic neoplasia in dog CNS

A

Hemangiosarcoma and melanoma

81
Q

What are your 2 differentials

A
  1. Hemangiosarcoma
  2. Melanoma
82
Q

What type of cancer

A

lymphoma

83
Q

What cells are known to cause peripheral nervous system neoplasia

A
  1. Perineural cells
  2. Fibroblasts
  3. Schwann cells
84
Q

What are the benign peripheral nerve sheath tumors

A
  1. Schwannoma- Schwann cell
  2. Neurofibroma- Schwann cell and perineural cells
85
Q

What are malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors called

A

Just peripheral nerve sheath tumors

86
Q

What this

A

Peripheral nerve sheath tumor of spinal nerves

87
Q

What this

A

peripheral nerve sheath tumor of brachial plexus

88
Q

What are neurofibromatosis and who gets them and where

A

Syndrome inc cattle which single or multiple peripheral nerve sheath tumors develop at following sites
- heart
- brachial plexus
- mediastinum and intercostal nerves

89
Q

Ribs from cow what is top differential

A

Neurofibromatosis

Pathology I (23 decks)

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