Liver and Renal Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the need to test for HIV before starting HBV therapy?

a. Antivirals used for HBV can have activity against HIV
b. HBV tx requires higher doses of antivirals than HIV tx
c. HIV resistance can occur if HIV if unrecognized
d. A tx regimen for HIV will require the addition of a direct-acting antiviral to treat HBV
e. HIV and HBV share similar routes of transmission

A

a, c, e

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2
Q

Which of the following antiviral meds would be expected to have a drug-drug interaction with pantoprazole?

a. Paritaprevir/ritonavir/ombitasvir (Technivie)
b. Epclusa
c. Sofosbuvir (Sovaldi)
d. Sofosbuvir/velpatasvir/voxilaprevir (Vosevi)
e. Mavyret

A

b, d

The concentrations of ledipasvir and velpatasvir can be decreased by antacids, H2RAs, and PPIs. If a product contains either of these drugs, then co-administration with antacids, H2RAs, and PPIs should be avoided or separated.

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3
Q

YB is admitted to the hospital for an acute variceal bleed. She’s unable to provide information about her medical hx.

Labs:
WBC (4-11) = 13.6
Hgb (12-16 female) = 7.8
Hct (36-46 female) = 23.2%
Plt (150-450) = 143
Na (135-145) = 129
SCr (0.6-1.3) = 1.5
Albumin (3.5-5) = 2.8
INR = 2.8
Glucose (100-125) = 122
Ammonia (19-60) = 110
Alk Phos (33-131) = 225

Which of YB’s lab abnormalities indicate chronic liver disease and reduced synthetic function of the liver?

a. Leukocytosis and anemia
b. Hyponatremia and leukocytosis
c. Thrombocytopenia and increased creatinine
d. Hypoalbuminemia and increased INR
e. Thrombocytopenia and hyperglycemia

A

d

-Albumin and clotting factors are produced by the liver, thus low albumin and increased PT/INR are indicators of the reduced synthetic ability of the liver. This is often seen in chronic liver disease that has progressed to cirrhosis.
-Chronic liver disease labs:
> Increased AST/ALT, Alk Phos, Tbili, LDH, PT/INR
> Decreased albumin

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4
Q

YB is admitted to the hospital for an acute variceal bleed. She’s unable to provide information about her medical hx.

Labs:
WBC (4-11) = 13.6
Hgb (12-16 female) = 7.8
Hct (36-46 female) = 23.2%
Plt (150-450) = 143
Na (135-145) = 129
SCr (0.6-1.3) = 1.5
Albumin (3.5-5) = 2.8
INR = 2.8
Glucose (100-125) = 122
Ammonia (19-60) = 110
Alk Phos (33-131) = 225

Several days later, YB’s variceal bleed has been controlled. Her renal function is much improved, and her other labs are stable. She’s noted to have ascites. In addition to sodium restriction, which of the following is an appropriate recommendation for treating her ascites?

a. Furosemide 40 mg daily
b. Spironolactone 100 mg + HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
c. Furosemide 100 mg daily
d. Spironolactone 40 mg + furosemide 100 mg daily
e. Furosemide 40 mg + spironolactone 100 mg daily

A

e

Spironolactone + furosemide in a 100:40 ratio is recommended when diuretics are needed to manage ascites. The doses can be titrated, but this ratio should be maintained. Monotherapy with a loop diuretic isn’t effective and isn’t recommended.

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5
Q

YB is admitted to the hospital for an acute variceal bleed. She’s unable to provide information about her medical hx.

Labs:
WBC (4-11) = 13.6
Hgb (12-16 female) = 7.8
Hct (36-46 female) = 23.2%
Plt (150-450) = 143
Na (135-145) = 129
SCr (0.6-1.3) = 1.5
Albumin (3.5-5) = 2.8
INR = 2.8
Glucose (100-125) = 122
Ammonia (19-60) = 110
Alk Phos (33-131) = 225

The pharmacist received a new order for “Lactulose 30 mL PO Q6H. Titrate to 2-4 soft bowel movements per day.” Which of the following best describes the expected effect on YB’s labs?

a. Albumin should increase
b. Hemoglobin should increase
c. Platelets should increase
d. Ammonia should decrease
e. Alkaline phosphatase should decrease

A

d

Elevated serum ammonia (and other waste) is thought to be the cause of hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Lactulose is expected to lower serum ammonia level and improve symptoms. Despite the proven effect, ammonia and symptoms aren’t perfectly linked (e.g., a pt with a lower ammonia level could have worse symptoms than another pt with higher serum levels).

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6
Q

YB is admitted to the hospital for an acute variceal bleed. She’s unable to provide information about her medical hx.

Labs:
WBC (4-11) = 13.6
Hgb (12-16 female) = 7.8
Hct (36-46 female) = 23.2%
Plt (150-450) = 143
Na (135-145) = 129
SCr (0.6-1.3) = 1.5
Albumin (3.5-5) = 2.8
INR = 2.8
Glucose (100-125) = 122
Ammonia (19-60) = 110
Alk Phos (33-131) = 225

Several days later, YB’s acute variceal bleed has been controlled. Her renal function is much improved, and her other labs are stable. Her BP is 145/83, and HR is 83. Which of the following recommendations would reduce her risk of having another variceal bleed?

a. Start lisinopril and titrate to a SBP < 100 mmHg
b. Start HCTZ and double after 1 week if HR > 60 BPM
c. Start propranolol and titrate to a HR 55-60 BPM
d. Start nadolol and titrate to a SBP < 100 mmHg
e. Start atenolol and titrate to a HR 70-80 BPM

A

c

-A non-selective BB is preferred for treating portal HTN to reduce pressure in the splanchnic vasculature.
-Non-selective BBs (propranolol and nadolol) are useful for both primary and secondary prophylaxis of variceal bleeding and would be continued indefinitely.
-Titrate to a HR 55-60 BPM (or highest tolerated dose).

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7
Q

Which of the following natural products is used for liver disease?

a. Coenzyme Q10
b. Milk thistle
c. Feverfew
d. Magnesium
e. Soy

A

b

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8
Q

A pt complains of abdominal pain, nausea, itching, dark urine, and yellow eyes/skin. Which of the following tests can help evaluate the underlying cause?

a. BUN
b. Thiopurine methyltransferase
c. Total bilirubin
d. Amylase
e. Lipase

A

c

Pts with liver disease can present jaundiced d/t elevated total bilirubin.

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9
Q

In a pt unable to tolerate lactulose for the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy, which of the following would be the best recommendation?

a. Start rifaximin
b. Start neomycin
c. Start metronidazole
d. Start nadolol
e. Start octreotide

A

a

Lactulose is the preferred first-line therapy for the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy, followed by rifaximin. This decision is mainly driven by cost. The side effects associated with chronic neomycin or metronidazole treatment limit their use.

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10
Q

SH is beginning therapy with Pegasys (pegylated interferon-alfa-2a). The pharmacist will counsel him on possible side effects from Pegasys therapy. He should receive counseling on which of the following side effects?

a. Depression
b. Hair growth
c. Flu-like syndrome
d. Fatigue
e. Liver damage

A

a, c, d, e

Interferons have numerous side effects (e.g., CNS effects, GI upset, increased LFTs), making treatment difficult for the pt.

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11
Q

Which of the following meds can cause Fanconi syndrome, renal insufficiency, and osteomalacia?

a. Adefovir
b. Entecavir
c. Epivir HBV
d. Sofosbuvir
e. Viread

A

e

-Fanconi syndrome is a condition that causes new or worsening renal impairment. Some pts are born with Fanconi syndrome, and others acquire it through the use of certain drugs, such as tenofovir.
-Remember “NOF” for warnings with teNOFovir (N = nephrotoxicity, O = osteomalacia, F = Fanconi syndrome).

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12
Q

What is the benefit of using a pegylated formulation of interferon over a non-pegylated formulation?

a. Can be administered orally
b. Administered less often than non-pegylated interferon
c. Decreases the risk of AEs
d. More effective than non-pegylated interferon
e. Pretreatment with acetaminophen isn’t needed for pegylated interferon

A

b

The pegylated forms have polyethylene glycol added to the interferon via pegylation. This enhances the drug’s half-life (requiring less frequent dosing).

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13
Q

Which of the following meds have a BBW for liver damage?

a. Tylenol
b. Isoniazid
c. Depakote
d. Aleve
e. Nefazodone

A

a, b, c, e

Drugs with BBW for liver damage:
-Acetaminophen (high doses, acute or chronic)
-Amiodarone
-Isoniazid
-Ketoconazole (PO)
-Methotrexate
-Nefazodone
-Nevirapine
-NRTIs
-Propylthiouracil
-Valproic acid

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14
Q

Which of the following is a form of tenofovir?

a. Corgard
b. Inderal XL
c. Xifaxan
d. Epclusa
e. Viread

A

e

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15
Q

What is the preferred management of viral hepatitis A?

a. Supportive care and vaccination for prevention
b. Supportive care only; there’s no vaccine for hepatitis A
c. Pegylated interferon and vaccination for prevention
d. Direct-acting antiviral combo and vaccination for prevention
e. Direct-acting antiviral combo; there’s no vaccine for hepatitis A

A

a

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16
Q

KL, a 52 y/o male, presents to the ED with his brother. They were together at the mall when KL reported feeling lightheaded and then lost consciousness.

PMH: Hep C, HTN, HF, afib, diabetes

Meds: Epclusa, Toprol XL, Eliquis, Pacerone, Diovan, Lantus, Nexium

Vitals: 5’11”, 187 lbs, BP 137/79, HR 53, RR 16, Temp 99.1F

Abnormal Labs:
Glucose = 81

Which of KL’s meds interacts with his HCV regimen and can cause this presentation?

a. Eliquis
b. Nexium
c. Diovan
d. Lantus
e. Pacerone

A

e

KL is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia. Serious symptomatic bradycardia (sometimes requiring pacemaker insertion) has been associated with taking amiodarone (Pacerone) with a sofosbuvir-containing regimen. PPIs (e.g., Nexium) interact with Epclusa, leading to a reduced velpatasvir concentration, which can cause potential tx failure (not symptomatic bradycardia).

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17
Q

A pharmacist receives an Epivir Rx for a 32 y/o female whose PMH includes iron deficiency anemia, hypothyroidism, and hep B. The pharmacist should contact the prescriber to discuss which of the following?

a. The need for baseline pulmonary function testing before starting Epivir.
b. The appropriate Epivir formulation for the pt.
c. The contraindication to using Epivir in pts with hypothyroidism.
d. The need for premedication with an antihistamine before each Epivir dose.
e. The requirement to use Epivir in combo with another drug.

A

b

The Rx requires clarification with the prescriber as lamivudine has 2 brand names (I.e., Epivir and Epivir HBV) that have different doses. These brands aren’t interchangeable. Epivir is the form that’s approved for the tx of HIV. This pt needs to be prescribed Epivir HBV to treat her hep B.

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18
Q

Which of the following is used to assess the severity of liver disease?

a. Ranson’s Criteria
b. APACHE II Score
c. ASCVD Risk Score
d. Child-Pugh Classification
e. Well’s Criteria

A

d

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19
Q

KP has an uncle who passed away from complications of untreated hep C. She wants to be vaccinated against hep C and wants her children to receive the vaccines also. Her children are currently 2 y/o and 7 y/o. What advice should the pharmacist provide about hep C vaccination?

a. Her children likely received HCV vaccinations as part of the routine childhood vaccination series.
b. They can all receive the HCV vaccine now.
c. She can be vaccinated for HCV now. Her children can’t be vaccinated until they’re >/= 18 years of age.
d. There’s 1 combined vaccine for HAV, HBV, and HCV.
e. There’s no vaccine for HCV.

A

e

There are vaccines available for HAV and HBV.

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20
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate regimen for treating HCV?

a. Sofosbuvir + dasabuvir
b. Paritaprevir + voxilaprevir
c. Glecaprevir + pibrentasvir
d. Ribavirin
e. Ombitasvir + ritonavir

A

c

-Treatment of HCV requires at least 2 direct-acting antivirals (DAA) with different mechanisms.
-They include:
> NS3/4A protease inhibitors (-previr)
> NS5a replication complex inhibitors (-asvir)
> NS5B polymerase inhibitors (-buvir)
-Glecaprevir/Pibrentasvir (Mavyret) is a DAA approved for the tx of all 6 HCV genotypes

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21
Q

DW has a hx of alcohol abuse and cirrhosis secondary to alcohol. Which of the following would be considered to prevent alcohol relapse?

a. Acamprosate
b. Disulfiram
c. Nadolol
d. Naltrexone
e. Rifaximin

A

a, b, d

22
Q

MB is a 28 y/o female beginning therapy with ribavirin and pegylated interferon for the tx of hep C. What’s an important warning about ribavirin the pharmacist should counsel her on?

a. Causes flu-like syndrome after administration
b. Can decrease bone density and lead to osteoporosis
c. Causes birth defects if she were to become pregnant
d. Can cause neuropsychiatric disorders
e. Can cause rebound HTN if stopped abruptly

A

c

If a female pt taking ribavirin wishes to become pregnant, she must wait for 6 months after stopping ribavirin before she attempts pregnancy; continue using 2 forms of contraception during this time.

23
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the tx of HCV?

a. Each HCV genotype is treated with a distinctly different drug regimen.
b. Some of the preferred HCV regimens are also recommended for treating HBV.
c. The addition of ribavirin or interferon to a direct-acting antiviral (DAA) is required.
d. Monotherapy with an NS5B polymerase inhibitor is preferred.
e. Preferred regimens include at least 2 drugs with different MOAs.

A

e

24
Q

What is a significant adverse reaction associated with the use of ribavirin?

a. Photosensitivity
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Laryngoedema, trouble breathing
e. Lymphoma

A

c

The anemia associated with ribavirin most often occurs as dose-dependent hemolytic anemia, typically developing within the first 1-2 weeks of therapy.

25
Q

Which of the following drugs is correctly matched with the hepatitis virus that it treats?

a. Vemlidy - HCV
b. Ribavirin - HAV
c. Mavyret - HBV
d. Alfa interferons - HAV and HBV
e. Epclusa - HCV

A

e

-NRTIs (including Vemlidy) are used for HBV and/or HIV (indications are product specific)
-Ribavirin is used for HCV
-Alfa interferons are used for HBV and HCV
Mavyret and Epclusa are used for HCV

26
Q

Which of the following is a non-pharmacological recommendation for managing hepatic encephalopathy?

a. Restricting sodium intake
b. Restricting fluid intake
c. Restricting glucose intake
d. Restricting animal protein intake
e. Increasing fluid intake

A

d

27
Q

JH has cirrhosis and comes to the pharmacy to ask about pain medication for his headache. Which of the following should be avoided d/t the risk of decompensation?

a. Acetaminophen
b. Motrin
c. Tramadol
d. Excedrin Tension Headache
e. Aspercreme

A

b

-NSAIDs, including aspirin, can precipitate GI bleeding, blunt the diuretic response, and exacerbate renal dysfunction in pts with cirrhosis.
-Despite being a known hepatotoxin in high doses, acetaminophen is safer than NSAIDs in pts with liver disease if used at a reduced dose and used sparingly.
-Acetaminophen is recommended as the 1st-line choice.

28
Q

What is the MOA for lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy?

a. Converts ammonia to ammonium, which can’t diffuse back into the blood
b. Enhances water passage into the proximal renal tubule, allowing more ammonia to be excreted in the urine
c. Vasoconstricts the splanchnic circulation to reduce ammonia metabolism
d. Enhances the activity of urease-producing bacteria in the gut, leading

A
28
Q

What is the MOA for lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy?

a. Converts ammonia to ammonium, which can’t diffuse back into the blood
b. Enhances water passage into the proximal renal tubule, allowing more ammonia to be excreted in the urine
c. Vasoconstricts the splanchnic circulation to reduce ammonia metabolism
d. Enhances the activity of urease-producing bacteria in the gut, leading

A
29
Q

What is the MOA for lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy?

a. Converts ammonia to ammonium, which can’t diffuse back into the blood
b. Enhances water passage into the proximal renal tubule, allowing more ammonia to be excreted in the urine
c. Vasoconstricts the splanchnic circulation to reduce ammonia metabolism
d. Enhances the activity of urease-producing bacteria in the gut, leading to increased ammonia production
e. Reduces GI motility, allowing more time for colonic bacteria to break down ammonium

A

a

-Lactulose works in several ways.
-It’s metabolized in the gut to acetic acid and lactic acid; this acidification effectively traps ammonium in the GI tract and prevents it from diffusing back into the blood.
-The lowering of pH also causes a laxative effect that reduces the time for ammonia to be absorbed.
-Remember, lactulose can be used by any pt as a simple osmotic laxative.
-Rifaximin, neomycin, and metronidazole reduce ammonia-producing bacteria.

30
Q

Interferons are known to cause or aggravate which of the following?

a. Parkinson disease
b. Autoimmune disorders
c. Psychiatric symptoms
d. Ischemic disease
e. Infections

A

b, c, d, e

31
Q

Which of the following drug classes is used to treat ascites d/t portal HTN?

a. Anticholinergic
b. Neuraminidase inhibitor
c. Thiazide-like diuretic
d. Alpha antagonist
e. Aldosterone antagonist

A

e

Aldosterone antagonism (with spironolactone) improves ascites by increasing the excretion of sodium and water into the urine.

32
Q

Drugs that require adjustment in renal impairment include:

a. Enoxaparin
b. Gentamicin
c. Vancomycin
d. Moxifloxacin
e. Fluconazole

A

a, b, c, e

Select drugs that require decreased dose or increased interval in CKD:
-Aminoglycosides (increase dosing interval primarily)
-Beta-lactam AB’s (except antistaphylococcal penicillins and ceftriaxone)
-Fluconazole
-Quinolones (except moxifloxacin)
-Vancomycin
-LMWHs (enoxaparin)
-Rivaroxaban (for AF)
-Apixaban (for AF)
-Dabigatran (for AF)
-H2RAs (famotidine, ranitidine)
-Metoclopramide
-Bisphosphonates
-Lithium

33
Q

Which of the following treatments remove potassium from the body?

a. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Calcium gluconate
d. Regular insulin + D50W
e. Furosemide
f. Hemodialysis
e. Albuterol

A

a, e, f

-Calcium is used to stabilize the myocardium.
-The other meds work to push potassium intracellularly.

34
Q

Which of the following drugs is least likely to be substantially removed during hemodialysis?

a. Cefepime (Vd 0.26 L/kg)
b. Gentamicin (Vd 0.3 L/kg)
c. Vancomycin (Vd 0.7 L/kg)
d. Levofloxacin (Vd 1.27 L/kg)
e. Methotrexate (Vd 0.8 L/kg)

A

d

Drugs with a larger volume of distribution leave the bloodstream to a greater degree and aren’t significantly removed by hemodialysis.

35
Q

GK is a 68 y/o AA male with CKD d/t a long hx of uncontrolled HTN. He presents to his PCP for a routine check up and labs.

Height 175 cm
Weight 73 kg
Allergies NKA

8/7 Labs:
Glu 88 (65-99)
Na 140 (135-145)
K 4.4 (3.5-5)
Cl 100 (95-103)
HCO3 26 (24-30)
BUN 24 (7-20)
Cr 2.8 (0.6-1.3)
Mg 2 (1.3-2.1)
Phos 4.2 (2.3-4.7)
Ca 9.5 (8.5-10.5)
AST 40 (10-40)
ALT 38 (10-40)
Urine Albumin to Cr Ratio (ACR) 180

Which of the following meds is best to treat his HTN?

a. HCTZ
b. Verapamil
c. Ramipril
d. Amlodipine
e. Bumetanide

A

c

A normal urine albumin to creatinine ratio (ACR) is < 30 mg/g. All pts with albuminuria should receive tx with an ACE inhibitor or an ARB to decrease the progression of kidney damage, even if no HTN or diabetes is present.

36
Q

HPI: TH is a 57 y/o male who presents to the ED on 2/5 with a decreased level of consciousness. He was found to be unresponsive on the bathroom floor by his daughter, who came to check on him after a call from the dialysis center that he had missed 2 sessions. She had spoken to him 2 days prior, when he told her he had been to the Dr and gotten Rx’s for Tamiflu and a cough syrup after a positive influenza swab.

PMH: ERSD (anuric), iHD on MWF for 3.5 hours each session, HTN, osteoarthritis (knees), restless legs syndrome, hypothyroidism

Meds:
Ropinirole 0.5 mg PO QD
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO Q6H
Diovan 160 mg PO QD
Calcitriol 0.5 mg PO QD
Procrit 8000 units 3x/week during iHD
Ferric gluconate 125 mg IV with each dialysis session
Nephro-Vite 1 tab PO QD
Synthroid 125 mcg PO QD
Renvela 1600 mg PO TID with meals
Sensipar 60 mg PO QD
Tamiflu 30 mg PO QD x 5 days (started 2 days prior to admission)
Tums TID PRN dyspepsia (uses daily)

Allergies: Levofloxacin (dizziness, confusion), captopril (cough), peanuts (hives, stopped breathing)

What is the indication for Renvela in TH?

a. Increases calcium absorption
b. Increases vit D absorption
c. Decreases phosphate absorption
d. Lowers serum vit D levels
e. Lowers sodium levels

A

c

-Hyperphosphatemia occurs most often in late-stage renal insufficiency

37
Q

HPI: TH is a 57 y/o male who presents to the ED on 2/5 with a decreased level of consciousness. He was found to be unresponsive on the bathroom floor by his daughter, who came to check on him after a call from the dialysis center that he had missed 2 sessions. She had spoken to him 2 days prior, when he told her he had been to the Dr and gotten Rx’s for Tamiflu and a cough syrup after a positive influenza swab.

PMH: ERSD (anuric), iHD on MWF for 3.5 hours each session, HTN, osteoarthritis (knees), restless legs syndrome, hypothyroidism

Meds:
Ropinirole 0.5 mg PO QD
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO Q6H
Diovan 160 mg PO QD
Calcitriol 0.5 mg PO QD
Procrit 8000 units 3x/week during iHD
Ferric gluconate 125 mg IV with each dialysis session
Nephro-Vite 1 tab PO QD
Synthroid 125 mcg PO QD
Renvela 1600 mg PO TID with meals
Sensipar 60 mg PO QD
Tamiflu 30 mg PO QD x 5 days (started 2 days prior to admission)
Tums TID PRN dyspepsia (uses daily)

Allergies: Levofloxacin (dizziness, confusion), captopril (cough), peanuts (hives, stopped breathing)

Sensipar is used for what purpose in TH?

a. ESA used to treat anemia of CKD
b. Calcimimetic used to treat hyperparathyroidism
c. Phosphate binder used for hyperphosphatemia
d. Used with ACE inhibitors to reduce hyperkalemia
e. Vit D analogue used to decrease PTH release

A

b

Works to decrease PTH release from the parathyroid gland

38
Q

HPI: TH is a 57 y/o male who presents to the ED on 2/5 with a decreased level of consciousness. He was found to be unresponsive on the bathroom floor by his daughter, who came to check on him after a call from the dialysis center that he had missed 2 sessions. She had spoken to him 2 days prior, when he told her he had been to the Dr and gotten Rx’s for Tamiflu and a cough syrup after a positive influenza swab.

PMH: ERSD (anuric), iHD on MWF for 3.5 hours each session, HTN, osteoarthritis (knees), restless legs syndrome, hypothyroidism

Meds:
Ropinirole 0.5 mg PO QD
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO Q6H
Diovan 160 mg PO QD
Calcitriol 0.5 mg PO QD
Procrit 8000 units 3x/week during iHD
Ferric gluconate 125 mg IV with each dialysis session
Nephro-Vite 1 tab PO QD
Synthroid 125 mcg PO QD
Renvela 1600 mg PO TID with meals
Sensipar 60 mg PO QD
Tamiflu 30 mg PO QD x 5 days (started 2 days prior to admission)
Tums TID PRN dyspepsia (uses daily)

Allergies: Levofloxacin (dizziness, confusion), captopril (cough), peanuts (hives, stopped breathing)

TH should be instructed to separate Renvela from administration of which medication?

a. Diovan
b. Tums
c. Synthroid
d. Ropinirole
e. Ferric gluconate

A

c

39
Q

HPI: TH is a 57 y/o male who presents to the ED on 2/5 with a decreased level of consciousness. He was found to be unresponsive on the bathroom floor by his daughter, who came to check on him after a call from the dialysis center that he had missed 2 sessions. She had spoken to him 2 days prior, when he told her he had been to the Dr and gotten Rx’s for Tamiflu and a cough syrup after a positive influenza swab.

PMH: ERSD (anuric), iHD on MWF for 3.5 hours each session, HTN, osteoarthritis (knees), restless legs syndrome, hypothyroidism

Meds:
Ropinirole 0.5 mg PO QD
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO Q6H
Diovan 160 mg PO QD
Calcitriol 0.5 mg PO QD
Procrit 8000 units 3x/week during iHD
Ferric gluconate 125 mg IV with each dialysis session
Nephro-Vite 1 tab PO QD
Synthroid 125 mcg PO QD
Renvela 1600 mg PO TID with meals
Sensipar 60 mg PO QD
Tamiflu 30 mg PO QD x 5 days (started 2 days prior to admission)
Tums TID PRN dyspepsia (uses daily)

Allergies: Levofloxacin (dizziness, confusion), captopril (cough), peanuts (hives, stopped breathing)

Labs:
SCr 12.1
BUN 56

After complaining of leg pain and increased SOB on hospital day 2, a lower extremity ultrasound was performed and a DVT was found in his left calf. A CT of the chest revealed a PE. Which of the following regimens is appropriate to start in TH to treat acute DVT and PE?

a. Enoxaparin + dabigatran
b. Fondaparinux + warfarin
c. Heparin + wargarin
d. Enoxaparin + rivaroxaban
e. Heparin + dabigatran

A

c

This pt is receiving iHD. Fondaparinux, rivaroxaban, and dabigatran are all contraindicated in severe renal impairment for DVT/PE. Enoxaparin should be avoided, if possible, in iHD pts. Heparin and warfarin can be used in severe renal insufficiency.

40
Q

HPI: TH is a 57 y/o male who presents to the ED on 2/5 with a decreased level of consciousness. He was found to be unresponsive on the bathroom floor by his daughter, who came to check on him after a call from the dialysis center that he had missed 2 sessions. She had spoken to him 2 days prior, when he told her he had been to the Dr and gotten Rx’s for Tamiflu and a cough syrup after a positive influenza swab.

PMH: ERSD (anuric), iHD on MWF for 3.5 hours each session, HTN, osteoarthritis (knees), restless legs syndrome, hypothyroidism

Meds:
Ropinirole 0.5 mg PO QD
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO Q6H
Diovan 160 mg PO QD
Calcitriol 0.5 mg PO QD
Procrit 8000 units 3x/week during iHD
Ferric gluconate 125 mg IV with each dialysis session
Nephro-Vite 1 tab PO QD
Synthroid 125 mcg PO QD
Renvela 1600 mg PO TID with meals
Sensipar 60 mg PO QD
Tamiflu 30 mg PO QD x 5 days (started 2 days prior to admission)
Tums TID PRN dyspepsia (uses daily)

Allergies: Levofloxacin (dizziness, confusion), captopril (cough), peanuts (hives, stopped breathing)

Labs:
SCr 12.1
BUN 56
Ca 11.5

Which combo of TH’s meds could be contributing to his hypercalcemia?

a. Calcium carbonate and calcitriol
b. Procrit and calcitriol
c. Sensipar and valsartan
d. Ferric gluconate and calcitriol
e. Valsartan and Renvela

A

a

41
Q

HV is a 57 y/o male with CKD d/t long-term overuse of ibuprofen for osteoarthritis of the knee. He was recently started on candesartan and aspirin. On a routine follow-up of his labs, the following results are obtained.

Glu 107 (65-99)
Na 140 (135-145)
K 6.1 (3.5-5)
Cl 100 (95-103)
HCO3 24 (24-30)
BUN 28 (7-20)
Cr 3.4 (0.6-1.3)
Mg 1.8 (1.3-2.1)
Phos 5.1 (8.5-10.5)
AST 47 (10-40)
ALT 47 (10-40)

An ECG was ordered, which revealed abnormalities including peaked T-waves. He was admitted to the hospital to be treated for hyperkalemia.

Which of the following meds should be given first?

a. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
b. Albuterol
c. Insulin + dextrose
d. Calcium gluconate
e. Sodium bicarbonate

A

d

All of the answer choices are used in the tx of hyperkalemia, but this pt is experiencing ECG changes d/t hyperkalemia. In this instance, calcium is given 1st to stabilize the cardiac tissue (to prevent arrhythmia).

42
Q

A medical resident is writing post-dialysis orders for a pt under his care. She asks the pharmacist what factors cause a drug to be removed during HD. Which of the following statements concerning drug removal is correct?

a. High-flux dialysis membranes (or filters) are less efficient at removing drugs.
b. Highly protein-bound drugs are easily removed by dialysis.
c. Drugs with a larger Vd are cleared more easily than drugs with a smaller Vd.
d. Smaller molecular compounds (smaller drugs) are more easily cleared by dialysis.
e. Dialysis is very effective for removing drugs that are largely cleared by the liver.

A

d

43
Q

What is the mechanism of insulin when treating hyperkalemia?

a. Stabilizes the cardiac membrane
b. Increases the elimination of potassium in the urine
c. Binds to potassium in the intestines
d. Moves the potassium intracellularly
e. Increases the elimination of potassium in the stool

A

d

44
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding vit D?

a. Calcitriol is used to decrease dietary phosphate absorption.
b. Cholecalciferol is synthesized in the skin with UV light exposure.
c. Vit D3 is the primary dietary source of vit D.
d. Calcitriol is the active form of vit D2.
e. Vit D analogs (paricalcitol and doxercalciferol) cause more hypercalcemia than calcitriol.

A

b

-Calcitriol increases calcium absorption which helps inhibit PTH secretion.
-Cholecalciferol (vit D3) is synthesized in the skin.
-Remember cholecalciferol and calcitriol start with “C” which rhymes with “3” (for D3) and you can also “see” sunlight on the skin.
-Ergocalciferol is vit D2, which is produced in plants.
-The vit D analogs are associated with less hypercalcemia than calcitriol.

45
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate initial tx for hyperphosphatemia in CKD?

a. Limiting dietary phosphate intake
b. Lanthanum carbonate
c. Paricalcitol
d. Sevelamer hydrochloride
e. Ferric citrate

A

a

46
Q

PW was prescribed lanthanum carbonate tabs. How should the daily dose be administered?

a. Swallow whole in the morning, half an hour before breakfast.
b. Chew and swallow the daily dose in the evening (at bedtime).
c. Divide the daily dose and chew before each meal.
d. Divide the daily dose and swallow whole after each meal.
e. Swallow whole in the evening (at bedtime).

A

c

-Phosphate binders work by binding phosphate in the gut to prevent absorption. They need to be in the gut when the food is in the gut, or they aren’t useful.
-Lanthanum carbonate tabs must be chewed thoroughly in order for the drug to work properly and to avoid a GI obstruction.

47
Q

Which of the following drugs can be initiated in a pt with an estimated GFR of 20?

a. Xarelto for DVT
b. Stribild for HIV
c. Metformin for T2DM
d. Zosyn for an infection
e. Meperidine for pain

A

d

48
Q

JS has been using famotidine 20 mg BID for 5 years. Initially, his CrCl was estimated at 78. His BP has been poorly controlled, which has worsened his renal function and the CrCl has declined to 26. Which of the following statements is correct regarding his famotidine use?

a. Famotidine is contraindicated
b. Famotidine could accumulate and cause AEs
c. The efficacy of famotidine would decrease
d. Famotidine could further damage the kidneys
e. There would be no effect; famotidine isn’t cleared renally

A

b

49
Q

Which of the following meds is/are nephrotoxic?

a. Cisplatin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Metformin
d. Nitrofurantoin
e. Furosemide
f. Amikacin

A

a, b, e, f

50
Q

LM is a 73 y/o female. She’s 5’2” and weighs 102 pounds. Her serum creatinine today is 1.4 mg/dL. What is LM’s creatinine clearance?

a. 26 mL/min
b. 31 mL/min
c. 28 mL/min
d. 36 mL/min
e. 20 mL/min

A

a