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RxPrep > HIV > Flashcards

HIV Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following best describes how HIV lab parameters would be expected to change if antiretroviral therapy isn’t started?

a. The viral load will decrease and the CD4+ count will increase
b. The viral load will increase and the CD4+ count will decrease
c. The viral load will increase and the CD4+ count will stay the same
d. The viral load will remain the same and the CD4+ count will increase
e. Both the viral load and the CD4+ count will decrease

A

b

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2
Q

CS is a 37 y/o female presenting to the HIV clinic for a routine appointment. During the physical exam, it’s noted that her skin and sclera are yellow. What med is she likely receiving that’s causing this side effect?

a. Atazanavir
b. Darunavir
c. Elvitegravir
d. Enfuvirtide
e. Cobicistat

A

a

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3
Q

Which antiretroviral drug is available as an IV form that’s used to prevent perinatal transmission of HIV?

a. Efavirenz
b. Maraviroc
c. Zidovudine
d. Stavudine
e. Tenofovir alafenamide

A

c

Administered during labor in HIV-infected pregnant women to prevent HIV transmission to the infant

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4
Q

Which of the following represents a significant side effect of zidovudine?

a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Depression
c. Intracranial hemorrhage
d. Anemia
e. Hyperbilirubinemia

A

d

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5
Q

Cobicistat is used in antiretroviral therapy regimens as a/an:

a. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitor
b. Protease Inhibitor
c. CYP3A4 Inhibitor
d. CYP3A4 Inducer
e. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

A

c

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6
Q

Which of the following HIV meds should be taken with food?

a. Rilpivirine
b. Efavirenz
c. Complera
d. Genvoya
e. Atripla

A

a, c, d

Efavirenz and Atripla should be taken on an empty stomach

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7
Q

Which of the following is a recommended regimen for initial HIV treatment according to the Guidelines for the Use of Antiretroviral Agents in Adults and Adolescents Living with HIV?

a. Dolutegravir + emtricitabine + TDF
b. Abacavir + lamivudine + nevirapine
c. Emtricitabine + lamivudine + zidovudine
d. Etravirine + nevirapine + ritonavir + saquinavir
e. Darunavir + ritonavir + efavirenz

A

a

This regimen includes an NRTI backbone (2 agents) plus an INSTI

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8
Q

A phlebotomist had an accidental needle stick injury while drawing a blood sample from an HIV-positive patient. Which drug combo is the preferred regimen for post-exposure prophlyaxis?

a. Emtricitabine + TAF
b. Efavirenz + TDF + emtricitabine
c. Raltegravir + TDF + emtricitabine
d. Dolutegravir + abacavir + lamivudine
e. Rilpivirine + emtricitabine + TAF

A

c

Post-exposure prophylaxis guidelines recommend 28 days of Truvada + Isentress

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9
Q

Which of the following meds is administered via SC injection?

a. Enfuviritde
b. Ibalizumab-uiyk
c. Maraviroc
d. Indinavir
e. Didanosine

A

a

Fuzeon is a fusion inhibitor given via SC injection. It has no significant drug interactions, but almost 100% of patients experience injection site reactions

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10
Q

KD is a 35 y/o female who’s HIV-neg and is married to an HIV-pos man. She’s interested in tx to decrease her chances of contracting HIV. Which of the following would be an appropriate recommendation?

a. Emtricitabine + TDF
b. Raltegravir + emtricitabine + TDF
c. Abacavir + lamivudine + dolutegravir
d. Lamivudine + zidovudine
e. Rilpivirine + emtricitabine + TAF

A

a

Truvada is approved for PrEP. Descovy is an alternative agent for PrEP, but it’s not indicated in patients assigned female at birth.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a warning for all drugs classified as Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)?

a. Hematologic toxicities
b. Psychiatric symptoms
c. SJS
d. Lactic acidosis
e. Insulin resistance

A

d

Warnings common to the class of NRTIs include lactic acidosis and hepatomegaly with steatosis

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12
Q

What is the integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI) component of Triumeq?

a. Rilpivirine
b. Abacavir
c. Dolutegravir
d. Elvitegravir
e. Cobicistat

A

c

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13
Q

Which of the following is the correct drug class for emtricitabine?

a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
c. CCR5 receptor antagonist
d. Integrase strand transfer inhibitor
e. Protease inhibitor

A

a

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14
Q

What is the minimum amount of time that a pt should wait after an HIV exposure before the OraQuick In-Home HIV Test?

a. 2 weeks
b. 1 month
c. 2 months
d. 3 months
e. 6 months

A

d

-HIV p24 antigens can be detected as early as 2 weeks post-infection
-The OraQuick test detects the presence of HIV antibodies formed by the body in response to the antigen
-Antibodies typically take 4-6 weeks after the infection to be detected
-OraQuick should be used at least 3 months from exposure d/t the lag in antibody production - testing sooner can lead to a false-neg result

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15
Q

JR is a 45 y/o male who was recently diagnosed with HIV. He brings his current med list to the clinic during a routine checkup.

Prezista 800 mg PO daily
Ritonavir 100 mg PO daily
Truvada 1 tab PO daily
Lovaza 2 g PO BID
HCTZ 25 mg PO daily
Simvastatin 40 mg PO daily

The pharmacist should contact the medical provider about which of the following interactions?

a. Simvastatin and ritonavir
b. Prezista and ritonavir
c. Lovaza and Truvada
d. Prezista and simvastatin
e. HCTZ and ritonavir

A

a, d

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16
Q

Which of the following is a risk associated with didanosine?

a. Abnormal dreams
b. Pancreatitis
c. Nephrolithiasis
d. Injection site reactions
e. Hyperbilirubinemia

A

b

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17
Q

A healthcare worker has started post-exposure prophylaxis therapy for a needle stick injury. How long should the tx be continued?

a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 12 weeks
e. 24 weeks

A

b

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18
Q

The primary goals of antiretrovirals are to:

a. Reduce the progression of HIV
b. Suppress the HIV viral load
c. Decrease CD4+ lymphocyte counts
d. Decrease the incidence of opportunistic infections
e. Prevent transmission of HIV

A

a, b, d, e

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19
Q

Which of the following could cause an allergic reaction in a pt with a sulfa allergy?

a. Atazanavir
b. Bictegravir
c. Abacavir
d. Emtricitabine
e. Darunavir

A

e

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20
Q

PS is a 65 y/o male who’s been HIV-pos for 20 years. He reports that for the past 6 months he hasn’t had an appetite and has lost significant muscle mass. Which of the following drugs could be recommended to address PS’s concerns?

a. Megace ES
b. Prednisone
c. Dronabinol
d. Lyrica
e. Nabilone

A

a, c, e

The patient’s symptoms indicate that he’s likely experiencing HIV Wasting Syndrome. Options to increase appetite include dronabinol (Syndros), nabilone, and megestrol (Megace ES)

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21
Q

What antiretroviral class should be administered separately from antacids?

a. NRTIs
b. PIs
c. NNRTIs
d. INSTIs
e. CCR5 antagonists

A

d

INSTIs should be taken 2 hours before or 6 hours after cation-containing products, including antacids

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22
Q

Which of the following is a major benefit of TAF when compared to TDF?

a. No renal dose adjustment required
b. Formulated to improve adherence
c. Lower risk of nephrotoxicity
d. Easier storage
e. Lower risk for hep B exacerbation

A

c

Both have a boxed warning for severe acute exacerbation of hep B upon d/c of therapy

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23
Q

Which combo antiretroviral contains TAF?

a. Epzicom
b. Truvada
c. Complera
d. Biktarvy
e. Stribild

A

d

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24
Q

EM has been on ART therapy for 3 years and has been adherent. His doctor recently noticed some side effects from the medicines he’s taking. EM is experiencing dyslipidemia, an abnormal fat deposit at the base of his neck and high blood sugar. These side effects most commonly occur with the following class of meds:

a. NRTIs
b. NNRTIs
c. PIs
d. INSTIs
e. Entry inhibitors

A

c

Dyslipidemia, lipohypertrophy (peripheral fat loss with central fat accumulation), and insulin resistance commonly occur with PI therapy.

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25
Q

HIV is a single-stranded ___ retrovirus that uses the machinery in host ________________ to replicate. When HIV continues to replicate, the viral load ___________ and the CD4 count ____________.

A

RNA; CD4 T-helper cells; increases; decreases

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26
Q

What are the 2 ways that a patient can be diagnosed with AIDS?

A

if the CD4 count falls below 200 cells/mm3 or the patient develops an AIDS-defining condition

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27
Q

Type of transmission when the infection is spread from a women with HIV to her child

A

vertical transmission

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28
Q

How often should somebody be screened for HIV according to the CDC?

A

At least once for all patients 13-64 y/o; if a patient is at high risk for HIV, they should be screened at least annually

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29
Q

Patients at high risk for acquiring HIV

A
  1. Sharing drug-injection equipment
  2. High-risk sexual behaviors: MSM, multiple sexual partners, history of STD
  3. History of hepatitis or tuberculosis infection
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30
Q

Acute HIV presents with what?

A

non-specific flu-like symptoms

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31
Q

What antigens can be detected 2 weeks post-infection?

A

HIV RNA and HIV p24 antigens

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32
Q

What screening test is used to detect HIV RNA and HIV p24 antigens?

A

HIV-1/HIV-2 antigen/antibody screening test

33
Q

Positive results from an HIV-1/HIV-2 antigen/antibody screening test should be confirmed with what?

A

antibody differentiation immunoassay

34
Q

What does the antibody differentiation immunoassay do?

A

differentiates HIV-1 antibodies from HIV-2 antibodies

35
Q

Antibodies can be detected in most people how long after contracting the disease?

A

4-12 weeks

36
Q

OTC test that detects the presence of HIV antibodies and provides immediate results

A

OraQuick In-Home HIV Test

37
Q

When should OraQuick be used and what could happen if used sooner?

A

> /= 3 months from exposure; testing sooner can cause a false negative result

38
Q

The major indicator of immune function used to determine the need for opportunistic infection prophylaxis

A

CD4 count

39
Q

The most important indicator of response to ART

A

HIV viral load

40
Q

A pt should be tested for what if considering using abacavir?

A

HLA-B*5701 allele

41
Q

What should a pt have done if considering using maraviroc?

A

tropism assay

42
Q

Why is treatment adherence essential for patients on ART?

A

to prevent drug resistance

43
Q

What are the ART regimens that are available in one pill taken once daily?

A

Biktarvy, Triumeq, Dovato

44
Q

Biktarvy

A

bictegravir
emtricitabine
TAF

45
Q

Triumeq

A

dolutegravir
abacavir
lamivudine

46
Q

Dovato

A

dolutegravir
lamivudine

47
Q

What are the ART regimens that are available in two pills, usually taken once daily?

A

Tivicay + Truvada
Tivicay + Descovy

48
Q

Tivicay

A

dolutegravir

49
Q

Truvada

A

emtricitabine
TDF

50
Q

Descovy

A

emtricitabine
TAF

51
Q

Most preferred ART regimens contain what?

A

2 NRTIs and 1 INSTI

52
Q

What two drugs in preferred ART regimens are interchangeable but shouldn’t be used together?

A

lamivudine and emtricitabine

53
Q

Dovato should not be used in treatment-naive patients if HIV RNA is > ___________ copies/mL, there is known _______________ co-infection (or if status is unknown, or HIV genotype testing is not yet available.

A

500,000; hepatitis B

54
Q

Which HIV drugs cannot be used in CrCl < 30 mL/min?

A

Biktarvy, Triumeq, Dovato, Truvada, Descovy

55
Q

A complete HIV ART regimen has what?

A

one base plus 2 NRTIs

56
Q

Name the NRTIs

A

abacavir, emtricitabine, lamivudine, TDF/TAF, zidovudine

57
Q

Administered IV during labor and delivery in patients with HIV RNA > 1,000 copies/mL (to protect the baby)

A

Zamivudine

58
Q

What are the 2 warnings for all NRTIs?

A

lactic acidosis and hepatomegaly with steatosis

59
Q

Severe acute HBV exacerbation can occur if what NRTIs are are discontinued?

A

emtricitabine, lamivudine, and tenofovir-containing products

60
Q

Name the NRTI:
BBW: Risk for hypersensitivity reaction
- Screen for HLA-B*5701 allele before starting; contraindicated if positive
- Patients must carry a med card
Consider avoiding with CVD d/t a potential increased risk of MI

A

abacavir

61
Q

Name the NRTI:
Can cause hyperpigmentation of the palms of the hands or the soles of the feet

A

emtricitabine

62
Q

Name the NRTI:
- Can cause renal impairment, including acute renal failure and Fanconi syndrome (renal tubular injury with hyperphosphatemia)
- Can cause decreased bone mineral density

A

TDF and TAF

63
Q

TDF or TAF: Associated with a higher risk of lipid abnormalities

A

TAF

64
Q

Name the NRTI with these safety concerns:
- Hematologic toxicity - neutropenia and anemia (increased MCV is a sign of adherence)
- Myopathy

A

zidovudine

65
Q

Stribild should not be started in CrCl < __ mL/min and it should be discontinued in CrCl < __ mL/min.

A

70; 50

66
Q

Biktarvy and Genvoya should not be started in patients with CrCl < __ mL/min.

A

30

67
Q

Name the INSTI with these safety concerns:
- Increased SCr with no effect on GFR

A

bictegravir, dolutegravir

68
Q

Name the INSTI with these safety concerns:
- Increased CPK, myopathy, and rhadomyolysis

A

Raltegravir

69
Q

Which INSTI has a safety concern for proteinuria?

A

elvitegravir

70
Q

Name the INSTI with these safety concerns:
- HSR with severe rash and organ dysfunction. including hepatotoxicity
- Small risk of neural tube defects in a developing fetus (still a preferred drug for tx of HIV in pregnancy)
- Increased CPK, myalgia

A

dolutegravir

71
Q

What are side effects of all INSTIs?

A

headache, insomnia, diarrhea, weight gain, rare risk of depression and suicidal ideation in patients with pre-existing psychiatric conditions (except bictegravir)

72
Q

INSTIs should be taken __ hours before or __ hours after aluminum, calcium, magnesium, and iron-containing products.

A

2; 6

73
Q

Which INSTis can be taken with oral calcium or iron if also taken with food?

A

dolutegravir and bictegravir

74
Q

Which NNRTI needs an acidic environment for absorption?

A

rilpivirine

75
Q

T/F: Efavirenz should be taken with food.

A

false; food increases the bioavailability and risk for CNS effects. Efavirenz should be taken on an empty stomach at night to decrease CNS effects.

76
Q

All NNRTIs can cause what things?

A

hepatotoxicity and severe rash, including SJS/TEN

77
Q

Rilpivirine should not be used if viral load is > __________ copies/mL and/or CD4 count < ___ cells/mm3.

A

100,000; 200

78
Q

With rilpivirine:
- Do not use ___
- Take H2RAs at least __ hours before or __ hours after
- Take antacids at least _ hours before or __ after

A

PPIs
12; 4
2; 4

RxPrep (51 decks)

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