Pain Flashcards

1
Q

Select the correct MOA for naproxen.

a. Antagonist at the mu-opioid receptor in the CNS
b. Inhibits cyclooxygenase, which reduces prostaglandin formation and decreases pain and inflammation
c. Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
d. Agonist at the mu-opioid receptor in the CNS
e. Decreases substance P and reduces pain transmission from the nerve ending (localized effect)

A

b

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2
Q

A pt developed trouble breathing with laryngospasm after receiving an injection of morphine in the hospital. Which of the following would not present a risk of cross-reaction for this type of allergy?

a. Fentanyl
b. Methadone
c. Meperidine
d. Tapentadol
e. Oxymorphone

A

a, b, c, d

-The US tapentadol labeling doesn’t include a CI for pts with an opioid allergy of the morphine type. The package insert for tramadol does have this CI, and the two drugs are structurally similar.

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3
Q

Which of the following agents have a BBW to avoid any amount of alcohol as it could result in fatal OD due to increased absorption?

a. Norco
b. Soma
c. Zohydro ER
d. Kadian
e. Nucynta ER

A

c, d, e

Alcohol use should be avoided with any opioids, but with these agents, the opioid level could become toxic (fatal) d/t altered absorption of the ER formulation.

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4
Q

A prescriber wishes to use hydromorphone in his 55 y/o pt, who’s beginning opioid therapy. The pt had been misdiagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis but was found to have pain d/t cancer with metastases to the bone. Select a reasonable PO hydromorphone starting dose for an opioid-naive pt with an avg pain level of 8-9. He’s currently taking no other meds. Choose the correct initial dose.

a. 0.5 mg PO Q4-6H
b. 2 mg PO Q4-6H
c. 6 mg PO Q4-6H
d. 8 mg PO Q4-6H
e. 8 mg PO Q12H

A

b

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5
Q

CP is well-known to your pharmacy. Whenever she picks up her medication, she checks her BP on the machine and yells out, “Gosh, it’s always so high!” CP uses Zestril, Procardia XL, Tenormin, Celexa, and Celebrex. She purchases OTC ibuprofen, magnesium, and vit. D supplements. Which agent/s may be contributing to her elevated BP?

a. Ibuprofen
b. Celecoxib
c. Magnesium
d. Zestril
e. Procardia XL

A

a, b

-All NSAIDs can increase BP, including the COX-2 selective agent celecoxib (Celebrex).
-Magnesium can lower BP
-Pts shouldn’t be using 2 NSAIDs concurrently, with the possible exception of low-dose aspirin for cardioprotection.

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6
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms would be present in a pt who’s received an OD of Dilaudid?

a. Sedation
b. Shallow breathing, faint breath sounds
c. Cold and clammy skin
d. Tachypnea
e. Pinpoint pupils

A

a, b, c, e

S/sx include: Extreme sleepiness, slow or shallow breathing, fingernails or lips turning blue or purple, extremely small “pinpoint” pupils, slow HR and/or BP, cold and clammy skin

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7
Q

JS has been hospitalized for many months receiving chemo. He’s stabilized, and his pain is manageable on Dilaudid 2 mg IV Q3H. In anticipation of discharge, the med team would like to convert him to an PO pain medication regimen. The palliative care physician wants to switch to MS Contin Q12H. How many mg of MS Contin PO Q12H is equivalent to JS’s current Dilaudid regimen? (Round to the nearest WHOLE number.)

A

160 mg PO Q12H

Hydromorphone 1.5 mg IV is equivalent to morphine (MS Contin) 30 mg PO

(16 mg hydromorphone IV) / (X mg morphine PO) = (1.5 mg hydromorphone IV) / (30 mg morphine PO)

16 x 30 = 1.5x
x = 320 mg morphine PO QD (or MS Contin 160 mg PO Q12H)

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8
Q

A pt regularly uses OTC pain relieving creams such as BenGay and Icy Hot that she applies to the painful, tender skin around the Achilles tendon. What’s the common ingredient in these OTC products?

a. A salicylate
b. Diclofenac
c. Capsaicin
d. Ibuprofen
e. Naproxen

A

a

Menthol and camphor are common additives; every pharmacy has its own store versions of these popular, topical analgesics, in various strengths

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9
Q

Which of the following meds and doses are roughly equivalent to 30 mg PO morphine?

a. 10 mg PO hydrocodone
b. 10 mg IV oxycodone
c. 10 mg IV morphine
d. 7.5 mg IV hydromorphone
e. 1.5 mg PO hydromorphone

A

c

-Oxycodone isn’t available in an IV form

Correct equivalent doses to 30 mg PO morphine:
-30 mg PO hydrocodone
-20 mg PO oxycodone
-7.5 mg PO hydromorphone or 1.5 mg IV hydromorphone

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10
Q

EJ has been using IR oxycodone PRN for pain management for the past several months. She can’t swallow most pills and crushes her meds. The Dr wishes to provide better pain control and wants to use a long-acting medication. Which of the following meds would be an appropriate recommendation?

a. Excedrin
b. Dilaudid
c. MS Contin
d. Kadian
e. Roxicodone

A

d

-Long-acting opioid tabs can’t be crushed; this could be fatal
-Kadian is a long-acting morphine capsule form that can be opened, but the beads can’t be chewed or crushed.

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11
Q

A Dr has received a DATA 2000 waiver from the DEA to prescribe buprenorphine. The pharmacist will know that the Dr is authorized to write for this drug if:

a. The DEA number begins with a B
b. The DEA number begins with a C
c. The DEA number begins with a P
d. The DEA number begins with an X
e. No special designation is required

A

d

The Drug Addiction Treatment Act of 2000 (DATA 2000) allows physicians who meet certain qualifications to treat opioid addiction with Schedule III, IV, and V meds that have been specifically approved by the FDA for addiction, such as buprenorphine forms (which are C-III).

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12
Q

A pt has chronic back pain and requires both analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. Previously, the pt had a GI bleed from chronic use of ibuprofen that he was purchasing OTC. The physician will begin celecoxib therapy. The pt has the following med hx: HTN, elevated triglycerides, MI (twice), HF, and alcoholism. Choose the correct statement regarding celecoxib use in this pt.

a. Celecoxib use must be limited to < 5 days in this pt
b. Celecoxib isn’t an appropriate choice for this pt
c. A more appropriate option is Kadian
d. A more appropriate option is Nucynta ER
e. A more appropriate option is the Lidoderm patch

A

b

-The pt has a high CV risk and shouldn’t use celecoxib
-Nucynta ER and Kadian are long-acting forms of morphine that can’t be used with alcohol; alcohol increases the absorption and could cause the pt to receive a dangerous or even fatal dose
-The lidocaine patch would provide analgesia but no anti-inflammatory effects

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13
Q

NSAIDs have BBWs related to which of the following serious AEs and conditions?

a. GI AEs including bleeding, ulceration, and perforation of the stomach or intestines
b. CV thrombotic events, MI, and stroke, possibly within the 1st weeks of use
c. Risk of severe rash, including SJS and TEN
d. NSAIDs are contraindicated for peri-operative pain management in pts receiving coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery
e. Risk of certain types of cancer, including skin cancer and lymphomas

A

a, b, d

-Although there’s not a BBW for severe rash, there have been cases of SJS in recent years from the use of ibuprofen and acetaminophen. Even these relatively safe agents are dangerous in some pts.

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14
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning tramadol.

a. The brand name is Ultracet
b. It’s a C-IV drug
c. There’s no risk of serotonin syndrome if used with serotonergic drugs
d. Diarrhea can occur with chronic use
e. It’s converted to an active metabolite by CYP3A4

A

b

-Caution in using tramadol with other serotonergic agents and in pts with seizure hx (do not use)
-Tramadol is constipating (the more used, the worse the problem) and is C-IV

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15
Q

Which of the following isn’t used for opioid-induced constipation (OIC)?

a. Relistor
b. Amitiza
c. Senna
d. Belbuca
e. Movantik

A

d

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16
Q

What is the scheduled category for Norco?

a. C-I
b. C-II
c. C-III
d. C-IV
e. C-V

A

b

All opioids are C-II, except where noted otherwise:
-Codeine tablet/capsule combo products are C-III
-Codeine PO solution combo products are C-V

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17
Q

A hospitalized pt is being switched from morphine to hydromorphone. The pharmacist first calculates the TDD and then reduces the dose of the new drug. Why did the pharmacist make a reduction after calculating the TDD of hydromorphone?

a. The pt may be addicted to the morphine.
b. The pt may have developed pseudo-addiction to the morphine and therefore requires a lower hydromorphone dose.
c. The pt may have developed tolerance to the morphine and therefore requires a lower hydromorphone dose.
d. The pt may absorb less morphine than hydromorphine.
e. The pt may have been selling the morphine on the street.

A

c

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18
Q

A pt has received an Rx for oxycodone-acetaminophen (Percocet). Choose the correct statement/s.

a. This is a C-II medication
b. CYP3A4 inhibitors will increase the concentration of this med
c. CYP3A4 inducers will increase the concentration of this med
d. Healthcare providers should be able to report abuse of this med
e. OxyContin contains only oxycodone

A

a, b, d, e

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19
Q

A hospitalized pt who had a hip replacement has been receiving hydromorphone. The opioid wasn’t dosed correctly for the pt. The nurse finds the pt with cold, clammy skin. On exam, the pupils are pinpoint, and the breathing is shallow and labored. Choose the correct antidote.

a. Suboxone
b. Naloxone
c. Flumazenil
d. Deferoxamine
e. Physostigmine

A

b

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20
Q

An elderly gentleman has been taking tramadol 50 mg 5-8x daily for 12 months for back and joint pain. The pt also used lorazepam 1 mg 4-5x daily over the same time period. If the pt attempts to stop either of these meds, he will experience shakiness, agitation, and tachycardia d/t which of the following?

a. Pseudo-addiction
b. Opioid hyperalgesia
c. Physiological adaptation
d. Addication
e. Tolerance

A

c

-All pts using enough opioids (or BZDs or barbiturates) will develop physical dependence if used chronically at regular dosing intervals.
-Physical withdrawal symptoms (e.g., shakiness, tachycardia, and agitation) can develop when the opioid or BZD is abruptly stopped.
-Addiction implies a psychological need to use the drug, such as getting a “high” from the drug.

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21
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning ketorolac.

a. The max combined duration of tx (parenteral, PO, and nasal forms) is 5 days.
b. Begin with PO or nasal therapy and switch to IV ASAP.
c. The max recommended duration of tx is 10 days.
d. Ketorolac is for pre-op use only.
e. Ketorolac can be used in pts with severe renal impairment.

A

a

-Ketorolac usually begins with IV therapy and is switched to PO ASAP.
-A nasal form, Sprix, is available.
-The drug has a 5-day max tx duration d/t the high risk of AEs, including GI perforation and bleeding.
-It can never be used pre-operatively as it increases bleeding risk.

22
Q

A pt has been instructed by her provider to open her Kadian capsule and sprinkle the beads on applesauce. The pharmacist should include this essential info in the counseling:

a. The applesauce must be eaten immediately; don’t chew the beads.
b. The applesauce can be stored for up to 30 min.
c. The applesauce can be stored for up to 60 min.
d. The beads can be crushed if the pt continues to have difficulty swallowing.
e. The beads can’t be crushed but can be chewed slowly.

A

a

23
Q

A male pt with T1DM and chronic back pain has been using chronic opioid therapy for several months. He will begin using Relistor. This med can be used in pts who meet which of the following criteria?

a. The pt has diarrhea
b. The pt has constipation
c. The pt has failed tx with senna and bisacodyl
d. The pt has an intestinal blockage
e. The pt is female; it’s only indicated for IBS-C in females

A

b, c

-Methylnaltrexone (Relistor) is reserved for opioid-induced constipation (OIC) in pts who fail a stool softener-stimulant laxative combo.
-It’s available as an SC injection and tablet for the tx of OIC in pts with chronic non-cancer pain.

24
Q

A pt with rheumatoid arthritis uses daily ibuprofen therapy and requires occasional therapy with prednisone for acute flares. She’s reporting abd pain with burning. Upon exam, she’s found to have GI ulceration, which the Dr feels is d/t her use of these meds. She’s not a candidate for celecoxib. Which med would provide the strongest protection from NSAID-induced GI ulceration and bleeding?

a. Famotidine
b. Calcium acetate
c. Rabeprazole
d. Sucralfate
e. Metoclopramide

A

c

A PPI could be used to decrease stomach acid and reduce GI damage.

25
Q

What is the correct indication for the Lidoderm patch?

a. Post-herpetic neuralgia
b. Diabetic neuropathic pain
c. Post-polio syndrome
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
e. Fibromyalgia

A

a

-Post-herpetic neuralgia (PHN) is shingles pain.
-Lidocaine patches can also be used for the temporary relief of localized pain.

26
Q

A pharmacist is counseling a mother on the safe use of OTC analgesics for her 6 y/o son’s fever. Counseling should include the following safety consideration:

a. Aspirin products should be avoided in children except if a viral disease is present.
b. Infant drops must be dispensed with a dosing cup or PO syringe.
c. Ibuprofen causes less stomach upset than acetaminophen in young children.
d. Ibuprofen lasts a little longer than acetaminophen.
e. Acetaminophen provides better fever relief than ibuprofen.

A

d

Infant drops come with a dropper inside the bottle that’s used to measure the dose.

27
Q

Practitioners prescribing methadone must be familiar with the safe use of this narcotic. Methadone requires special safety considerations d/t which of the following factors?

a. It has a BBW for increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behavior
b. It can increase testosterone levels leading to aggressive behavior
c. Major CYP3A4 substrate with many DDIs
d. Variable duration of action (half-life)
e. Risk for QT prolongation, esp at higher doses

A

c, d, e

Methadone decreases testosterone and contributes to sexual dysfunction

28
Q

A pt is starting diclofenac gel for pain relief d/t osteoarthritis in her knees, wrists, and elbows. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The pt should squeeze the desired amount onto the skin and rub until the affected area is completely covered.
b. The pt should apply the med to the affected areas BID.
c. The pt should apply 4 g to the elbows and wrists and 2 g to the knees.
d. The pt should use no more than 32 g of diclofenac gel daily.
e. The pt should wet the affected area before applying the gel to maximize absorption.

A

d

-A dosing card is used to measure the correct dose of gel. Use the reusable dosing card inside the package to correctly measure each dose.
-The med should be applied to affected areas 4x daily.
-The dose for hands, wrists, or elbows is 2 g applied 4x daily. The dose for feet, ankles, or knees is 4 g applied 4x daily.
-Do not shower, bathe, or wash your treated hands for at least 1 hour after application.

29
Q

Select the correct MOA for morphine.

a. Antagonist at the mu-opioid receptor in the CNS
b. Inhibits cyclooxygenase, which reduces prostaglandin formation and decreases pain and inflammation
c. Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
d. Agonist at the mu-opioid receptor in the CNS
e. Decreases substance P and reduces pain transmission from the nerve ending (localized effect)

A

d

30
Q

A pharmacist has an Rx for Suboxone. The drug consists of the following agents:

a. Hydromorphone + naltrexone
b. Fentanyl + nalbuphine
c. Buprenorphine + naloxone
d. Morphine + nalbuphine
e. Methadone + methylnaltrexone

A

c

-Buprenorphine is used for pain and addiction tx.
-The addition of naloxone is to block an opioid if used. This provides the drug with a lower abuse potential than other pain agents.

31
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning the fentanyl patch.

a. Most pts can change the patch every 7 days.
b. Some pts require a new patch every 24 hours.
c. The patch can be used PRN for pain control.
d. Apply the patch to either the right or left thigh.
e. Apply the patch above the waist on the front or back, on the upper arm, or chest.

A

e

The fentanyl patch is for chronic pain management only; it’s never used “as needed.” The normal duration is to change the patch every 3 days.

32
Q

What is the scheduled category for tapentadol?

a. C-I
b. C-IV
c. C-III
d. C-II
e. C-V

A

d

33
Q

A pt receiving an NSAID long-term should receive the following counseling point/s:

a. The med is safe to use in HF if the pt doesn’t exceed recommended doses.
b. It can lower BP; take at bedtime to avoid orthostasis.
c. Limit sun exposure and wear protective clothing and sunscreen.
d. This med should be taken with food to help reduce nausea.
e. Monitor stool color; if it turns dark and “tarry” looking, the pt may have stomach bleeding.

A

c, d, e

34
Q

Select the correct OTC dosing for ibuprofen for an adult.

a. 200 mg tabs, Q12H, take 1-2 as needed
b. 400 mg tabs, Q4-6H, take 1-2 as needed
c. 100 mg tabs, Q4-6H, take 1-2 as needed
d. 100 mg tabs, Q6-8H, take 1-2 as needed
e. 200 mg tabs, Q4-6H, take 1-2 as needed

A

e

The recommended OTC ibuprofen dose is 1-2 tabs (200 mg/tab) Q4-6H as needed. The max OTC ibuprofen dose is 1200 mg daily (vs. 3200 mg daily if prescribed).

35
Q

A pt developed trouble breathing and hypotension when receiving morphine IV in the hospital. Which drug would not pose a risk for cross-reaction in a pt with an allergy to morphine?

a. Oxycodone
b. Fentanyl
c. Hydromorphone
d. Hydrocodone
e. Oxymorphone

A

b

Fentanyl (Duragesic), meperidine (Demerol), and methadone (Dolophine) don’t cross-react with opioids of the morphine type.

36
Q

Which of the following agents come in forms that are useful for topical application?

a. Ibuprofen
b. Methyl salicylate
c. Diclofenac
d. Capsaicin
e. Lidocaine

A

b, c, d, e

37
Q

A pt has a hx of bipolar disorder with chronic episodes of major depression. In the past, she was prescribed oxaprozin, an older NSAID, and developed a GI bleed. She’s having her 1st episode of gout, and the Dr is recommending indomethacin. Allergies include amoxicillin (rash), sulfamethoxazole, and carbamazepine. Which statements represent correct advice that could be provided to the prescriber?

a. Indomethacin has a high risk for GI toxicity, including ulceration and bleeding.
b. Indomethacin has a high risk for psychiatric side effects.
c. Indomethacin can’t be used d/t the pt’s allergy profile.
d. The brand name of indomethacin is Mobic.
e. Indomethacin is highly selective for the COX-2 enzyme.

A

a, b

-Indomethacin (Indocin) has a high GI toxicity risk and high risk for psychiatric disturbances (avoid in psych conditions).
-It doesn’t cross-react with any of the pt’s stated allergies.
-It’s a COX-1 and COX-2 non-selective NSAID.

38
Q

A pharmacist is discussing skeletal muscle relaxants with the med team. Correct statements should include the following:

a. Cyclobenzaprine has the lowest efficacy in this group but a lower abuse potential.
b. Carisoprodol has the highest abuse potential and can be very dangerous when mixed with other drugs.
c. Poor CYP3A4 metabolizers will have higher carisoprodol concentrations (up to 4-fold).
d. Cyclobenzaprine is the safest agent in the class if the pt is using other serotonergic drugs.
e. Tizanidine has the lowest risk for hypotension.

A

b

-Carisoprodol is C-IV; its use should be limited to 2-3 weeks.
-Poor CYP2C19 metabolizers will have higher carisoprodol concentrations (up to 4-fold).
-Cyclobenzaprine should not be combined with other serotonergic agents.
-Tizanidine can cause hypotension.

39
Q

Aspirin exerts its antiplatelet effects via inhibition of:

a. Cyclooxygenase 1 and 2
b. Cyclooxygenase 2
c. Prostaglandin
d. Angiotensin II
e. Chloride channels

A

a

Aspirin is an irreversible inhibitor of COX 1 and 2. It inhibits COX-1 in platelets, preventing the formation of thromboxane A2.

40
Q

Auxiliary labels for most opioids should include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Do not use with alcohol
b. Do not share with others; keep away from children and animals
c. Take with food or milk
d. If long-acting, cut only on the scoreline and do not crush or chew
e. Use caution when driving, operating machinery or performing other hazardous activities

A

d

None of the long-acting opioids can be cut in half. If they are long-acting, this would release the drug more quickly and could be fatal.

41
Q

CW is a 28 y/o female who was in a car accident. She wasn’t severely injured but has a fair amount of soreness and aches. She was given an Rx for hydrocodone 5 mg-acetaminophen 325 mg and instructed to rotate using this med with OTC extra strength acetaminophen 500 mg alone. She states that she uses 4-5 Rx pills daily and 6-8 OTC acetaminophen. Choose the correct statement: The primary risk to the pt is….

a. Respiratory depression
b. Liver damage
c. Renal damage
d. Muscle toxicity
e. Cardiotoxicity

A

b

The TDD of all acetaminophen shouldn’t exceed 4000 mg daily. There’s a particular risk in pts taking extra strength tabs that contain 500 or 650 mg acetaminophen per tab.

42
Q

JM was in an auto accident 6 months ago. He suffered a TBI with resultant seizures. He has been receiving Keppra to prevent further seizures. His other meds include metoprolol ER (for HTN) and citalopram (for depression). JM was taking ibuprofen for pain, but the pain control has been poor, and his stomach upset has become unbearable. Choose the appropriate tx option for pain control for this pt at this time.

a. Tramadol
b. Meperidine
c. Fentanyl patch
d. Hydromorphone
e. Hydrocodone-Acetaminophen

A

e

-An opioid can be considered for mild-mod pain not controlled with a non-opioid alone.
-Tramadol and meperidine can’t be used in pts with a risk of seizure, and meperidine isn’t used for chronic pain management.
-Fentanyl can be used in pts who have used other opioids first, but it’s not indicated for initial opioid therapy.
-Hydromorphone is potent and is generally not an initial opioid choice.

43
Q

A pt has been prescribed Lyrica. The pharmacist should counsel her on the possibility of these side effects:

a. Dizziness
b. Peripheral edema
c. Somnolence
d. Weight loss
e. QT prolongation

A

a, b, c

-Can cause dizziness, somnolence, and peripheral edema/weight gain
-It’s a C-V and can cause euphoria, which can be helpful for the anxiety that can come with pain

44
Q

Which NSAID has a high risk of both severe skin reactions, including SJS/TEN, and GI toxicity and should only be used in pts who can’t obtain adequate pain relief with other agents?

a. Ibuprofen
b. Indomethacin
c. Piroxicam
d. Nabumetone
e. Etodolac

A

c

45
Q

Select the correct MOA for Cymbalta:

a. Antagonist at the mu-opioid receptor in the CNS
b. Inhibits cyclooxygenase, which reduces prostaglandin formation and decreases pain and inflammation
c. Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
d. Agonist at the mu-opioid receptor in the CNS
e. Decreases substance P and reduces pain transmission from the nerve ending (localized effect)

A

c

46
Q

A pt with nasal polyps and asthma has told the pharmacist that if she uses aspirin, she can’t breathe. Which of the following will be unlikely to trigger a similar reaction in this pt?

a. Acetaminophen
b. Naproxen
c. Ibuprofen
d. Nabumetone
e. Magnesium salicylate

A

a

Acetaminophen is safe in this pt, but NSAIDs (as a class) shouldn’t be used in those with aspirin hypersensitivity.

47
Q

A 42 y/o female received codeine with acetaminophen after a dental extraction. She developed dizziness and SOB and went to the ER. Since this incident, she’s very cautious about any meds. Which of the following meds wouldn’t cross-react with codeine?

a. Norco
b. Dilaudid
c. Sublimaze
d. Percocet
e. Infumorph

A

c

48
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning pregabalin:

a. Schedule C-IV
b. Schedule C-II
c. Schedule C-III
d. Schedule C-V
e. Not a controlled substance

A

d

49
Q

A pharmacist is asked questions regarding the fentanyl patch by the med team. Which of the following statements are correct?

a. If a pt has good pain control for the 1st 2 days but has significant pain on the 3rd day, increase the dose to the next available patch strength.
b. Do not apply heat to the patch or skin before or after applying the patch.
c. Dispose of the patch in the toilet.
d. Always rotate the patch application site and place it on flat skin on the upper arm, chest, or back.
e. Place a hand over the patch and apply pressure when applying to the skin for at least 30 seconds.

A

b, c, d, e

If the pt had good pain control for 2 days, don’t increase the dose; instead, shorten the dosing interval to every 2 days.

50
Q

EF will be discharged from the hospital after suffering a right femur fracture. She had surgery 3 days ago. Since the surgery, she’s been receiving the following meds: morphine 10 mg PO 3-4x daily, enalapril 5 mg daily, and milk of mag PRN. She had been taking just 1 med for HTN prior to admission. The Dr wishes to initiate a fentanyl patch. Choose the correct statement:

a. She can be started on the 12 mcg/hr patch.
b. She can be started on the 25 mcg/hr patch.
c. She can be started on the 50 mcg/hr patch.
d. She should be started on fentanyl SL at this time.
e. She’s not a candidate for the fentanyl patch at this time.

A

e

To discharge a pt on fentanyl, they should’ve been using morphine 60 mg/day or higher (morphine equivalent dose) for at least 7 days.

51
Q

Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs contain the following BBWs:

a. GI risk and CV risk
b. GI risk and hematuria
c. GI risk and bone marrow suppression
d. GI risk, sedation, and photosensitivity
e. GI risk, photosensitivity, and severe rash

A

a

-Severe rash can rarely occur with NSAIDs, but it’s not a BBW.
-Some of the NSAIDs increase sensitivity to the sun, including ibuprofen.

52
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning pregabalin:

a. Schedule C-IV
b. Schedule C-II
c. Schedule C-III
d. Schedule C-V
e. Not a controlled substance

A

d