HD EOYS4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which virus has differing chronicty depending on age at infection?

EBV
Hep B
VZV
Hep C
HSV

A

Which virus has differing chronicty depending on age at infection?

EBV
Hep B
Hep C
HSV

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2
Q

Name a virus that is usually asymptomatic in early life but is typically worse in 15-25 years old

EBV
Hep B
VZV
Hep C
HSV

A

Name a virus that is usually asymptomatic in early life but is typically worse in 15-25 years old

EBV
Hep B
VZV
Hep C
HSV

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3
Q

Which of the following causes scarlet fever?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

A

Which of the following causes scarlet fever?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

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4
Q

Which of the following is group A strep?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

A

Which of the following is group A strep?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

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5
Q

Which of the following is group B strep?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

A

Which of the following is group B strep?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

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6
Q

Describe pathophysiology caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • What process does the A-B subunit inhbit? [1]
  • What are the pathological consequences for the heart [2] & nerves? [3]
  • What structural change occurs in mouth? [1]
A

Diphtheria toxin: A and B subunits inhibits protein synthesis:

Heart implications:
- Myocarditis
- Heart block

Nerve implications:
- Difficulty swallowing
- Paralysis
- Diplopia

Get pseudomembrane in mouth

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7
Q

What are the four bacilli gram +ve organsims need to know? [3]

A

Corynebacterium
Listeria
Bacillus: cereus (food pois); anthracis (anthrax)
Clostridium: tetani botulinum, difficile

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8
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of meningococcal disease

A
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9
Q

Which two molecules are activated by LPS that cause inflammatory cascade for meningococcal disease? [2]

A

IL-6
TNF-α

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10
Q

Name three most common causes of septicaemia and meningitis [3]

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria meningitidis
* Group B and C
* Increase in Group W since 2009
* Teenagers, university students

Haemophilus influenzae B (HiB)

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11
Q

Name 4 invasive features of Streptococcus pneumoniae infection

A
  • Meningitis
  • Sepsis
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Septic arthritis
  • Peritonitis
  • Lobar pneumonia
  • Empyema
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12
Q

Name the two most common presentations of Pneumococcal pneumonia (Streptococcus pneumoniae) [2]

A
  1. Lobar pneuomonia
  2. Empyema (a serious complication characterized by pus and bacteria in the pleural)
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13
Q

How would you manage empyema caused by pneuomococcal pneuomonia? [2]

A

Chest drain
Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)

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14
Q

Name two rheumatological implications of pneuomococcal pneuomonia infection

A

Osteomyelitis (inflammation in a bone and bone marrow, usually caused by bacterial infection)

Septic arthritis

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15
Q

Which pathogen cauese this symptom? [1]

A

Neisseria meningitidis - septic patient

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16
Q

What is the most common organism responsible for infective endocarditis?

Streptococcus bovis
Staphylococcus epidermis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans

A

What is the most common organism responsible for infective endocarditis?

Streptococcus bovis
Staphylococcus epidermis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans

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17
Q

Name this symptom [1]
What causative agent is most likely to have caused this infection?

A

Herpetic whitlow

Caused by HSV-1 (60% of cases, HSV-2 in 40%)

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18
Q

What causative agent is most likely to have caused this? [1]

A

Congenital CMV infection

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19
Q

What is this infection? [1]
Name the two most likely causative agents? [1]

A

Impetigo

Agents: group A Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus.

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20
Q

Name the most likely causative agent of this symptom [1]

A

Epstein-Barr Virus - causing infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

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21
Q

Name the most likely causative agent of this symptom [1]

A

Epstein-Barr Virus - causing infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

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22
Q

Which is the most severe form of malaria? [1]

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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23
Q

Explain pathophysiology of malaria life cycle

A

Malaria is spread by mosquitoes

Infected blood is sucked up by feeding female Anopheles mosquito.

Malaria in the blood reproduces in the gut of the mosquito producing thousands of sporozoites (malaria spores).

The mosquito bites another human or animal the sporozoites are injected by the mosquito. These sporozoites travel to the liver of the newly infected person

Sporozoites mature in the liver into merozoites which enter the blood and infect red blood cells.

merozoites reproduce over 48 hours, after which the red blood cells rupture releasing loads more merozoites into the blood and causing a haemolytic anaemia

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24
Q

Explain the differences in the presentations of Herpes simplex in older children and adults [3] compared to very young children [2]

A

Older children and adults: relatively benign
* Herpes labialis
* Herpetic whitlow
* Cold sore

Neonates: causes perncious effects via two presentations:

  • Disseminated HSV
  • HSV encephalitis:
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25
Q

Treatment of congenital CMV? [2]
How does it work agaisnt CMV [1]
How long should treatment last? [1]

A

IV ganciclovir
or
oral valganciclovir (pro-drug) :inhibits DNA synthesis

6 months of treatment reduces hearing loss and improves neurodevelopment

26
Q

What are potential secondary bacterial infections of VZV? [1]
Name a consequence of this secondary bacterial infection [1]

A

Strep. infection (specifically Strep A)
Causes Necrotizing fasciitis

27
Q

Name a virus that is usually asymptomatic in early life but is typically worse in 15-25 years old [1]

A

Epstein-Barr virus: causes infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

28
Q

Which virus has differing chronicty depending on age at infection? [1]

A

Hep. B

29
Q

How does Hepatitis B chronicity depend on age at infection?

A

Chronic HBV infection occurs in approximately 90% of newborns infected perinatally, 30% of children aged under 5 years, and <5% of immunocompetent adults.

30
Q

Meningococcal disease refers to any illness caused by bacteria called []

Pneumococcal disease is a name for any infection caused by bacteria called []

A

Meningococcal disease refers to any illness caused by bacteria called Neisseria meningitidis.

Pneumococcal disease is a name for any infection caused by bacteria called Streptococcus pneumoniae

31
Q

What pathology causes this slide from testis [1]

Explain your answer [1]

A

The seminiferous tubules contain Sertoli cells, but none of the characteristic cells of spermatogenesis. Abundant Leydig cells remain in the interstitium.

32
Q

What is the name for this surgery? [1]

A

Orchiectomy

33
Q

What is the name for this surgery? [1]

A

Orchidopexy

34
Q

What is the name for this surgery? [1]

A

Orchidopexy

35
Q

Which hormone has the following role:

inhibits the synthesis and release of the follicle-stimulating hormone in the pituitary gland and reduces the hypothalamic LH - releasing hormone content [1]

A

Inhibin

36
Q

Which of the following type of Nonseminomatous Testicular Tumors causes high hCG

Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma
Yolk Sac Tumor
Embryonal Carcinoma

A

Which of the following type of Nonseminomatous Testicular Tumors causes high hCG

Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma
Yolk Sac Tumor
Embryonal Carcinoma

37
Q

A 16-year-old patient presents with increasing testicular pain of 1-month duration. On exam, a left testicular mass is identified. A radical orchiectomy was performed, and the testicular mass was found to have a stroma that was infiltrated with numerous lymphocytes along with extensive hemorrhage and necrosis. Light microscopy reveals a diffuse sheet-like pattern of cells. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely given this description?

A. Seminoma
B. Embryonal carcinoma
C. Leydig cell tumor
D. Choriocarcinoma

A

A. Seminoma

Seminoma is the most common pure germ cell tumor and is predominantly found in white populations.

38
Q

Which two markers are rasied in non-seminoma cancers? [2]

A

AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) and/or beta-hCG are elevated in 80-85%

39
Q

Describe the process of spermatogenesis [5]

A

Spermatogenesis:
* Division of spermatognia into more spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes via meiosis
* Spermatogonia remain in the basal compartment
* Primary spermatocytes migrate away from the basement membrane and cross in the adjuminal comparment towards the lumen of the ST
* Primary spermatocytes then enter meiosis (prolonged prophase) - which faciliates the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes
* First division creates secondary spermatocytes with 23 pairs of chromosomes
* Secondary spermatocytes divide into haploid spermatids

40
Q

Why is there no testosterone produced in prepuberty testis? [1]

A

No FSH produced so no testosterone produced

41
Q

In which condition would you see atrophic testis? [1]

A

Atrophic testes occur in cryptorchidism, when testis fail to descend into the scrotum

42
Q

Nodular hyperplasia of the prostate: which part of the prostate does it occur in? [1]

A

Transitional zone has proliferation and hypertrophy

43
Q

Adenocarcinoma prostate:

Occurs in which zone of the prostate? [1]
How does is it present histopathologically/ [1]

A

peripheral zone w/ adenocarnioma

Note the malignant glands are generally smaller than benign glands

Benign: L; Malignant: R

44
Q

Treatment of testicular torsion? [3]

A

Treatment
* Detorsion
* Orchidopexy (surgical procedure that moves an undescended testicle into the scrotum). Plus contralateral side check
* Orchiectomy (a surgical procedure to remove one or both testicles) 42% during surgical evaluation

45
Q

What are the two types of testicular cancer & where do they originate? [2]

Which is more common? [1]

Which is more likely to metastasise? [1]

A

Seminomas:
* Originate in germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules (germ cells)
* More common

Non-seminmomas
* Yolk sac, embryonal cell, choriocarcinoma and teratomas
* More likely to metastasise

46
Q

Which part of the testis changes during testicular cancer and how does it present? [1]

A

Seminiferous tubule becomes full of proliferating spermatogonia

47
Q

Label A-D out of:

BPE
Adenocarcinoma
Normal
prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)

A

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: PIN
D: BPH: Histological studies have demonstrated both glandular and stromal proliferation.

48
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

A: adenocarcinoma

The malignant glands in the lower left show macronucleoli in contrast to the benign glands on the upper right side. However, one has to be cautious.

49
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

Adenocarcinoma

This focus of prostate cancer has all the essential histologic features - small crowded glands lined by a single layer of cells, nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia, prominent nucleoli, and intraluminal blue mucin. A benign gland is partially visible at the lower right side of the image. Contrast its nuclear size to those of adjacent malignant glands.

50
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

A: adenocarcinoma

Glomerulations are an architectural feature that are usually associated with carcinoma in a prostate needle biopsy. Similar structures may rarely be seen in benign prostate glands. They consist of an aggregate of tumor cells that projects into the lumen of a larger malignant gland creating a superficial resemblance to a renal glomerulus.

51
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

52
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

53
Q
A

TL: BPE
TR: Adenomcarcinoma
BL: Normal
BR: PIN

54
Q

the clitoris is analagous to which part of the penis?

corpus spongiosum
corpus cavernersa
bulbospongiosus
ischiocavernosus

A

the clitoris is analagous to which part of the penis?

corpus spongiosum
corpus cavernersa
bulbospongiosus
ischiocavernosus

55
Q

what are the 3 nerve branches of the perineum? [3] what do they supply [3]

A

Inferior rectal - supplies the external anal sphincter and inferior anal canal

Perineal - supplies the anterior perineum

Dorsal nerve of penis/clitoris - supplies the external genitalia

56
Q

Spermatozoa are produced in the:

vas (ductus) deferens.
rete testis
epididymis
tunica albuginea
seminiferous tubules

A

Spermatozoa are produced in the:

vas (ductus) deferens.
rete testis
epididymis
tunica albuginea
​seminiferous tubules

57
Q

Which ligaments comprise the borders of the greater and lesser sciatic foramen? [2]

A

Acceptable responses: sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments

58
Q

contracts the external urethral sphincter

​visceral afferents
sympathetic
parasympathetic
somatomotor

A

contracts the external urethral sphincter

​visceral afferents
sympathetic
parasympathetic
somatomotor

59
Q

contracts the detrusor muscle

​visceral afferents
sympathetic
parasympathetic
somatomotor

A

contracts the detrusor muscle

​visceral afferents
sympathetic
parasympathetic
somatomotor

60
Q

Deficits in which of these fibres may cause urinary retention?

​visceral afferents
sympathetic
parasympathetic
somatomotor

A

Deficits in which of these fibres may cause urinary retention?

​​visceral afferents
sympathetic
parasympathetic
somatomotor