Quick Facts 4 Flashcards
Which is the predominant ketone body in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A Acetone
B Acetoacetate
C Beta-hydroxybutyrate
D Vaccenic acid
E Palmitoleic acid
Which is the predominant ketone body in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A Acetone
B Acetoacetate
C Beta-hydroxybutyrate
D Vaccenic acid
E Palmitoleic acid
Which of the following is not considered a complication of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A Cerebral oedema
B Hyponatraemia
C Hypokalaemia
D Hypoglycaemia
E Adult-respiratory distress syndrome
Which of the following is not considered a complication of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A Cerebral oedema
B Hyponatraemia
C Hypokalaemia
D Hypoglycaemia
E Adult-respiratory distress syndrome
Which of the following is the most common cause for precipitation of Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A Infection
B Non-compliance
C Inappropriate dose alteration
D New diagnosis of diabetes
E Myocardial infarction
Which of the following is the most common cause for precipitation of Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A Infection
B Non-compliance
C Inappropriate dose alteration
D New diagnosis of diabetes
E Myocardial infarction
A 91-year-old female, with known congestive cardiac failure, is seen by the GP with increasing shortness of breath. She is now getting breathless while at rest and requiring an increasing amount of support at home.
What is this patient’s New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification stage?
A 0
B I
C II
D III
E IV
A 91-year-old female, with known congestive cardiac failure, is seen by the GP with increasing shortness of breath. She is now getting breathless while at rest and requiring an increasing amount of support at home.
What is this patient’s New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification stage?
E IV
I - Cardiac disease, but no symptoms and no limitations in ordinary physical activity
II - Mild symptoms on ordinary activity
III - Marked limitation on minimal activity, but comfortable at rest
IV - Severe limitations experienced at rest
State the different NYHA functional classifications [4]
I - Cardiac disease, but no symptoms and no limitations in ordinary physical activity
II - Mild symptoms on ordinary activity
III - Marked limitation on minimal activity, but comfortable at rest
IV - Severe limitations experienced at rest
Statins block HMG Co-A reductase. Which pathway does this cause to be inhibited? [1]
mevalonate pathway
Q
Whilst in general practice, you review Susan a 48-year-old patient with hypertension. Despite taking ramipril, her blood pressure remains clinically elevated. Based on current guidelines you consider add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic.
Which of the following electrolyte disturbances may occur with this new treatment?
Hypercalciuria
Hyperkalaemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypolipidaemia
Q
Whilst in general practice, you review Susan a 48-year-old patient with hypertension. Despite taking ramipril, her blood pressure remains clinically elevated. Based on current guidelines you consider add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic.
Which of the following electrolyte disturbances may occur with this new treatment?
Hypercalciuria
Hyperkalaemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypolipidaemia
Name a drug that reduces conductivity within the atrioventricular (AV) node and is a positive inotrope [1]
Digoxin
Which drugs would you use to manage IPF ? [2]
pirfenidone, nintedanib
Q
Name a common AE of digoxin
A
Gynaecomastia
Which of the following treatments for TB blocks causes mycoloic acid synthesis [2]
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Which of the following treatments for TB blocks causes mycoloic acid synthesis [2]
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Describe the MoA of desmopressin for the treatment of haemophilia [2]
Desmopresssin / DDAVP (S/C) -** causes the release of von Willebrand’s antigen from the platelets** and the cells that line the blood vessels where it is stored
. Von Willebrand’s antigen is the protein that carries factor VIII.
Describe the MoA of Ivabradin [1]
A
Ivabradine: lowers heart rate through inhibition of cardiac ‘funny channels’
Q
Which of the following can cause severe hypotension as an AE?
Amlodipine
Nicorandil
Diatelzem
Lisinopril
Verapamil
Q
Which of the following can cause severe hypotension as an AE?
Amlodipine
Nicorandil
Diatelzem
Lisinopril
Verapamil
Which of the following inhibits L type calcium channel [2]
Amlodipine
Nicorandil
Diatelzem
Lisinopril
Verapamil
Which of the following inhibits L type calcium channel [2]
Amlodipine
Verapamil
Explain mechanism of how heparin works to treat PE
Heparin binds to antithrombin and activates it; activated complex then inactivates factor Xa, preventing conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin - integral step in clot formation)
Q
Which of the following is not considered a mechanism of GLP-1
A Inhibition of gastrointestinal motility
B Inhibition of gastrointestinal secretion
C Enhances the secretion of insulin
D Increases gastric emptying
E Promotes fullness and satiety
D Increases gastric emptying
Describe the MoA of Nicorandil [1]
Nicorandil: potassium channel agonist, which inhibits voltage-gated calcium channels leading to muscle relaxation
Describe the MoA of clonidine [1]
Stimulate presynaptic α2-adrenergic receptors in the CNS → dilates peripheral blood vessels → lowers peripheral resistance → reduces blood pressure
Describe the difference between DOACs MoA
E.g. Dabigatran direct thrombin inhibitor;
Rivaroxaban & Apixaban: Orally active factor Xa inhibitors – stop enzyme activating thrombin - prothrombin
What are the drug classes for Vaughan-Williams classification groups for antiarrhtmatic drugs? [4]
Class I - block sodium channels
Class II - beta-blockers
Class III - block potassium channels
Class IV - block calcium channels
Which of the following calcium channel blockers are selective for voltage gated calcium channels in blood vessels to cause vasodilation and decrease TPR.
Dobutamine
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Amlodipine
Nifedipine
Which of the following calcium channel blockers are selective for voltage gated calcium channels in blood vessels to cause vasodilation and decrease TPR.
Dobutamine
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Amlodipine
Nifedipine
Explain effect of ACE-Inhibitor like Ramipril on K levels [1]
Hyperkalaemia (Less Angiotensin II, NO aldosterone, less K secreted, less Na reabsorbed)
Which electrolyte abnormality would you expect with the use of high doses of salbutamol?
A Hypernatraemia
B Hypokalaemia
C Hyperkalaemia
D Hyponatraemia
E Hyperphosphataemia
Which electrolyte abnormality would you expect with the use of high doses of salbutamol?
A Hypernatraemia
B Hypokalaemia
C Hyperkalaemia
D Hyponatraemia
E Hyperphosphataemia
Which of the following disrupts the membrane potential in TB causing death?
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Which of the following disrupts the membrane potential in TB causing death?
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
What pharmacological treatment consider for sarcoidosis?
A
Treat with corticosteroids (but has negative impact on immune system).
Remember than patients may have spontaneous resolution so have to weigh up options !!
What is the mechanism of action of atropine?
A Non-selective beta-adrenoreceptor agonist
B Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist
C Reversible muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist
D Calcium channel receptor antagonist
E Relaxation of smooth muscle
C Reversible muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist
Atropine transiently blocks the action of the vagus nerve (i.e. parasympathetic nervous system) leading to increased SAN electrical activity and increased conduction through the AVN. This results in an increase in heart rate.
Name a longer acting alternative to GTN [1]
Isosorbide mono/dinitrate
Which of the following side-effects is commonly associated with metformin?
A Headache
B Gastrointestinal upset
C Reduced vision
D Hearing loss
E Nail changes
Which of the following side-effects is commonly associated with metformin?
A Headache
B Gastrointestinal upset
C Reduced vision
D Hearing loss
E Nail changes
Describe the MoA of: [2]
Streptokinase
Alteplase (tPA)
A
Streptokinase: Clot buster; Activates fibrinolytic pathway
Alteplase (tPA): Increase clot; breakdown by increasing Plasmin formation
Q
Which of the following reduce heart rates by prolonging refractory period of AVN?
Amlodipine
Nicorandil
Diatelzem
Lisinopril
Verapamil
Q
Which of the following reduce heart rates by prolonging refractory period of AVN?
Amlodipine
Nicorandil
Diatelzem
Lisinopril
Verapamil
Name 4 AEs of salbutamol [5]
A
trembling, particularly in the hands
nervous tension
headaches
suddenly noticeable heartbeats (palpitations)
muscle cramps
Which muscarinic receptor subtype is thought to be most important in the treatment of chronic airway disease?
A M1
B M2
C M3
D M4
E M5
Which muscarinic receptor subtype is thought to be most important in the treatment of chronic airway disease?
A M1
B M2
C M3
D M4
E M5
ICS acts on which of the following in asthma ptx?
IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
IL-7
ICS acts on which of the following in asthma ptx?
IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
IL-7
Dry powder inhalers should be taken in which of the following ways?
Quick and deep
Slow and steady
Slow and deep
Quick and steady
Dry powder inhalers should be taken in which of the following ways?
Quick and deep
Slow and steady
Slow and deep
Quick and steady
Q
Which of the following forms the right ventricle?
Truncus ateriosus
Bulbus cordis
Sinus venosus
Primitive ventricle
Primitive atria
Q
Which of the following forms the right ventricle?
Truncus ateriosus
Bulbus cordis
Sinus venosus
Primitive ventricle
Primitive atria
What receptor does T3 recruit to activate transcription? [1]
Retinoid acid receptor
Which antibodies are present in Grave’s disease? [2]
Anti-TPO and anti-TSHR
What morphological change will you see on the ECG of a patient with hypothyroidism? [1]
J waves
Which artery do the hypophyseal arteries branch from? [1]
ICA
Which two hormones do somatostatin inhibit? [2]
a)LH
b)FSH
c)TSH
d)GH
e)Prolactin
Which two hormones do somatostatin inhibit?
a)LH
b)FSH
c)TSH
d)GH
e)Prolactin
Which hormone stimulates production of GnRH?
a)Progesterone
b)Kisspeptin
c)Somatostatin
d)Ghrelin
Which hormone stimulates production of GnRH?
a)Progesterone
b)Kisspeptin
c)Somatostatin
d)Ghrelin
What does TPO do in healthy thyroids? [1]
Oxidises iodide ions using H2O2
Describe how the deiodinase enzymes work to control T3/T4 levels [3]
State the locations [3]
.
Which deiodinase enzyme is high during hypothyroidism? [1]
D2
Name an SGLT-2 inhibitor [1]
dapagliflozin
How can you treat sickle cell anaemia by stimulating production of foetal HB? [1]
Hydroxycarbamide /hydroxyurea
Which hormone does warfarin inhibit? [1]
Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase
Name a muscarinic antagonist used to treat bradycardia? [1]
Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist= bradycardia medication
Name a drug that activates the vagal nerve to reduce conduction via AVN [1]
Digoxin
How can you spot a drug is a SABA? [1]
How can you spot a drug is a LAMA? [1]
Have -but- in them; salbutamol; terbutaline
long acting muscarinic
antagonists: -ium
tiotropium, glycopyrronium
ium- in ur muscarinic system
What is first choice drug fo pneumonia? [1]
Doxycycline
Which cell types excrete H+ in nephron to help maintain acid-base balance and thus allowing H+ to bind to NH3 and HPO4- [1]
alpha intercalated cells
Q
A 45-year-old male is returned to a surgical ward following a renal transplant. 90 minutes after the transplantation, diuresis suddenly decreases. The patient is immediately transferred back to surgery where the transplanted kidney shows signs of hyperacute rejection and is removed. Histopathological examination is consistent with hyperacute rejection.
This patient has experienced which of the following types of reaction?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type V hypersensitivity
. Histopathological examination is consistent with hyperacute rejection.
This patient has experienced which of the following types of reaction?
Type II hypersensitivity
What is a normal and abnormal response to Dexamethasone suppression test? [2]
Abnormal: high levels of cortisol
Normal: low levels of cortisol
Inferior thyroid artery arises from which artery? [1]
Thyrocervical
What is the typical male urinary flow rate?
15-20ml/s
20-25ml/s
25-30ml/s
30-35ml/s
What is the typical male urinary flow rate?
15-20ml/s
20-25ml/s
25-30ml/s
30-35ml/s
Short synacthen test is used to diagnose
Addisons disease
Cushing syndrome
Conns syndrome
Graves disease
Short synacthen test is used to diagnose
Addisons disease
Cushing syndrome
Conns syndrome
Graves disease