Pulmonary Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements concerning omalizumab is correct?

a. Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor that causes bronchodilation
b. Indicated for initial therapy in pts who have allergies and mild, persistent asthma
c. Can cause anaphylaxis; the 1st dose must be administered in a healthcare setting
d. Can be administered IM at home if an adult or parent has received training
e. Is dosed based on IgG levels and body weight

A

c

-Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that prevents IgE binding to the high-affinity receptors on basophils and mast cells.
-Is used as adjunctive therapy for pts 6 years and older with allergies and severe, persistent asthma.
-Clinicians who administer omalizumab should be prepared and equipped to identify and treat anaphylaxis.
-Self-administration is now permitted in certain situations, but the first 3 doses must be given in a healthcare setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Place the instructions below for proper use of an albuterol MDI inhaler in the correct order.

a. Breathe out fully to expel as much air from the lungs as possible.
b. Shake for 5 seconds
c. Hold breath as long as possible, up to 10 seconds.
d. Press the top of the canister while breathing in deeply and slowly.
e. Place the mouthpiece into the mouth and close lips around it.

A

b, a, e, d, c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following meds can decrease theophylline levels?

a. Allopurinol
b. Citalopram
c. Carbamazepine
d. Primidone
e. Quinidine

A

c, d

-Other things that can decrease theophylline: Fosphenytoin, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin, ritonavir, smoking, St. John’s wort, levothyroxine, high-protein diet, and charbroiled meats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MS is a 4 y/o girl with asthma. She will receive montelukast. Select the correct dose for a 4 y/o child.

a. 4 mg chewable tab once daily in the evening
b. 5 mg chewable tab once daily in the evening
c. 5 mg chewable tab BID
d. 10 mg chewable tab once daily in the evening
e. 10 mg chewable tab BID

A

a

-Adults: 10 mg daily in the evening
-6-14 y/o: 5 mg daily in the evening
-1-5 y/o: 4 mg daily in the evening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A pt is prescribed Advair Diskus for her asthma. Which of the following counseling points should be reviewed?

a. Wash the Diskus with a wet cloth weekly.
b. If she doesn’t feel or taste the med, take another dose.
c. This isn’t a rescue med for acute asthma attacks.
d. Rinse the mouth with water and spit after each dose of med.
e. Never breathe into the Diskus.

A

c, d, e

-Never take an extra dose
-Keep the Diskus dry at all times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following med classes has a BBW regarding an increased risk of asthma-related deaths when used as monotherapy?

a. Long-acting beta-2 agonists
b. Leukotriene modifiers
c. Theophylline
d. Short-acting beta-2 agonists
e. Inhaled corticosteroids

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CH is a 16 y/o teenage who has asthma. His only meds are Ventolin HFA and Flovent HFA, which he uses both only PRN for acute symptoms. When asked how many times he has used his Ventolin, he states he used it twice on Sunday, one time on Tuesday, and one time on Wednesday. It’s now Thursday. What would be an appropriate recommendation to make at this time?

a. Take Ventolin 2 inhalations Q4-6H starting today, continue Flovent PRN.
b. Start salmeterol 1 inhalation BID for better symptom control, d/c Flovent PRN.
c. Continue to take Ventolin PRN for acute symptoms.
d. Start Pulmicort Flexhaler 2 inhalations BID for better symptom control, d/c Flovent PRN.
e. Start Singulair 20 mg PO QHS.

A

c, d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A pt is started on the ProAir RespiClick. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ProAir RespiClick?

a. This med contains a rescue drug, albuterol.
b. The device should be shaken before the dose is administered.
c. This med contains a propellant (e.g., HFA).
d. This med shouldn’t be used with a spacer device.
e. The dose should be administered with a quick and forceful inhalation.

A

a, d, e

RespiClick inhalers are DPIs. They have similar shape shape to an MDI, but they shouldn’t be shaken, and the dose should be administered with a quick, forceful inhalation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

PE: Few white plaques on the tongue

Which med is most likely contributing to the HEENT finding on the physical exam?

a. Pulmicort
b. Zyrtec D
c. ProAir
d. Theophylline
e. Ibuprofen

A

a

Inhaled corticosteroids, such as Pulmicort Flexhaler, can cause PO thrush.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

PE: Few white plaques on the tongue

How often, on average, is LY using her ProAir HFA inhaler based on the refill hx?

a. < 2 inhalations per week
b. 2 inhalations per day
c. 3-4 inhalations per day
d. 4-6 inhalations per day
e. 6-8 inhalations per day

A

c

Most albuterol inhalers, including ProAir HFA, contain 200 inhalations per canister. Based on the refill hx, LY used 1 inhaler in 56 days (between June 3rd and July 29th). 200 inhalations/56 days = 3.6 inhalations per day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

PE: Few white plaques on the tongue

How often, on average, is LY using her ProAir HFA inhaler based on the refill hx?

a. < 2 inhalations per week
b. 2 inhalations per day
c. 3-4 inhalations per day
d. 4-6 inhalations per day
e. 6-8 inhalations per day

A

c

Most albuterol inhalers, including ProAir HFA, contain 200 inhalations per canister. Based on the refill hx, LY used 1 inhaler in 56 days (between June 3rd and July 29th). 200 inhalations/56 days = 3.6 inhalations per day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following are possible side effects of the rescue inhaler, albuterol?

a. Tremor
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Bradycardia
e. Leukocytosis

A

a, b, c

Major side effects include: Nervousness, tremor, shakiness, cough, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, and hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

PMH: HTN, osteoarthritis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, and anxiety

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

Vitals: 5’6”, 125 lbs, BP 152/86, HR 95

PE: Few white plaques on the tongue

Which of the following are possible asthma triggers for LY?

a. Obesity
b. Ibuprofen
c. Stress
d. Allergic rhinitis
e. GERD

A

b, c, d, e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

PMH: HTN, osteoarthritis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, and anxiety

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

Vitals: 5’6”, 125 lbs, BP 152/86, HR 95

PE: Few white plaques on the tongue

Choose the correct statement regarding the use of a prednisone taper in LY.

a. PO steroids should only be used in severe, persistent asthma (step 6), not for exacerbations.
b. Since LY had an exacerbation, PO steroids should be continued indefinitely.
c. A taper is appropriate; prednisone should be used for the shortest duration possible.
d. Inhaled prednisone is the preferred form for an exacerbation.
e. Prednisone may cause LY to have a reduced appetite and anorexia.

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

PMH: HTN, osteoarthritis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, and anxiety

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

Vitals: 5’6”, 125 lbs, BP 152/86, HR 95

PE: Few white plaques on the tongue

Choose the correct statement regarding the use of a prednisone taper in LY.

a. PO steroids should only be used in severe, persistent asthma (step 6), not for exacerbations.
b. Since LY had an exacerbation, PO steroids should be continued indefinitely.
c. A taper is appropriate; prednisone should be used for the shortest duration possible.
d. Inhaled prednisone is the preferred form for an exacerbation.
e. Prednisone may cause LY to have a reduced appetite and anorexia.

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

PMH: HTN, osteoarthritis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, and anxiety

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

Which med on LY’s profile works by blocking phosphodiesterase and increasing cAMP?

a. ProAir HFA
b. Theophylline
c. Prednisone
d.Pulmicort Flexhaler
e. Zyrtec D

A

b

Theophylline is a non-selective phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

PMH: HTN, osteoarthritis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, and anxiety

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

Vitals: 5’6”, 125 lbs, BP 152/86, HR 95

Theophylline peak level (mcg/mL) = 7

When assessing theophylline tx in LY, which of following statements is true?

a. Her LD should have been calculated using her ideal body weight.
b. Her LD should have been calculated using total body weight.
c. Her level is below the goal therapeutic range.
d. Her level is within the goal therapeutic range.
e. Her level can’t be assessed as a trough should have been ordered.

A

b, d

-Therapeutic range for theophylline is 5-15 mcg/mL (peak levels at steady state are appropriate).
-In most pts, it should be dosed using IBW. In this case, LY’s weight is less than her IBW, so total body weight should be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

PMH: HTN, osteoarthritis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, and anxiety

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

Vitals: 5’6”, 125 lbs, BP 152/86, HR 95

Theophylline peak level (mcg/mL) = 7

Based on her recent asthma exacerbation and use of her ProAir HFA, LY needs a step up in her asthma tx. Which of the following would be appropriate?

a. D/c Pulmicort Flexhaler and start Advair Diskus
b. Continue her current meds and start Advair Diskus
c. Perform skin testing to determine if tx with reslizumab is needed
d. D/c Pulmicort Flexhaler and start salmeterol
e. D/c Pulmicort Flexhaler and start Flovent HFA

A

a

-Advair Diskus contains a LABA (which opens the airways) and an ICS (which reduces inflammation).
-Salmeterol is a LABA, and Flovent HFA contains fluticasone; neither would provide an appropriate step-up in tx.
-Use of monoclonal antibodies, such as reslizumab, should be reserved for pts with severe forms of eosinophilic asthma who have failed 1st line inhaled treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HPI: LY is a 45 y/o female who presents to her PCP on Aug 1st for a follow-up of multiple health problems, including a recent asthma exacerbation. She complains of stress and constantly worrying for the past year. She expresses fear about managing her finances and her health, though there have been no major changes in her life recently to contribute to this. She obtains Rx’s from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions from her PCP, but is often resistant to suggestions and advice from healthcare providers.

PMH: HTN, osteoarthritis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, and anxiety

Current Meds (obtained from active Rx bottles on 8/1):
-Zestril 10 mg QD
-HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
-ProAir HFA 2 inhalations Q6H PRN (last 2 refill dates: 7/29, 6/3)
-Protonix 40 mg QD
-Prednisone taper 10 mg QD x 4 days, 5 mg QD x 4 days, 2.5 mg x 2 days then stop (on day 5 of tx)
-Ibuprofen 400 mg QD
-Zyrtec D 1 tab BID
-Pulmicort Flexhaler 1 inhalation BID
-Theophylline 300 mg PO QD

Vitals: 5’6”, 125 lbs, BP 152/86, HR 95

Theophylline peak level (mcg/mL) = 7

In addition to an annual influenza vaccine, which of the following vaccination recommendations is appropriate for LY?

a. Pneumovax 23 after age 65
b. Prevnar 13 now and Pneumovax 23 after age 65
c. Vaxneuvance now and Pneumovax 23 in 12 months
d. Prevnar 13 now and Vaxneuvance in 12 months
e. Prevnar 20 now and Pneumovax 23 in 12 months

A

c

Vaxneuvance, followed by Pneumovax 23 in 12 months (or a single dose of Prevnar 20) is recommended for all pts 19-64 y/o with asthma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SC is a 4 y/o pt with moderate persistent asthma. He has been poorly controlled on an albuterol inhaler and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. The Dr wants to add a leukotriene modifier to SC’s regimen. Which agent can be recommended?

a. Zileuton
b. Theophylline
c. Indacaterol
d. Reslizumab
e. Montelukast

A

e

3 leukotriene modifiers are indicated for use in kids with asthma:
-Montelukast is indicated for pts at least 1 year of age
-Zafirlukast is indicated for pts >/= 5 years
-Zileuton is indicated for pts >/= 12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ST, a 35 y/o male, is in the hospital for an acute exacerbation of his asthma.

Meds:
Albuterol neb PRN
Ipratropium neb PRN
Protonix 40 mg IV daily
Aminophylline IV 1000 mg in 1L of NS at 30 mL/hr

How many mg of theophylline will ST receive per day?

A

576

1 mg/mL x 30 mL/hr x 24 hours = 720 aminophylline
The conversion for aminophylline to theophylline is 80%:
- 720 mg x 0.8 = 576 mg theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A pt states that he uses his albuterol inhaler 4 days per week (~ 6 puffs on each of those days). While completing a med rec at the clinic, the pharmacist notices that his albuterol inhaler is the Ventolin HFA brand that contains 60 inhalations per canister. Based on his current usage, how many wks will his inhaler last?

A

2.5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following meds can increase theophylline levels and possibly result in theophylline toxicity?

a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Bupropion
c. Zafirlukast
d. Famotidine
e. Clarithromycin

A

a, c, e

Drugs that can increase theophylline levels d/t CYP1A2:
-Ciprofloxacin
-Cimetidine
-Fluvoxamine
-Propranolol
-Zafirlukast
-Zileuton
Drugs that can increase theophylline levels d/t CYP3A4:
-Clarithromycin
-Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CD is a 25 y/o female with asthma whose home meds include Arnuity Ellipta 2 inhalations daily, Proventil HFA 1-2 inhalations Q4-6H PRN, loratadine 10 mg daily, and a MVI. She states that her symptoms are generally well-controlled but notices that she consistently has difficulty breathing during her aerobics class. What would be the most appropriate tx change for CD’s current complaint?

a. Take 2 inhalations of Proventil 5-15 min before exercise
b. Add prednisone 10 mg; take 2 hours prior to exercise
c. Take 2 inhalations of Arnuity Ellipta 30 min before exercise
d. Swith the Arnuity Ellipta to Flovent Diskus
e. D/c the Arnuity Ellipta and start salmeterol

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following meds is available as a DPI?

a. ProAir HFA
b. Alvesco
c. Breo Ellipta
d. Symbicort
e. Bevespi Aerosphere

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pulmicort Respules are used primarily in this population group:

a. Pts > 55 y/o
b. Adults 30-50 y/o
c. Children
d. Pts who have failed theophylline
e. Pts who have failed leukotriene modifying agents

A

c

Pulmicort Respules are nebulizer suspensions indicated for children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

JW is well-controlled on his asthma meds which include Flovent HFA 220 mcg 2 inhalations BID, salmeterol 1 inhalation BID, and Proventil HFA 1-2 inhalations Q4-6H PRN symptoms. He’s picking up his refills and asks if anything can help with his sore throat. When inspected, the pharmacist recognizes the sore throat is d/t thrush. What are some counseling points the pharmacist can provide that will help reduce JW’s risk of thrush in the future?

a. JW should drink 8 oz of water after taking his meds.
b. JW should gargle with warm water and spit out the rinse after using his meds.
c. JW should purchase a spacer device and use it with his salmeterol.
d. JW should purchase a spacer device and use it with his Flovent HFA.
e. JW shouldn’t kiss others as this infection is contagious.

A

b, d

Thrush is a side effect of his Flovent that can be decreased by using a spacer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

SF is an 18 month old boy who has been prescribed montelukast granules. Counsel the parents on how to administer the granules to their son:

a. Mix with 4 oz of applesauce and administer within 24 hours
b. The granule packet can be opened up to 8 hours prior to use
c. Mix with 1 tbs of warm water
d. Mix with a spoonful of cool, mashed carrots, and administer within minutes
e. Mix with a tbs of breast milk or formula; the mixture can be stored for up to 2 hours

A

d

-Instruct caregivers using the granules not to open the granule packet until they’re ready to use it since granules mixed with food or liquids can’t be stored.
-Can be mixed with 1 tsp (5 mL) of baby formula or breast milk, or a spoonful of applesauce, mashed carrots, rice, or ice cream.
-Whatever it’s mixed with must be cold or at room temp.
-Instruct the caregivers not to mix the granules with extra amounts of milk or food; they need to make sure the entire dose has been consumed.
-Administer the mixture immediately (within 15 min).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Place the instructions for proper use of Spiriva HandiHaler in the correct order.

a. Remove the capsule from the blister pack and insert it into the chamber
b. Close the mouthpiece and press the green button once
c. Inhale again to receive the full dose from the capsule
d. Breathe out fully away from the device before the first inhalation
e. Hold the device in a horizontal position and breathe in fully and deeply

A

a, b, d, e, c

Spiriva HandiHaler is a DPI. 2 inhalations are needed to get the full dose.

28
Q

Place the instructions for proper use of Combivent Respimat in the correct order.

a. Hold breath as long as possible, up to 10 seconds
b. Press the dose release button while taking a slow, deep breath in through the mouth
c. Exhale fully then place the lips around the mouthpiece
d. Open the cap until it snaps fully open
e. Turn the clear base in the direction of the arrow until it clicks

A

e, d, c, b, a

Combivent Respimat is a MDI, but it doesn’t need to be shaken prior to use. It’s dosed at 1 inhalation QID.

29
Q

Which of the following are screening tools that can be used to assess COPD symptom severity?

a. The COPD Assessment Test (CAT)
b. The WHO functional classification
c. The Modified British Medical Research Council (mMRC) dyspnea scale
d. The GOLD assessment of airflow limitation
e. Peak flow readings for the past 2 weeks

A

a, c

30
Q

HPI: DK is a 67 y/o male hospitalized on 11/15 for an acute exacerbation of his COPD and pneumonia. He’s intubated and has been in the ICU for 1 day.

PMH: COPD (last hospitalization 4 months ago), tobacco user (1 ppd), GERD

Home meds: Aclidinium (Tudorza Pressair) 1 inhalation BID, Nexium OTC PRN

Inpatient Orders:
Hold home meds during hospitalization
Ipratropium bromide 0.75 mg and albuterol 3.75 mg via neb Q4H
Zosyn 4.5 g IV Q8H
Cipro 400 mg IV Q12H
Protonix 40 mg IV daily

Which of the following interventions will provide the most benefit in slowing the progression of DK’s COPD?

a. Adding a phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor to his home regimen
b. Treating the infection in his lungs
c. Adding a SABA to his home regimen
d. Providing pulmonary rehab
e. Smoking cessation

A

e

Smoking cessation is the only management strategy proven to slow progression of COPD.

31
Q

HPI: DK is a 67 y/o male hospitalized on 11/15 for an acute exacerbation of his COPD and pneumonia. He’s intubated and has been in the ICU for 1 day.

PMH: COPD (last hospitalization 4 months ago), tobacco user (1 ppd), GERD

Home meds: Aclidinium (Tudorza Pressair) 1 inhalation BID, Nexium OTC PRN

Inpatient Orders:
Hold home meds during hospitalization
Ipratropium bromide 0.75 mg and albuterol 3.75 mg via neb Q4H
Zosyn 4.5 g IV Q8H
Cipro 400 mg IV Q12H
Protonix 40 mg IV daily

The pharmacy dispenses ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg and albuterol 2.5 mg per 3 mL. How many mL should be given to the pt to obtain the TDD of ipratropium bromide ordered?

a. 10 mL
b. 18 mL
c. 23 mL
d. 27 mL
e. 33 mL

A

d

0.5 mg/3 mL = 0.75 mg/x mL
x = 4.5 mL per dose
4.5 x 6 doses = 27 mL for the day

32
Q

HPI: DK is a 67 y/o male hospitalized on 11/15 for an acute exacerbation of his COPD and pneumonia. He’s intubated and has been in the ICU for 1 day.

PMH: COPD (last hospitalization 4 months ago), tobacco user (1 ppd), GERD

Home meds: Aclidinium (Tudorza Pressair) 1 inhalation BID, Nexium OTC PRN

Inpatient Orders:
Hold home meds during hospitalization
Ipratropium bromide 0.75 mg and albuterol 3.75 mg via neb Q4H
Zosyn 4.5 g IV Q8H
Cipro 400 mg IV Q12H
Protonix 40 mg IV daily

What type of med was DK taking at home for COPD?

a. Inhaled corticosteroid
b. Short-acting muscarinic antagonist
c. Long-acting beta-2 agonist
d. Long-acting muscarinic antagonist
e. Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor

A

d

33
Q

HPI: DK is a 67 y/o male hospitalized on 11/15 for an acute exacerbation of his COPD and pneumonia. He’s intubated and has been in the ICU for 1 day.

PMH: COPD (last hospitalization 4 months ago), tobacco user (1 ppd), GERD

Home meds: Aclidinium (Tudorza Pressair) 1 inhalation BID, Nexium OTC PRN

Inpatient Orders:
Hold home meds during hospitalization
Ipratropium bromide 0.75 mg and albuterol 3.75 mg via neb Q4H
Zosyn 4.5 g IV Q8H
Cipro 400 mg IV Q12H
Protonix 40 mg IV daily

Which vaccines should DK receive before discharge (if no contraindications are present)?

a. Influenza, meningococcal
b. Influenza, pneumococcal
c. Pneumococcal, meningococcal
d. Pneumococcal, varicella
e. Hepatitis meningococcal

A

b

Influenza (annual) and pneumococcal vaccines should be given to those with COPD.

34
Q

What is the most likely side effect from the use of Spiriva?

a. Urinary retention
b. Depression
c. Dry mouth
d. Constipation
e. Blurry vision

A

c

Spiriva can cause anticholinergic side effects, with the most common being dry mouth. Other anticholinergic side effects (e.g., urinary retention) are more likely with over-use of the medication.

35
Q

Which of the following classes of meds are considered bronchodilators?

a. Inhaled corticosteroids
b. Long-acting beta-2 agonists
c. Long-acting muscarinic antagonists
d. Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors
e. Short-acting beta-2 agonists
f. Short-acting muscarinic antagonists

A

b, c, e, f

36
Q

Which of the following meds contains a long-acting beta-2 agonist?

a. Spiriva Respimat
b. Advair Diskus
c. Symbicort
d. Combivent Respimat
e. Breo Ellipta

A

b, c, e

37
Q

Which drug requires pts to rinse their mouth with water and spit after use?

a. Revefenacin
b. Combivent Respimat
c. Arformoterol
d. Symbicort
e. Spiriva HandiHaler

A

d

37
Q

Which drug requires pts to rinse their mouth with water and spit after use?

a. Revefenacin
b. Combivent Respimat
c. Arformoterol
d. Symbicort
e. Spiriva HandiHaler

A

d

38
Q

Which drug requires pts to rinse their mouth with water and spit after use?

a. Revefenacin
b. Combivent Respimat
c. Arformoterol
d. Symbicort
e. Spiriva HandiHaler

A

d

39
Q

Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of COPD?

a. Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.7
b. Post-bronchodilator increase in FEV1 by > 12%
c. Peak expiratory flow rate < 80% of personal best
d. FEV1 < 60% predicted based on age
e. No other identifiable cause of symptoms

A

a

40
Q

Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of COPD?

a. Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.7
b. Post-bronchodilator increase in FEV1 by > 12%
c. Peak expiratory flow rate < 80% of personal best
d. FEV1 < 60% predicted based on age
e. No other identifiable cause of symptoms

A

a

41
Q

A pt is picking up a new Rx for an ipratropium inhaler and asks the pharmacist how to use it. Which of the following instructions should the pharmacist provide on the appropriate use of this med?

a. There’s no need to prime the device before use.
b. Breathe in slowly and deeply while pressing the top of the canister.
c. Breathe out immediately after inhaling.
d. Rinse your mouth after each use.
e. Shake the canister prior to each dose.

A

b

Ipratropium (Atrovent HFA) is a metered-dose inhaler that needs to be primed before the first dose (or if > 3 days from last use), but it doesn’t need to be shaken.

42
Q

Which of the following is the preferred resource for recommendations on the diagnosis, management, and prevention of COPD?

a. GINA guidelines
b. GOLD guidelines
c. IDSA guidelines
d. ASCO guidelines
e. ACOG guidelines

A

b

43
Q

Which of the following side effects should a pt be counseled on prior to starting arformoterol?

a. Thrush
b. Tremors
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Drowsiness
e. Depression

A

b

Arformoterol is a long-acting beta-agonist. Tremors, nervousness, tachycardia, and palpitations are common side effects of the beta-agonists.

44
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of COPD?

a. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
b. Smoking
c. Occupational chemical exposure
d. Indoor air pollution from cooking fumes
e. Outdoor air pollution

A

b

45
Q

Which of the following meds come as a DPI?

a. Combivent Respimat
b. Symbicort
c. Breo Ellipta
d. Spiriva HandiHaler
e. Umeclidinium (Incruse Ellipta)

A

c, d, e

DPI brand name identifiers: Diskus, Ellipta, Pressair, HandiHaler, Neohaler, RespiClick, Flexhaler

46
Q

What are the active ingredients in Breo Ellipta?

a. Budesonide + formoterol
b. Olodaterol + tiotropium
c. Glycopyrrolate + indacaterol
d. Fluticasone + vilanterol
e. Umeclidinium + fluticasone

A

d

47
Q

A 52 y/o female with COPD drops off a new prescription for roflumilast at the pharmacy. Which of the following side effects should the pharmacist counsel her on?

a. Constipation
b. Flushing
c. Pruritus
d. Sedation
e. Weight loss

A

e

The most common side effects of roflumilast are diarrhea and weight loss. It’s contraindicated in moderate to severe liver impairment and use is reserved for pts with very severe COPD.

48
Q

A pt is newly diagnosed with COPD. In order to determine appropriate therapy, what factors are considered in assessing the severity of his COPD?

a. Current symptoms
b. Age
c. Degree of airflow limitation
d. Exacerbation risk
e. Race

A

a, c, d

Presence of comorbidities are also used to determine the severity of disease.

49
Q

A Dr. wants to start a pt with COPD on Spiriva. What dose should the pharmacist recommend?

a. 1 inhalation once daily
b. 1 inhalation Q6H PRN
c. 2 inhalations BID
d. 1 inhalation QID
e. 2 inhalations once daily

A

e

50
Q

JT is a 43 y/o male with a hx of COPD, for which he currently takes Combivent Respimat and salmeterol. He presents to the clinic today for follow-up after recovering from an exacerbation. His labs show an eosinophil count of 450. What’s an appropriate recommendation to make at this time?

a. Add Atrovent HFA
b. Add Spiriva Respimat
c. Change salmeterol to formoterol
d. Change salmeterol to Advair Diskus
e. Add prednisone

A

d

Increased levels of eosinophils (>/= 300) suggest there’s inflammation present. An inhaled corticosteroid should be added to reduce the inflammation.

51
Q

What is the gold standard test used to diagnose COPD?

a. Spirometry
b. Peak flow
c. Chest x-ray
d. Bronchoscopy
e. V/Q scan

A

a

52
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of COPD?

a. Progressive worsening of the disease
b. Sputum production is common
c. Allergies are a typical comorbid condition
d. Symptoms are persistent
e. Exacerbations are a common occurrence
f. Onset of disease is usually in childhood

A

a, b, d, e

53
Q

CM is a 65 y/o male with a hx of hypothyroidism. He’s admitted to the hospital and has an NPO order. He takes levothyroxine 100 mcg PO daily at home, and the provider would like to switch him to IV levothyroxine. What is the most appropriate dose of IV levothyroxine for the pharmacist to dispense?

a. 112 mcg
b. 50 mcg
c. 200 mcg
d. 100 mg
e. 75 mcg

A

e

The recommended IV to PO levothyroxine ratio is 0.75:1

54
Q

All of the following are warnings associated with tadalafil (Adcirca) EXCEPT:

a. Hearing loss
b. Vision loss
c. Priapism
d. Hypotension
e. Hair loss

A

e

55
Q

A pt is admitted to the hospital on epoprostenol (Veletri). The healthcare team should ensure which of the following?

a. It’s administered via SC continuous infusion.
b. The pt receives a high-sodium diet.
c. The pt receives a scheduled doses of ibuprofen.
d. The med is continued without interruptions.
e. Back medication is cooled appropriate with ice packs.

A

d

56
Q

A pt with pulmonary arterial HTN who has a positive response to vasoreactivity testing should initially receive which med?

a. Diltiazem
b. Verapamil
c. Valsartan
d. Bisoprolol
e. Nitrates

A

a

CCBs (preferably dihydropyridine CCBs or diltiazem) are the mainstay of tx for pts who have a positive response to acute vasoreactivity testing.

57
Q

Which drug class, if taken during pregnancy, can increase the risk of pulmonary HTN in a newborn?

a. Methamphetamines
b. SSRIs
c. Aldosterone receptor antagonists
d. Epoprostenol
e. Weight loss meds

A

b

Methamphetamines and weight loss meds can cause pulmonary arterial HTN in adults who use them.

58
Q

Which PAH meds require a negative pregnancy test before starting and monthly thereafter?

a. Ambrisentan
b. Epoprostenol
c. Macitentan
d. Riociguat
e. Tadalafil

A

a, c, d

59
Q

Which med is matched with its correct MOA?

a. Tadalafil increases cGMP levels
b. Bosentan decreases cGMP levels
c. Ambrisentan stimulates endothelin receptors
d. Treprostinil stimulates endogenous nitric oxide
e. Iloprost is an endothelin receptor antagonist

A

a

60
Q

What is the MOA of riociguat?

a. Decreases the production of prostacyclin I2
b. Causes vasodilation by blocking endothelin receptors
c. Sensitizes the sGC receptor to nitric oxide
d. Prostacyclin receptor antagonist
e. Blocks calcium from entering slow channels

A

c

61
Q

Which of the following is a counseling point for Flolan?

a. Cooling packs are required for stability
b. Take one tab BID
c. Elevated BP can occur
d. Offers a cure for PAH
e. Start with 3 inhalations four times per day

A

a

Administered by continuous IV infusion in the hospital or at home. After reconstitution, Flolan solutions need to be kept cool with ice packs or other cooling packs.

62
Q

Which of the following describes the MOA of epoprostenol?

a. Prostacyclin analogue
b. Endothelin receptor antagonist
c. Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
d. Soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator
e. IV calcium channel blocker

A

a

63
Q

Which of the following are common side effects of epoprostenol?

a. HTN
b. Jaw pain
c. Flushing
d. Hepatotoxicity
e. Constipation

A

b, c

Vasodilation reactions (hypotension, flushing, HA, N/V) and jaw pain are expected side effects of epoprostenol.

64
Q

Which of the following meds can cause pulmonary fibrosis?

a. Dronedarone
b. Etoposide
c. Macitentan
d. Verapamil
e. Albuterol

A

a

Drugs that can cause pulmonary fibrosis:
-Amiodarone/dronedarone
-Bleomycin
-Busulfan
-Carmustine
-Lomustine
-Others: Nitrofurantoin and Sulfasalazine

65
Q

JW is an 80 y/o male with PAH, HTN, and hyperlipidemia who presents to the clinic complaining of lower extremity swelling. Current meds include ambrisentan, lisinopril, and rosuvastatin. Which of the following meds is the most appropriate to initiate?

a. Valsartan
b. Furosemide
c. Epoprostenol
d. Iloprost
e. Macitentan

A

b

66
Q

A 30 y/o female (75 kg) receives epoprostenol 3.8 mL/hr. She uses 2 epoprostenol 1.5 mg vials and dilutes them to a total volume of 100 mL. What is her dose in ng/kg/min?

a. 12.7
b. 25.3
c. 30.9
d. 55.9
e. 0.03

A

b

[( 3.8 mL/hr ) x ( 1 hr/60 min ) x ( 3 mg/100 mL ) x ( 1,000,000 ng/mg )] / 75 kg = 25.3 ng/kg/min

67
Q

Which of the following is true regarding infusions of epoprostenol?

a. The infusion pump heats epoprostenol for administration.
b. Parenteral administration can cause vision and hearing loss.
c. The drug must be protected from light during administration.
d. The infusion can be given IV or SC.
e. The infusion rate (in mL/hr) is the same for every pt.

A

c