Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Yr 2 EOYS ^2 > HD EOYS4 > Flashcards

HD EOYS4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which virus has differing chronicty depending on age at infection?

EBV
Hep B
VZV
Hep C
HSV

A

Which virus has differing chronicty depending on age at infection?

EBV
Hep B
Hep C
HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name a virus that is usually asymptomatic in early life but is typically worse in 15-25 years old

EBV
Hep B
VZV
Hep C
HSV

A

Name a virus that is usually asymptomatic in early life but is typically worse in 15-25 years old

EBV
Hep B
VZV
Hep C
HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following causes scarlet fever?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

A

Which of the following causes scarlet fever?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is group A strep?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

A

Which of the following is group A strep?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is group B strep?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

A

Which of the following is group B strep?

Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe pathophysiology caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • What process does the A-B subunit inhbit? [1]
  • What are the pathological consequences for the heart [2] & nerves? [3]
  • What structural change occurs in mouth? [1]
A

Diphtheria toxin: A and B subunits inhibits protein synthesis:

Heart implications:
- Myocarditis
- Heart block

Nerve implications:
- Difficulty swallowing
- Paralysis
- Diplopia

Get pseudomembrane in mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the four bacilli gram +ve organsims need to know? [3]

A

Corynebacterium
Listeria
Bacillus: cereus (food pois); anthracis (anthrax)
Clostridium: tetani botulinum, difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of meningococcal disease

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which two molecules are activated by LPS that cause inflammatory cascade for meningococcal disease? [2]

A

IL-6
TNF-α

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name three most common causes of septicaemia and meningitis [3]

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria meningitidis
* Group B and C
* Increase in Group W since 2009
* Teenagers, university students

Haemophilus influenzae B (HiB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name 4 invasive features of Streptococcus pneumoniae infection

A
  • Meningitis
  • Sepsis
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Septic arthritis
  • Peritonitis
  • Lobar pneumonia
  • Empyema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the two most common presentations of Pneumococcal pneumonia (Streptococcus pneumoniae) [2]

A
  1. Lobar pneuomonia
  2. Empyema (a serious complication characterized by pus and bacteria in the pleural)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How would you manage empyema caused by pneuomococcal pneuomonia? [2]

A

Chest drain
Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name two rheumatological implications of pneuomococcal pneuomonia infection

A

Osteomyelitis (inflammation in a bone and bone marrow, usually caused by bacterial infection)

Septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which pathogen cauese this symptom? [1]

A

Neisseria meningitidis - septic patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common organism responsible for infective endocarditis?

Streptococcus bovis
Staphylococcus epidermis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans

A

What is the most common organism responsible for infective endocarditis?

Streptococcus bovis
Staphylococcus epidermis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name this symptom [1]
What causative agent is most likely to have caused this infection?

A

Herpetic whitlow

Caused by HSV-1 (60% of cases, HSV-2 in 40%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causative agent is most likely to have caused this? [1]

A

Congenital CMV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is this infection? [1]
Name the two most likely causative agents? [1]

A

Impetigo

Agents: group A Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the most likely causative agent of this symptom [1]

A

Epstein-Barr Virus - causing infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the most likely causative agent of this symptom [1]

A

Epstein-Barr Virus - causing infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is the most severe form of malaria? [1]

A

Plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain pathophysiology of malaria life cycle

A

Malaria is spread by mosquitoes

Infected blood is sucked up by feeding female Anopheles mosquito.

Malaria in the blood reproduces in the gut of the mosquito producing thousands of sporozoites (malaria spores).

The mosquito bites another human or animal the sporozoites are injected by the mosquito. These sporozoites travel to the liver of the newly infected person

Sporozoites mature in the liver into merozoites which enter the blood and infect red blood cells.

merozoites reproduce over 48 hours, after which the red blood cells rupture releasing loads more merozoites into the blood and causing a haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain the differences in the presentations of Herpes simplex in older children and adults [3] compared to very young children [2]

A

Older children and adults: relatively benign
* Herpes labialis
* Herpetic whitlow
* Cold sore

Neonates: causes perncious effects via two presentations:

  • Disseminated HSV
  • HSV encephalitis:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Treatment of congenital CMV? [2] How does it work agaisnt CMV [1] How long should treatment last? [1]
**IV ganciclovir** or **oral valganciclovir** (pro-drug) :**inhibits DNA synthesis** **6 months of treatment** reduces hearing loss and improves neurodevelopment
26
What are potential secondary bacterial infections of VZV? [1] Name a consequence of this secondary bacterial infection [1]
Strep. infection (specifically Strep A) Causes Necrotizing fasciitis
27
Name a virus that is usually asymptomatic in early life but is typically worse in 15-25 years old [1]
Epstein-Barr virus: **causes infectious mononucleosis** (glandular fever)
28
Which virus has differing chronicty depending on age at infection? [1]
Hep. B
29
How does Hepatitis B chronicity depend on age at infection?
Chronic HBV infection occurs in approximately 90% of newborns infected perinatally, 30% of children aged under 5 years, and <5% of immunocompetent adults.
30
Meningococcal disease refers to any illness caused by bacteria called [] Pneumococcal disease is a name for any infection caused by bacteria called []
Meningococcal disease refers to any illness caused by bacteria called **Neisseria meningitidis**. Pneumococcal disease is a name for any infection caused by bacteria called **Streptococcus pneumoniae**
31
What pathology causes this slide from testis [1] Explain your answer [1]
The seminiferous tubules **contain Sertoli cells**, but none of the characteristic cells of spermatogenesis. **Abundant Leydig cells remain in the interstitium**.
32
What is the name for this surgery? [1]
Orchiectomy
33
What is the name for this surgery? [1]
Orchidopexy
34
What is the name for this surgery? [1]
Orchidopexy
35
Which hormone has the following role: *inhibits the synthesis and release of the follicle-stimulating hormone in the pituitary gland and reduces the hypothalamic LH - releasing hormone content* [1]
Inhibin
36
Which of the following type of Nonseminomatous Testicular Tumors causes high hCG Choriocarcinoma Teratoma Yolk Sac Tumor Embryonal Carcinoma
Which of the following type of Nonseminomatous Testicular Tumors causes high hCG **Choriocarcinoma** Teratoma Yolk Sac Tumor Embryonal Carcinoma
37
A 16-year-old patient presents with increasing testicular pain of 1-month duration. On exam, a left testicular mass is identified. A radical orchiectomy was performed, and the testicular mass was found to have a stroma that was infiltrated with numerous lymphocytes along with extensive hemorrhage and necrosis. Light microscopy reveals a diffuse sheet-like pattern of cells. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely given this description? A. Seminoma B. Embryonal carcinoma C. Leydig cell tumor D. Choriocarcinoma
**A. Seminoma** Seminoma is the most common pure germ cell tumor and is predominantly found in white populations.
38
Which two markers are rasied in non-seminoma cancers? [2]
**AFP** (alpha-fetoprotein) and/or **beta-hCG** are elevated in 80-85%
39
Describe the process of spermatogenesis [5]
**Spermatogenesis**: * Division of spermatognia into **more spermatogonia** and **primary spermatocytes** via **meiosis** * Spermatogonia remain in the basal compartment * **Primary spermatocytes** migrate away from the basement membrane and cross in the adjuminal comparment towards the lumen of the ST * Primary spermatocytes then enter **meiosis** (**prolonged prophase)** - which faciliates the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes * First division creates **secondary spermatocytes** with **23 pairs of chromosomes** * **Secondary spermatocytes** divide into **haploid spermatids**
40
Why is there no testosterone produced in prepuberty testis? [1]
**No FSH** produced so no testosterone produced
41
In which condition would you see atrophic testis? [1]
Atrophic testes occur in **cryptorchidism**, when testis fail to descend into the scrotum
42
Nodular hyperplasia of the prostate: which part of the prostate does it occur in? [1]
Transitional zone has proliferation and hypertrophy
43
Adenocarcinoma prostate: Occurs in which zone of the prostate? [1] How does is it present histopathologically/ [1]
peripheral zone w/ adenocarnioma Note the malignant glands are generally smaller than benign glands | Benign: L; Malignant: R
44
Treatment of testicular torsion? [3]
Treatment * **Detorsion** * **Orchidopexy** (surgical procedure that moves an undescended testicle into the scrotum). Plus contralateral side check * **Orchiectomy** (a surgical procedure to remove one or both testicles) 42% during surgical evaluation
45
What are the two types of testicular cancer & where do they originate? [2] Which is more common? [1] Which is more likely to metastasise? [1]
**Seminomas**: * Originate in germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules (**germ cells**) * More common **Non-seminmomas** * Yolk sac, embryonal cell, choriocarcinoma and teratomas * More likely to metastasise
46
Which part of the testis changes during testicular cancer and how does it present? [1]
**Seminiferous tubule** becomes full of **proliferating spermatogonia**
47
Label A-D out of: BPE Adenocarcinoma Normal prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
A: adenocarcinoma B: normal C: PIN D: BPH: Histological studies have demonstrated both glandular and stromal proliferation.
48
What does this slide depict? A: adenocarcinoma B: normal C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN) D: BPH
**A: adenocarcinoma** The malignant glands in the lower left show macronucleoli in contrast to the benign glands on the upper right side. However, one has to be cautious.
49
What does this slide depict? A: adenocarcinoma B: normal C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN) D: BPH
**Adenocarcinoma** This focus of prostate cancer has all the essential histologic features - **small crowded glands lined by a single layer of cells, nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia, prominent nucleoli, and intraluminal blue mucin**. A benign gland is partially visible at the lower right side of the image. Contrast its nuclear size to those of adjacent malignant glands.
50
What does this slide depict? A: adenocarcinoma B: normal C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN) D: BPH
**A: adenocarcinoma** **Glomerulations are an architectural feature that are usually associated with carcinoma in a prostate needle biopsy**. Similar structures may rarely be seen in benign prostate glands. They consist of an aggregate of tumor cells that projects into the lumen of a larger malignant gland creating a superficial resemblance to a renal glomerulus.
51
What does this slide depict? A: adenocarcinoma B: normal C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN) D: BPH
What does this slide depict? A: adenocarcinoma B: normal C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN) **D: BPH**
52
What does this slide depict? A: adenocarcinoma B: normal C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN) D: BPH
What does this slide depict? A: adenocarcinoma B: normal C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN) **D: BPH**
53
TL: BPE TR: Adenomcarcinoma BL: Normal BR: PIN
54
the clitoris is analagous to which part of the penis? corpus spongiosum corpus cavernersa bulbospongiosus ischiocavernosus
the clitoris is analagous to which part of the penis? corpus spongiosum **corpus cavernersa** bulbospongiosus ischiocavernosus
55
what are the 3 nerve branches of the perineum? [3] what do they supply [3]
**Inferior rectal -** supplies the external anal sphincter and inferior anal canal **Perineal** - supplies the anterior perineum **Dorsal nerve of penis/clitoris** - supplies the external genitalia
56
Spermatozoa are produced in the: vas (ductus) deferens. rete testis epididymis tunica albuginea seminiferous tubules
Spermatozoa are produced in the: vas (ductus) deferens. rete testis epididymis tunica albuginea **​seminiferous tubules**
57
Which ligaments comprise the borders of the greater and lesser sciatic foramen? [2]
Acceptable responses: **sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments**
58
contracts the external urethral sphincter ​visceral afferents sympathetic parasympathetic somatomotor
contracts the external urethral sphincter ​visceral afferents sympathetic parasympathetic **somatomotor**
59
contracts the detrusor muscle ​visceral afferents sympathetic parasympathetic somatomotor
contracts the detrusor muscle ​ ​visceral afferents sympathetic **parasympathetic** somatomotor
60
Deficits in which of these fibres may cause urinary retention? ​visceral afferents sympathetic parasympathetic somatomotor
Deficits in which of these fibres may cause urinary retention? ​​visceral afferents sympathetic **parasympathetic** somatomotor

Yr 2 EOYS ^2 (42 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions