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Associate Ambulance Practitioner > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q

There are five different groups of tissues True or false

A

True

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2
Q

Glands with ducts secrete hormones True false

A

False

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3
Q

There are three types of muscle tissue True or false

A

True

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4
Q

The word distal means what ——– point of origin

A

Further from

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5
Q

Which is the odd one out Right hypochondria Umbilical Left lumbar Right clavicle

A

Right clavicle

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6
Q

Several organs joined by tracts and vessels are called systems True or false

A

True

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7
Q

Odd one out Nucleus Plasma membrane Epithelial membrane Protoplasm

A

Epithelial

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8
Q

Glands without ducts secrete

A

Hormones

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9
Q

The skin has five layers True false

A

False

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10
Q

The skeletal system has 206 bones True or false

A

True

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11
Q

The respiratory systems helps regulate acid base True false

A

True

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12
Q

Lateral means towards the midline of the body True false

A

False

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13
Q

The abdominal cavity houses lungs True false

A

False

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14
Q

The inferior boundary of the thoracic cavity is the

A

Diaphragm

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15
Q

Physiology refers to

A

The way in which an organ functions

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16
Q

What might you describe as hereditary factors Pick one Organs Genes Membrane Plasma

A

Genes

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17
Q

The nucleus carries the hereditary factors of the cell called genes True or false

A

True

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18
Q

The larynx is also shared by the digestive tract True or false

A

False

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19
Q

The trachea is lined with ciliates mucous membrane True false

A

True

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20
Q

The left lung has three lobes True false

A

False

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21
Q

Bronchioles terminate in the alveoli True or false

A

False

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22
Q

The trachea has 16-20 c shaped rings True false

A

True

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23
Q

Pulmonary embolism is what

A

Blood clot in the lung

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24
Q

Pneumothorax is what in where

A

Air in the pleural cavity

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25
Q

In hypoxic drive the chemoreceptors register what

A

Decreasing oxygen levels

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26
Q

Breathing rate for adult

A

16-20

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27
Q

Breathing rate for infant

A

32-40

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28
Q

Atmosphere contains how much oxygen and carbon dioxide

A

0.04% carbon dioxide 20% oxygen

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29
Q

The pleura is a serous membrane Yes or no

A

Yes

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30
Q

The epiglottis is leaf shaped flap of cartilage Yes or no

A

Yes

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31
Q

Internal respiration takes place in the lungs Yes or no

A

No

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32
Q

Oxygen enters the blood by diffusion Yes or no

A

Yes

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33
Q

Tidal volume in the average adult is 600mls Yes or no

A

No

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34
Q

During expiration what happens to diaphragm and intercostal muscles

A

Relax

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35
Q

Asthma is described as spasm of the bronchial

A

Smooth muscle

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36
Q

Bronchitic sputum is best described 3 things

A

Greenish Thick Yellow

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37
Q

Vital lung capacity is the sum of 3 things what are they

A

Expiratory reserve Inspiratory reserve Tidal volume

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38
Q

The respiratory system is not responsible for which of the following Expelling carbon dioxide Protect from infection Acid base balance Taking oxygen in to the body

A

Protection from infection

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39
Q

external respiration takes place where

A

lungs

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40
Q

Axons transmit impulses away from the cell body.
Yes/ No

A

yes

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41
Q

Bipolar neurones are usually sensory in function.
Yes/ No

A

yes

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42
Q

Multipolar neurones are usually afferent.
Yes/ No

A

No

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43
Q

Neurotransmitters are responsible for passing on impulses from one neurone to another.
Yes /No

A

yes

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44
Q

The cerebrum is divided into three hemispheres.
Yes/ No

A

no

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45
Q

Which is the odd one out?

Petit mal
Status epilepticus
Gene mal
Grand mal

A

gene mai

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46
Q

Which of these statements are correct? (tick three)

CSF…

  1. maintains uniform pressure around nerve tissue
  2. supplies nerve tissue with nutrients
  3. protects nerve tissue against trauma
  4. acts as a neurotransmitter
A
  1. maintains uniform pressure around nerve tissue
  2. supplies nerve tissue with nutrients
  3. protects nerve tissue against trauma
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47
Q

Which of these statements are true about neuroglia? (tick three)

They are…

  1. formed from Schwann cells
  2. responsible for myelin sheath production
  3. responsible for protecting nerve cells
  4. responsible for shaping nerve cells
A
  1. formed from Schwann cells
  2. responsible for myelin sheath production
  3. responsible for protecting nerve cells
  4. responsible for shaping nerve cells Not correct
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48
Q

The hypothalamus is NOT responsible for which of the following?

  1. control of voluntary skeletal muscle
  2. rage and aggression
  3. regulation of body temperature
  4. regulation of hunger
A

control of voluntary skeletal muscle

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49
Q

Which three of these substances “go together”?

  1. acetylcholine
  2. noradrenaline
  3. serotonin
  4. ventolin
A
  1. acetylcholine
  2. noradrenaline
  3. serotonin
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50
Q

A cerebral hemisphere is divided into four lobes.
True False

A

true

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51
Q

There are 72 pairs of spinal nerves.
True / False

A

false

31

8 cervical

12 thoracic

5 lumbar

5 Sacral

1 coccyx

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52
Q

The diencephalon consists of the thalamus and the hypothalamus.
True / False

A

true

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53
Q

CSF is produced in the choroid plexus.
True False

A

true

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54
Q

The parasympathetic system is responsible for creating the conditions associated with sleep.
True / False

A

true

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55
Q

csf fills what space

A

subarachnoid

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56
Q

The midbrain does what?

A) Acts as a relay station between different parts of the brain.
B) Contains the respiratory rhythmicity centre.
C) Regulates bodily water intake and thirst.
D) Registers the sense of smell, taste and hearing.

A B C D

A

A

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57
Q

The cerebellum is divided into two hemispheres by the .

A

VERMIS

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58
Q

Multipolar neurones are found mainly within…

  1. the brain and spinal cord
  2. the ganglia of cranial nerves
  3. the olfactory region
  4. the retina of the eye
A

the brain and spinal cord

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59
Q

Short Essays

describe the anatomy & physiology of the following

  1. cells
  2. Tissues
  3. Organs
  4. Systems
A

Plasma (cell) membrane is an extremely thin membrane that surrounds the cell components.

The Nucleus is the largest structure within the cell and carries the hereditary factors of the cell - the genes.

Cytoplasm/protoplasm is the fluid that makes up the bulk of the cell. It contains proteins and carbohydrates and is responsible for the metabolism of the cell

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60
Q

List the contents of the abdominal cavity

A

Pancreas

Liver

Bile ducts

kidneys, adrenal glands

stomach

small & large intestines

ureters

gall blader

spleen

lymph nodes

major blood and lymph vessels

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61
Q

Short Essays

describe the anatomy & physiology of the following underlined

  1. cells
  2. Tissues
  3. Organs
  4. Systems
A

Organs of similar function joined together by tracts an vessels eg respiratory circulatory, nervous, skeletal, digestive, muscular

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62
Q

Short Essays

describe the anatomy & physiology of the following underlined

  1. cells
  2. Tissues
  3. Organs
  4. Systems
A

Two or more types of tissue joined together recognisable shape specific function

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63
Q

Short Essays

describe the anatomy & physiology of the following underlined

  1. cells
  2. Tissues
  3. Organs
  4. Systems
A

5 tissues what they do

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64
Q

briefly describe the following underlined

The nervous system

The Cardiovascular system

The respiratory system

A

transmission of messages coordination of activities specialised tissue brain, spinal cord periperal nerves

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65
Q

briefly describe the following underlined

  1. The nervous system
  2. The Cardiovascular system
  3. The respiratory system
A

heart, blood, vessels, linked to respiratory and digestive system, carriage of respiratory gases, nutrients, glands secretions, distribution of heat, protection from infection, wound protection

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66
Q

briefly describe the following underlined

The nervous system

The Cardiovascular system

The respiratory system

A

oxygen into body, carbon dioxide out the of the body linked to cvs maintains acid base balance of th blood

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67
Q

short Essays

briefly describe the Larynx

A

The larynx is a continuation of the pharynx and goes on to become the trachea at the level of the cricoid cartilage.

It houses the vocal cords and protects them by means of a cartilage on the anterior surface known as the Adam’s apple or the thyroid cartilage.

A leaf-shaped flap of cartilage (the epiglottis) protects the opening of the larynx, by forming a seal over the superior aspect of the larynx during the act of swallowing - to prevent food from entering the airway.

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68
Q

short Essay on internal and external respiration

A

external respiration

gas exchange diffusion in alveoli

pressure higher to lower

c02 into alveoli 02 into system

internal respiration

takes place in tissues

02 into tissues c02 out

blood return via venous system

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69
Q

describe the respiratory centre and how its stimulated

A

responsible for Rate, Depth, and volume of respiration

location medulla oblongata

stimulated by

nervous -normal breathing pattern

higher centres- talking swallowing coughing

chemical - chemoreceptors, acid base balance, found medulla oblongata, walls og major vessels aorta carotid bodies

7.4ph

to much C02 acid level rise, resps rise cause increased o2 intake

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70
Q

Describe Asthma

A

Asthma

Bronchial asthma is described as “a reversible obstruction of the airway due to spasm of the smooth muscle of the smaller bronchi and bronchioles”. The mucous membrane lining the respiratory tract can also become irritated causing the production of thick mucous that plugs the smaller air passages and makes the attack worse.

The patient will have great difficulty exhaling and will have an anxious appearance.

Bronchial asthma can be psychosomatic (mental or emotional causes, like stress) but normally there are two varieties:

Extrinsic asthma
Usually occurs in young children or young adults and is caused by allergies to edible or airborne substances.

Intrinsic asthma
Caused in later life, usually over the age of 45, by infections or emotions.

Signs and symptoms include:

Severe dyspnoea (difficulty breathing)

Wheezing

Coughing

Orthopnoea (difficulty breathing while lying down)

Using accessory muscles of respiration

Chest movement appears to be on inspiratory phase - but patient experiences most difficulty when exhaling, hence the wheeze

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71
Q

Describe bronchitis

A

Bronchitis

Bronchitis is caused by an irritation and inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the bronchial tree. Thick greenish-yellow sputum is created which signifies the presence of an infection.

Smoking is still the most common cause but other factors like a family history of respiratory disease and air pollution can also contribute.

Signs and symptoms include:

Tachypnoea (increased respiratory rate)

Dyspnoea (difficulty breathing)

Productive cough

Cyanosis (blue appearance of the skin

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72
Q

Describe Emphysema

A

Normal lung tissue is elastic and compliant. Emphysema reduces this compliance and thickens the alveoli walls. Several alveoli may join together to form one large air sac - reducing the total surface area through which the exchange of gases can take place. The loss of the elasticity of the lung tissue causes them to become permanently inflated producing a “barrel chest” effect.

Expiration is usually a passive action but emphysemic patients have to force exhalation causing extreme distress. The patient will normally look pink because although normal amounts of oxygen are entering the body, the exhalation of carbon dioxide is a problem.

The major cause of emphysema is smoking. Evidence suggests that this causes an imbalance between the enzymes and proteins that normally protect the alveoli tissues.

Signs and symptoms:

Varying degrees of dyspnoea (difficulty breathing)

Coughing

Wheezing

Barrel chest

Anxious facial expression

Pursing of the lips on expiration

Weight loss

Usually pink in colour

Orthopnoea (difficulty breathing while lying down

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73
Q

Short Essay

Describe neuroglia or glial cells and functions

A

Neuroglia has two specific properties:

Irritability ability to generate impulses as a result of stimuli from inside or outside the body

Conductivity ability to transport the impulses from one part of the body to another

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74
Q

describe meninges

A

three layers that covered brain spinal cord

Dura mater

This is the tough fibrous outermost layer.

It lines the bones of the cranium and the canal formed by the vertebrae. It also lines the space between the two cerebral hemispheres. A fold of dura mater separates the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum.

The main veins inside the cranium lie in the dura mater

Arachnoid mater

This is a delicate membrane separated from the dura mater by the subdural space in which there is a thin film of serous fluid.

It encloses the subarachnoid space, which is criss-crossed by a fine network of connective tissue and which contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the larger blood vessels of the brain.

Pia mater

This is a very delicate inner membrane that closely covers the brain and spinal cord and supports a network of fine blood vessels, including those of the choroid plexuses that roof the ventricles.

The pia mater follows every convolution of the surface of the nervous tissue and sheaths the roots of the cranial and spinal nerves

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75
Q

Describe mental illness

A

Absolutely anyone can suffer from mental illness at any time, and approximately 25% of us will experience some kind of mental illness. This can range from mild anxiety to a state of being when a person loses the capacity to think in a rational manner.

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76
Q

what is Neuroses?

A

Neuroses
Eg anxiety, depression, obsessions and phobias.

People who suffer from neuroses usually know that they have the problem and continue to live relatively normal lives.

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77
Q

what is Psychoses?

A

Psychoses
Eg schizophrenia and manic depression.

Patients who suffer from psychotic disorders often have their lives totally disrupted by their illness.

It is not unusual for the patient to lose complete contact with reality, resulting in abnormal behaviour that can be extremely distressing for the patient’s relatives.

The patient will often experience both audible and visual hallucinations and appear to be living in a world of their own.

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78
Q

There are lots of different types of treatment available, ranging from

A

There are lots of different types of treatment available, ranging from drug therapy of varying strength and electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), to psychotherapy counselling or behavioural modification therapy.

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79
Q

The skeletal system comprises 206 different bones.
True\ False

A

True

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80
Q

Periosteum is a dense white fibrous covering around the surface of the bone.
True / False

A

True

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81
Q

The transformation of embryonic tissues into bone is called ossification.
True / False

A

True

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82
Q

Bone is 30-40% water.
True/ False

A

False

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83
Q

Red bone marrow is responsible for producing blood cells.
True /False

A

true

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84
Q

Three of these bones belong in a group together - which three?

Humerus
Radius
Tibia
Ulna

A

_Herusum**
**Radius_
Tibia
Ulna

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85
Q

Which bone is the odd one out?

Lacrimal
Maxilla
Sphenoidal
Zygoma

A

Lacrimal
Maxilla
Sphenoidal
Zygoma

86
Q

When describing the correct number of spinal vertebrae, which of the following is correct when considered from the superior aspect

A

7 12 5 5 4
7 12 5 6 4
7 12 6 4 4
7 12 6 5 3

87
Q

how many vertebrae are fused together to form the sacrum.

88
Q

The femur is classified as a flat bone.
Yes / No

89
Q

The cranium is made up of nine bones.
Yes/ No

90
Q

The vertebral column is made up of 32 irregular bones.
Yes No

91
Q

There are fourteen facial bones.
Yes No

92
Q

The humerus joins the scapula at the glenoidal cavity.
Yes No

93
Q

how many true ribs

94
Q

how many false ribs

95
Q

how many floating ribs

96
Q

When referring to fractures, which three form a group together

Comminuted
Compound
Difficult
Simple

A

_Comminuted
Compound_
Difficult
Simple

97
Q

Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see in a closed fracture? (tick three)

Crepitus
Lengthening
Pain
Swelling

A

Crepitus
Lengthening
*Pain
Swelling*

98
Q

If a fracture has been caused through trauma, which of the following is the odd one out?

Oblique
Pathological
Spiral
Transverse

A

Oblique
Pathological
Spiral
Transverse

99
Q

is NOT a synovial joint.

A

slightly moveable is NOT a synovial joint.

100
Q

Think about tarsals of the ankle. Which is the odd one out

Cuneiform inferior
Cuneiform intermedial
Cuneiform lateral
Cuneiform medial

A

Cuneiform inferior
Cuneiform intermedial
Cuneiform lateral
Cuneiform medial

101
Q

Three of these statements are FALSE.

  1. Plasma is 45% of total blood volume.
  2. Plasma is constructed of 90% water and 10% dissolved substances.
  3. Haem is an iron containing pigment.
  4. Erythrocytes number approximately 9000 per cubic millimetre of blood.
  5. Thrombocytes fight infection.
102
Q

Which is the odd one out?

Aorta
Cartoid artery
Femoral artery
Pulmonary artery

A

Which is the odd one out?

Aorta
Cartoid artery
Femoral artery
Pulmonary artery

103
Q

Which of these are functions of blood? (tick 3)

  1. Carries carbon dioxide to tissues
  2. Carries nutrients to tissues
  3. Carries oxygen to tissues
  4. Protects from infection
A

Which of these are functions of blood? (tick 3)

  1. Carries carbon dioxide to tissues
  2. Carries nutrients to tissues
  3. Carries oxygen to tissues
  4. Protects from infection
104
Q

Angina pectoris is caused by

A

atheroscelerosis

105
Q

Which of these sypmtoms is NOT a sign of left ventricular failure?

  1. Distended neck vains
  2. Full bounding pulse
  3. Sweating
  4. Tachycardia
A

Which of these sypmtoms is NOT a sign of left ventricular failure?

  1. Distended neck vains
  2. Full bounding pulse
  3. Sweating
  4. Tachycardia
106
Q

Tunica media is the elastic muscular layer of a blood vessel.

True/ False

107
Q

Pulmonary circulation removes blood from the liver.

True / False

108
Q

The mitral valve lies between the right ventricle and the right atria.

True / False

109
Q

Stroke volume in the average adult is 95mls.

True False

110
Q

Cardiac output = Stroke volume x Heart rate.

True / False

111
Q

When a coronary artery becomes completely blocked,one of the following conditions occurs. Which one?

  1. angina pectoris
  2. congestive heart failure
  3. left ventricular failure
  4. myocardial infarction
A

myocardial infarction

112
Q

An incised wound results from ripping or snagging of the tissues by metal or similar.

Is that correct?

  1. Yes
  2. No that would be an abrasion
  3. No that would be a lacerated wound
A

No that would be a lacerated wound

113
Q

Can you fill in the missing cardiac condition?

  1. Angina pectoris
  2. Cardiac arrest
  3. Congestive heart failure
  4. Myocardial infarct

——- is most likely to result in oedema of the lower extremities.

A

Can you fill in the missing cardiac condition?

Congestive heart failure is most likely to result in oedema of the lower extremities.

114
Q

What is the main artery supplying blood to the liver?

  1. Cartoid artery
  2. Gastric artery
  3. Hepatic artery
  4. Renal artery
A

What is the main artery supplying blood to the liver?

  1. Cartoid artery
  2. Gastric artery
  3. Hepatic artery
  4. Renal artery
115
Q

The heart muscle is know as

A

myocardium

116
Q

describe blood flow through heart

A

Functions of the heart

The right and left sides of the heart act as two totally separate pumps, but their action is always simultaneous.

The right side of the heart is responsible for dealing with deoxygenated blood. Deoxygenated blood returning from the circulation enters the right atrium via two major veins :

Superior vena cava
Drains blood from the head, neck and upper limbs

Inferior vena cava
Drains blood from the trunk, abdominal and pelvic cavities and lower limbs

When the atria contract, this deoxygenated blood is pushed through a one-way valve (the tricuspid valve) in the atrioventricular septum and into the right ventricle . The ventricle contracts and pumps the blood to the lungs via the pulmonary artery, which divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries soon after leaving the heart. The blood returns to the heart from the lungs reoxygenated, via four pulmonary veins that enter the left atrium. This is known as the pulmonary circulation.

The reoxygenated blood is then passed through another one-way valve (the bicuspid or mitral valve) in the atrioventricular septum into the left ventricle.

That ventricle contracts causing the blood to leave the left ventricle via the aorta. This is the main artery of the body, which leads to all other vessels of the circulation, feeding all tissues and organs with oxygenated blood.

Once the tissues and organs have used the oxygen within the blood, the deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the venous system

117
Q

short essay types of wounds

A

Incised

This is usually a clean cut made by a sharp edge, eg a knife blade or broken glass

Lacerated

Normally results from ripping or snagging of the tissues by jagged metal or the like.

Abrasion (graze)

This is merely a superficial wound in which the upper layers of the skin are scraped off, leaving a tender raw area behind

Contusion (bruise)

A contusion is caused by the rupture of the underlying blood vessels by a blow from a blunt source, eg a kick or punch.

Puncture

This type of wound is caused by a pointed object. The wound usually has a small entry site, but the major damage is caused to the organs or tissues much deeper in the body along the penetration track

Gunshot

This type of wound is caused by a bullet, shot or shrapnel. The wound associated with the entry site can be relatively small, but the exit wound, if there is one, may be large and ragged depending on the calibre and velocity of the projectile

118
Q

Give a brief description of the following

angina

MI

LVF

A

Angina usually occurs in middle to late life and can be brought on by any number of factors. The most being:

  1. Exertion
  2. Anxiety
  3. Stress
  4. Lack of exercise
  5. Hypertension (high blood pressure)
  6. High cholesterol
  7. Over-eating
  8. Family history

The major signs and symptoms of LVF are:

  1. Difficulty in breathing
  2. Noisy wheezy breathing
  3. Tachycardia
  4. Distended neck veins
  5. Blood stained sputum
  6. Lowered level of consciousness
  7. Orthopnoea (difficulty breathing while lying down)
  8. Sweating

Signs and symptoms MI are

  1. Gripping chest pain
  2. Shortness of breath
  3. Radiating pain down arms (usually left arm)
  4. Pins and needles in hands and fingers
  5. Nausea
  6. Weakness
  7. Sweating
  8. Orthopnoea (difficulty breathing while lying down)
  9. Feeling unwell
  10. Yellowish - pale grey complexion
119
Q

briefly describe compostion of blood and its functions

A

Blood as a whole carries out several major functions to sustain life:

  1. Carries oxygen to the tissues
  2. Carries carbon dioxide from the tissues
  3. Carries waste products from the tissues to the excretory glands
  4. Carries nutrients from digestion
  5. Carries enzymes and hormones from the glands
  6. Distributes heat generated by the muscles
  7. Provides protection from infection
  8. Provides immunity from infection
  9. Seals wounds by clotting

Plasma 55% fluid

Plasma is a straw coloured transparent fluid made up of approximately 90% water and 10% dissolved substances like proteins, mineral salts, and nutrients like fats and carbohydrates

Soild 45% made up of three

Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

5.5 million per cubic millimetre of blood .

They contain a protein called haemoglobin, made up of two substances, globin and haem. .

Haemoglobin has a great affinity for oxygen, .

Red blood cells have a life span of approximately 120 days, after which they are destroyed by the spleen or liver

White blood cells (leukocytes)

  • approximately 9,000 per cubic millimetre of blood.

White cells as a whole have two major functions:

To fight infection

To provide the body with immunity

Platelets (thrombocytes)

Platelets are small colourless bodies that react with enzymes, proteins and mineral salts when an injury occurs to form a blood clot, thus preventing the escape of too much blood.

This process can be faulty in some illnesses such as haemophilia

120
Q

Arginine is an essential amino acid.

True False

A

Arginine is an essential amino acid.

true

121
Q

Calcium and iron are essential minerals.

True False

122
Q

Vitamin B12 is a fat-soluable vitamin.

True False

A

Vitamin B12 is a fat-soluable vitamin.

False

123
Q

Vitamin A is derived from liver, eggs, fish and dairy produce.

True False

124
Q

Vitamin B3 is derived from meat, liver, and flour.

True False

A

Vitamin B3 is derived from meat, liver, and flour.

True

125
Q

Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see with hyperglycaemia? (tick 3)

  1. Dry flushed skin
  2. Fever and thirst
  3. Fruity breath smell
  4. Rapid sudden onset
A

Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see with hyperglycaemia? (tick 3)

  1. Dry flushed skin
  2. Fever and thirst
  3. Fruity breath smell
  4. Rapid sudden onset
126
Q

Which is the odd one out?

  1. Peritoneal ligaments
  2. The mesentery
  3. The omenta
  4. The ovary
A

Which is the odd one out?

  1. Peritoneal ligaments
  2. The mesentery
  3. The omenta
  4. The ovary
127
Q

which one supplies the large intestines

hepatic

mesenteric

pulmonary

renal arteries

A

mesenteric arteries supply the large intestines

128
Q

Which of the following is NOT a corrosive acid?

  • *Carbolic**
  • *Oxalic**
  • *Quick lime**

Sulphuric

A

Which of the following is NOT a corrosive acid?

Carbolic
Oxalic
Quick lime
Sulphuric

129
Q

. The control centre that regulates food intake lies within the hypothalamus.

Yes No

A

. The control centre that regulates food intake lies within the hypothalamus.

No

130
Q

Difficulty in swallowing is called dysplegia.

Yes No

A

Difficulty in swallowing is called dysplegia.

Yes

131
Q

The stomach lies within the left lumbar region.

Yes No

132
Q

The large intestine is approximately 1.5m long.

Yes No

133
Q

Hyperglycaemia means low volume of blood sugar.

Yes No

A

Hyperglycaemia means low volume of blood sugar.

No

134
Q

Barbiturate medicines are nervous system

  1. coordinators
  2. depressants
  3. enhancers
  4. stimulants.
A

Barbiturate medicines are nervous system

coordinators

depressants

enhancers

stimulants.

135
Q

Paracetamol is also known as what?

A) Acetaminophen
B) Acetacholine
C) Acetylsalicylic acid
D) Amphetamine

136
Q

Poisons classified as

  1. amphetamines
  2. barbituates
  3. narcotics
  4. solvents

will stimulate the nervous system.

A

amphetamines

137
Q

Which of the following processes are digestive process? (tick five)

  • *Absorption**
  • *Defecation**
  • *Digestion**
  • *Ingestion**
  • *Mastication**

Movement

A

Which of the following processes are digestive process? (tick five)

  1. Absorption
  2. Defecation
  3. Digestion
  4. Ingestion
  5. Mastication
  6. Movement
138
Q

Vitamin C can be found in which of the following foods?

Cereals
Fresh fruit
Liver
Milk

A

Vitamin C can be found in which of the following foods?

Cereals
Fresh fruit
Liver
Milk

139
Q

Which of the following processes is the odd one out?

Absorption
Ingestion
Inhalation
Radiation

A

Which of the following processes is the odd one out?

Absorption
Ingestion
Inhalation
Radiation

140
Q

describe diabetes mellitus

A

What is diabetes mellitus?

Diabetes mellitus is a chronic disorder that affects approximately 200 million people world-wide. It happens when the body is unable to metabolise carbohydrate, resulting in a raised blood sugar level.

Hypoglycaemia

This is low blood sugar.

The onset of hypoglycaemia is usually quite sudden and may be as a result of too much insulin in the blood, or not enough food intake supplying carbohydrate. Alcohol prevents the liver releasing glucose into the bloodstream, which can also lead to an episode of hypoglycaemia.

With the exception of the pulse most of the signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia are the complete opposite to those of hyperglycaemia . In spite of this fact the patient’s condition is just as serious and will also end in unconsciousness or even death.

These signs and symptoms are:

  1. Rapid onset, maybe only minutes
  2. Appears uncoordinated
  3. Sweating pale skin
  4. Normal to shallow breaths
  5. Pulse of 100+ and full
  6. Aggressive behaviour
  7. Hunger
  8. Headache
  9. Dizziness
  10. No breath odour
  11. Fits in later stages

Hyperglycaemia

This is high blood sugar.

The onset of hyperglycaemia is gradual and may take several days. There are inadequate amounts of insulin for the amount of sugar, so the body’s glucose level becomes too high and body fat reserves are broken down; resulting in the production of organic acids or ketones .

The patient will show signs of restlessness but will eventually become lethargic and their level of consciousness will deteriorate into total unconsciousness and if left untreated, death. Quick medical intervention is very important.

Signs and symptoms include:

Gradual onset, hours or maybe days

Dry flushed skin

Deep sighing respirations

Pulse of 100+

Fruity breath smell (acetone)

Fever and thirst

Nausea

Lethargy

Drowsiness

Vomiting

141
Q

describe 4 goups of posions

A
  • Burning or corrosive poisons

When swallowed these poisons will, in the first instance, burn or destroy the mucous membrane of the alimentary tract, affecting the ability to breathe.

They fall into two categories:

Corrosive acids (sulphuric, carbolic/phenol, oxalic, acetic)

Corrosive alkalines (quick lime, some bleaching fluids)

Look out for stains on lips, mouth or clothing to identify them:

Yellow (nitric acid)

Black/brown (sulphuric acid)

White (acetic acid)

  • Non-burning poisons

These poisons take the route of the systemic circulation and eventually are absorbed by the blood, affecting the nervous system. They include:

Barbiturates

Aspirin

Alcohol

  • Industrial poisons and pesticides

These poisons can be inhaled or absorbed by the skin

  • Irritant poisons

These are poisons found in fungi and toadstools, rat poison and foods like shellfish.

They can produce irritation and inflammation of the digestive tract when swallowed.

142
Q

describe alimentary tract with picture

143
Q

describe the effects of the following

Amphetamines (ecstasy)

A

Amphetamines (ecstasy)

Amphetamines are central nervous system stimulants. Methamphetamine and caffeine are examples of this type of drug and will cause sympathetic hyperactivity. Some produce significant vasoconstriction causing hypertension (high blood pressure) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate).

In the 1950’s and 60’s, amphetamines were widely prescribed as appetite suppressants. The short term effects of amphetamines are to increase mental alertness and energy, increase respiration and heart rate and dilate pupils. As these effects wear off, depression and fatigue may follow.

The signs and symptoms are:

Dilated pupils

Headache

Palpitations

Tremor and sweating

Insomnia

Addiction

Swings in mood

Dry mouth

Long term can cause weight loss due to appetite suppression

144
Q

describe the effects of the following

Barbiturates (phenobarbitone)

A

Barbiturates (phenobarbitone)

Barbiturates are central nervous system depressants and in the past were widely prescribed as sleeping drugs. More recently these drugs have been replaced by benzodiazepines which, although equally addictive, are safer when in the form of an overdose. Barbiturates today are commonly restricted to the anaesthetic room.

The signs and symptoms of an overdose include:

Intoxication

Confusion

Slurred speech

Bradycardia (slow heart rate)

Hypotension (low blood pressure)

Depressed respiration

Impaired coordination

In some cases, nausea, vomiting, tremor, recurrent nightmares and addiction

145
Q

describe the effects of the following

Narcotics (heroin)

A

Narcotics (heroin)

Narcotics or opioids are analgesic central nervous system depressants and include morphine, pethidine, diamorphine, heroin etc. All drugs within this group are addictive and even short-term exposure can lead to dependence. These drugs are not generally prescribed and are reserved for anaesthesia.

Key symptoms include:

Anxiety

Slurred speech

Bradycardia (slow heart rate)

Constricted pupils

Depressed respiratory effort

Photophobia (light phobia)

Aryflexia

Loss of sex drive/menstruation

146
Q

describe the effects of the following

Solvents (glue sniffing)

A

Solvents (glue sniffing)

Solvent abuse has a depressant effect on the central nervous system. Taken by breathing the fumes directly or from cloths or handkerchiefs soaked in substance.

Solvents are widely used in industrial, domestic and cosmetic products. Short-term effects include light-headedness, dizziness, confusion, progressive drowsiness and loss of coordination. Long-term exposure will cause damage to liver, kidneys, nerves and blood disorders.

The signs and symptoms are:

Nausea

Vomiting

Confusion

Hallucinations

Nasal secretion and sores

Watering eyes

Depressed respiration

Arrythmias (cardiac arrest)

147
Q

A burn is defined as a breach in the continuity of a tissue caused by excessive heat energy.

Yes No

A

A burn is defined as a breach in the continuity of a tissue caused by excessive heat energy.

Yes

148
Q

A person less than 20 years of age will usually survive a 20% burn.

Yes No

149
Q

Using the rule of nines for an adult, one whole leg represents 9% body area.

Yes No

150
Q

Using the rule of nines for a child, one whole arm represents 18% body area.

Yes No

151
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated in the administration of oxygen?

Alcohol poisoning
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Cyanide poisoning
Paraquat poisoning

A

Which of the following is contraindicated in the administration of oxygen?

Alcohol poisoning
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Cyanide poisoning
Paraquat poisoning

152
Q

Normal body temperature is within the range of 36-37oC.

Yes No

153
Q

With regard to the rule of nines for an adult patient, which of the following is correct? (tick 3)

Hand = 1%
Head = 9%
Whole arm = 18%
Whole leg = 18%

A

With regard to the rule of nines for an adult patient, which of the following is correct? (tick 3)

Hand = 1%
Head = 9%
Whole arm = 18%
Whole leg = 18%

154
Q

What percentage of burn on a patient is classified as major?

  1. Ten
  2. Twenty
  3. Thirty
  4. Forty
  5. Fifty
A

What percentage of burn on a patient is classified as major?

  1. Ten
  2. Twenty
  3. Thirty
  4. Forty
  5. Fifty
155
Q

Which of the following issues are predisposing factors of a burn? (tick 3)

  1. Fires in road traffic accidents
  2. Fireworks
  3. Molten metal injuries in industry
  4. Time of day burn occurs
A

Which of the following issues are predisposing factors of a burn? (tick 3)

  1. Fires in road traffic accidents
  2. Fireworks
  3. Molten metal injuries in industry
  4. Time of day burn occurs
156
Q

A full thickness burn affects only the

  1. dermis only
  2. the epidermisthe
  3. dermis and epidermis
  4. the layers of skin and underlying tissues.
A

A full thickness burn affects only the

  1. dermis only
  2. the epidermisthe
  3. dermis and epidermis
  4. the layers of skin and underlying tissues.
157
Q

Oxygen is stored in cylinders charged to what pressure?

  1. 1000psi
  2. 1500psi
  3. 2000psi
  4. 2500psi
A

Oxygen is stored in cylinders charged to what pressure?

  1. 1000psi
  2. 1500psi
  3. 2000psi
  4. 2500psi
158
Q
  1. Anthrax is a category III infectious disease.

True False

159
Q

Chickenpox is a category I infectious disease.

True False

A

Chickenpox is a category I infectious disease.

False

160
Q

Entonox is composed of 50% oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide.

True False

161
Q

Very little or no precautions need to be taken when transporting a category I infectious disease.

True False

162
Q

Approximately 40 people die each year from electrocution.

True False

163
Q

Which is the odd one out?

Lassa fever
Rabies
Smallpox
Whooping cough

A

Which is the odd one out?

Lassa fever
Rabies
Smallpox
Whooping cough

164
Q

Entonox cylinders have a pin index on the neck made up of

1 pin

2 pin

3 pin

4 pin

A

Entonox cylinders have a pin index on the neck made up of

1 pin

2 pin

3 pin

4 pin

165
Q

The most common indirect method of contracting an infection is

  1. airborne
  2. contact with faeces or urine
  3. handling clothing
  4. using toilet after infected patient.
166
Q

Which of the following are symptoms of hypothermia? (tick 3)

  1. Cold pale skin
  2. Fast full pulse
  3. Low level of consciousness
  4. Slow shallow breathing
A

Which of the following are symptoms of hypothermia? (tick 3)

Cold pale skin

Fast full pulse

Low level of consciousness

Slow shallow breathing

167
Q

Describe burn areas child/ adult

A

A patient’s hand as a rule, is equal to approximately 1% of a person’s body area. Bearing this in mind a system has been developed where:

Head and neck = 9%

Front of trunk = 18%

Back of trunk = 18%

Leg = 18%

Arm = 9%

Genitalia = 1%

There is a slight change in this method when using it to assess small children and infants:

Head and neck = 18%

Front of trunk = 18%

Back of trunk = 18%

Leg = 14%

Arm = 9%

Genitalia = 1%

168
Q

Describe how infection can enter the body

A

Infection can find its way into the body by four major routes;

  1. inhalation,
  2. ingestion,
  3. inoculation (absorption) or
  4. sexual transmission . :

1 Direct Contact
A second person actually touches the contaminated person. The infection is contained in tiny drops of perspiration which are then absorbed through the skin of the second person. Contamination of the skin by an infected patient’s blood can also spread an infection.
2. Indirect Contact
The most common indirect method is airborne infection, where infection spreads in droplets of moisture expelled from the patient’s nose and mouth, either by ordinary breathing, sneezing or coughing. It is also possible to spread infection via contact with articles of clothing etc that an infected patient has handled, or via contact with their faeces or urine.

169
Q

describe four ways of containing an infection outbreak

A

Immunisation

Some people are naturally immune to some diseases, others have to be inoculated.

Disinfection

Disinfection does not necessarily mean the application of artificial cleaning agents, although this is highly effective.

Disinfection can also happen naturally by the action of the sun or wind.

Isolation

This method speaks for itself. Infected or suspected infected patients are kept isolated until the outbreak is cleared up.

Notification

The law demands that certain infectious diseases are notified to the medical officer for environmental health.

The patient’s doctor usually does this.

Environmental health can then monitor the outbreak and trace its origin if need be

170
Q

briefly describe partial and full thickness burns

A

Partial thickness

Superficial
This involves the epidermis only. Redness and swelling of the skin occurs and can be very painful but usually heals within a week without scaring.

Deep
This involves both the epidermis and dermis layers of the skin. This type of burn has reddening and swelling of the skin but also has associated blistering and is extremely painful.

Full thickness

This type of burn involves not only the layers of skin but also underlying tissues and bones. These burns will have a whitish yellow appearance with a waxy texture.

There might be associated bleeding and some blood vessels may be visible. Charring of the surrounding tissues will also be apparent.

Although not always the case, this type of burn will seldom be very painful because the nerve endings in the skin have been destroyed

171
Q

Swelling of the throat will cause airway obstruction.

Yes no

172
Q

The abdominal thrust can be used on infants.

Yes No

173
Q

A patient in respiratory arrest can still exhibit a pulse.

Yes No

174
Q

The ratio for ventilations to compressions for one operator CPR on an adult patient is 1-5

Yes No

175
Q

Haemorrhage is a sign of patient condition.

Yes No

176
Q

Which is the odd one out?

Crepitus
Haemorrhage
Nausea
Vomiting

A

Which is the odd one out?

Crepitus
Haemorrhage
Nausea
Vomiting

177
Q

Which is the odd one out?

Memory loss
Pain
Skin colour
Tingling

A

Which is the odd one out?

Memory loss
Pain
Skin colour
Tingling

178
Q

Which is the odd one out?

  1. Obeys commands
  2. Open to pain
  3. Open to speech
  4. Spontaneous
A

Which is the odd one out?

  1. Obeys commands
  2. Open to pain
  3. Open to speech
  4. Spontaneous
179
Q

A major incident is defined as requiring special arrangements due to

A

location and number of casulties

180
Q

Which officers listed below have a designated role at the scene of a major incident? (tick 3)

  • Chief ambulance officer
  • Incident officer
  • Liaison officer
  • Parking officer
A

Which officers listed below have a designated role at the scene of a major incident? (tick 3)

  • Chief ambulance officer
  • Incident officer
  • Liaison officer
  • Parking officer
181
Q

Nausea is a symptom of patient condition.

True False

182
Q

A glasgow coma response of “Eyes open to pain” will record a score of 2.

True False

183
Q

A glasgow coma verbal response of “Confused” will record a score of 5.

True False

184
Q

A glasgow coma motor response of “Extensor response” will record a score of 3.

True False

185
Q

The brachial pulse is used to assess the heartbeat of small children and infants.

True False

186
Q

There are three main subjects to be considered when making a patient assessment, what are they?

Airway
History
Signs
Symptoms

A

There are three main subjects to be considered when making a patient assessment, what are they?

Airway
*History
Signs
Symptoms*

187
Q

Read the lifting technique advice below:

A) Back straight
B) Stand as close as possible to the object to be lifted
C) Chin tucked in
D) Stand with feet apart

A

Read the lifting technique advice below:

A) Back straight
B) Stand as close as possible to the object to be lifted
C) Chin tucked in
D) Stand with feet apart

188
Q

In the glasgow coma scale three vital patient responses are assessed. What are they?

Eye response
Motor response
Pupillary response
Verbal response

A

In the glasgow coma scale three vital patient responses are assessed. What are they?

Eye response
Motor response
Pupillary response
Verbal response

189
Q

The uterus lies between the bladder and the rectum.

True False

190
Q

The uterine arteries are branches of the abdominal aorta.

True False

191
Q

Graafian follicles contain the ova.

True False

192
Q

There are two umbilical arteries.

True False

193
Q

The placenta will protect the foetus from rubella.

True False

194
Q

Abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the

twentieth

twenty fourth

twenty eigth

thirty second week of development

195
Q

Which of the following foetal presentations are head down presentations? (tick 3)

Frank’s breech
Left occipito anterior
Left occipito posterior
Persistent mento posterior

A

Which of the following foetal presentations are head down presentations? (tick 3)

Frank’s breech
*Left occipito anterior
Left occipito posterior
Persistent mento posterior*

196
Q

Which is the odd one out with regard to the definitions of child abuse?

Mental cruelty
Perversion
Physical abuse
Sexual abuse

A

Which is the odd one out with regard to the definitions of child abuse?

Mental cruelty
Perversion
Physical abuse
Sexual abuse

197
Q

expressionless face

loss of coordination of the feet only

muscle rigidity

muscle tremor

is NOT a sign or symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

A

expressionless face

loss of coordination of the feet only

muscle rigidity

muscle tremor

is NOT a sign or symptom of Parkinson’s disease

198
Q

Postpartum haemorrhage is excessive bleeding up to:

16 hours after birth
16 hours before birth
20 hours after birth
24 hours after birth

A

Postpartum haemorrhage is excessive bleeding up to:

16 hours after birth
16 hours before birth
20 hours after birth
24 hours after birth

199
Q

The foetal heart has an orifice within the atrial septum called the foramen magnum.

True False

200
Q

The “breaking of the waters” usually hails the second stage of labour.

True False

A

The “breaking of the waters” usually hails the second stage of labour.

True

201
Q

Under normal circumstances the third stage of labour should last no longer than 30 minutes.

True False

202
Q

At birth the foramen ovale closes and becomes the fossa ovalis.

True False

203
Q

Crowning” is described as being the birth of the baby’s shoulders.

True False

204
Q

Antepartum haemorrhage occurs after the

first, third, four, thfifth, sixth

months of pregnancy, but before the first

second, third stage of labour

A

Antepartum haemorrhage occurs after the

first, third, four, thfifth, sixth

months of pregnancy, but before the first

second, third stage of labour

205
Q

The third stage of labour is when what happens?

The actual birth
The breaking of the waters
The point when crowning is seen
When the placenta is delivered

A

The third stage of labour is when what happens?

The actual birth
The breaking of the waters
The point when crowning is seen
When the placenta is delivered

206
Q

In the foetal circulation, the pulmonary trunk is directly joined to the aorta by the ductus aorta, ductus arteriosus, ductus artery ductus venosus

A

In the foetal circulation, the pulmonary trunk is directly joined to the aorta by the ductus aorta, ductus arteriosus, ductus artery ductus venosus

207
Q

Which of the following are found within the decidua? (tick 3)

Chorion
Chorionic villi
Intervillous space
Uterine muscle

A

Which of the following are found within the decidua? (tick 3)

Chorion
*Chorionic villi
Intervillous space
Uterine muscle*

208
Q

The brain is said to shrink in old age. By how much?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 29%

A

The brain is said to shrink in old age. By how much?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 29%

209
Q

list at least five functions for the following

medulla oblongata

A

Medulla oblongata

1 Decussation of pyramids - crossing over of nerve fibres. This explains why the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body and vice versa.

2 Reticular formation - responsible for arousal from sleep and consciousness.

3 Cardiac centre - regulates force of contraction and heart rate.

4 Rhythmicity centre - regulates respiratory rhythm.

5 Vasomotor centre - regulates diameter of blood vessels around the body.

210
Q

list at least five functions for the following

hypothalamus

A

Hypothalamus

  1. Regulates hunger and food intake
  2. Regulates thirst and bodily water intake
  3. Regulates body temperature
  4. Control of the autonomic nervous system
  5. Sensory area for sound, taste and smell
  6. Associated with rage and aggression
  7. Mind over body phenomenon
211
Q

list at least five functions for the following

cerebellum

A

Cerebellum

  1. Coordination of subconscious movement
  2. Maintenance of balance and posture
  3. Muscle tone
  4. Sleek movements
  5. Sensations of anger and pleasure
212
Q

list at least five functions for the following

cerebrum

A

cerebrum

  1. Processing of sight, touch, smell and hearing
  2. Processing sensory impulses from the skin, muscles, bones and joints
  3. Control of voluntary skeletal muscle
  4. Intelligence
  5. Memory
  6. Ability to learn
  7. Reasoning
  8. Moral thought
  9. Extra sensory perception

Associate Ambulance Practitioner (63 decks)

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