Pulmo Flashcards

1
Q

most common agent causing HFMD

A

Coxsackie A16

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2
Q

What is Lemierre syndrome?

A

Internal jugular vein septic thrombophlebitis
- caused by F. necrophorum

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3
Q

gold standard for diagnosing streptococcal pharyngitis

A

throat culture plated on blood agar

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4
Q

suppurative complications of GAS pharyngitis

A

peritonsillar abscess
cervical adenitis

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5
Q

primary benefit and intent of antibiotic treatment of GAS pharyngitis

A

prevention of acute rheumatic fever (ARF)

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6
Q

this is a diagnostic physical finding in peritonsillar cellulitis/abscess

A

asymmetric tonsillar bulge with displacement of the uvula

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7
Q

best known clinical syndrome caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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8
Q

Primary EBV infections in adolescents manifests in 30-50% cases as the classic triad of?

A

Fatigue, Pharyngitis and generalized lymphadenopathy

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9
Q

three mechanisms by which viruses cause common cold spread

A

-direct hand contact
-inhalation of small-particle aerosols
-deposition of large-particle aerosols and land on nasal or conjunctival mucosa

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10
Q

most common pathogens associated with the common cold

A

human rhinoviruses

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11
Q

Young children have an average of ___ colds per year

A

6-8 colds

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12
Q

most common complication of colds

A

Acute otitis media

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13
Q

most common bacterial pathogen in children 3 weeks to 4 years of age in PCAP

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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14
Q

most frequent bacterial pathogen in children 5 years and older seen in PCAP

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydophila pneumoniae

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15
Q

most common causes of lower respiratory tract infections in infants and children older than 1 month but younger than 5 yr of age

A

Viral pathogens
— most common are RSV and rhinoviruses

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16
Q

definition of recurrent pneumonia

A

2 or more episodes in a single year or
3 or more episodes ever
with radiographic clearing between occurences

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17
Q

most consistent clinical manifestation of pneumonia

A

Tachypnea

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18
Q

recommended antibiotic for mildy ill children with PCAP who do not require hospitalization

A

Amoxicillin, usually high dose (90 mkday)

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19
Q

According to PPS guidelines, PCAP is considered in patients when these symptoms are present

A

Cough or fever + any of the ff:
1. tachypnea
2. retractions or chest indrawing
3. nasal flaring
4. O2 saturation <95% at room air
5. grunting

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20
Q

based on the PPS guidelines, what antibiotics should be given for patients with nonsevere PCAP?

A

Amoxicillin (40-50 mkday) q8 x 7 days or 80-90 mkday q12 x 5-7 days or
Co-amox (80-90 mkday) q12 x 5-7 days or Cefuroxime (20-30 mkday) q12 x 7 days if with penicillin-resistance pneumococci or beta lactamase h. influenzae

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21
Q

According to PPS guidelines, patients with PCAP severe should be given with what antibiotics?

A

Pen G (200,000 IU/kg/day) q6 if complete Hib, Ampicillin (200 mkday) q6 if no or incomplete or unknown HIb vaccine OR
Cefuroxime (100-150 mkday) q8 or Ceftriaxone (75-100 mkday) q12-q24 or Ampi-Sulbactam (200 mkday) q6 if with documented high level penicillin-resistance

add Clindamycin (20-40 mkday) q6-q8 if Staphylococcal pneumonia is highly suspected
if sepsis and shock, add Vancomycin (40-60 mkday) q6-q8

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22
Q

if viral etiology is considered for PCAP, according to PSS, what should be given

A

Oseltamivir, to be started immediately within 36 hours of laboratory confirmed influenza infection

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23
Q

good response to therapy in PCAP non severe is presented by

A

improvement of cough or normalization of core body temperature in the absence of antipyretics within 24-72 hours after initiation of treatment

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24
Q

what is strongly recommended as adjunctive treatment for measles pneumonia

A

Vitamin A

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25
Q

a child with suspected asthma is placed on low dose ICS and as needed SABA over how many weeks?

A

8-12 weeks

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26
Q

2 diagnostic features in diagnosing asthma in older children and adolescents (6-18 yo)

A

history of variable respiratory symptoms
confirmed variable expiratory airflow limitation

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27
Q

most serious complication of foreign body aspiration

A

complete obstruction of the airway

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28
Q

narrowest portion of the upper airway in children <10 yo

A

cricoid cartilage encircling the airway

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29
Q

Stridor is a sign of ______ airway obstruction

A

upper

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30
Q

75% of cases of croup is caused by this organism

A

Parainfluenza virus

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31
Q

most common form of acute upper respiratory obstruction

A

Croup/Laryngotracheobronchitis

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32
Q

The child has barking cough, hoarseness and inspiratory stridor. What condition is this?

A

Croup

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33
Q

Chest xray will reveal typical subglottic narrowing or steeple sign on the posteroanterior view

A

Croup

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34
Q

This virus is associated with severe laryngeotracheobronchitis

A

Influenza A

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35
Q

This condition is characterized by an acute rapidly progressive and potentially fulminating course of high fever, sore throat, dyspnea and rapidly progressing respiratory obstruction

A

Acute epiglottitis

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36
Q

classic radiograph of this condition: thumb sign

A

Epiglottitis

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37
Q

established treatment for moderate or severe croup

A

Nebulized racemic epinephrine

38
Q

Aside from racemic epi for croup, what other medication should be given as part of the treatment?

A

Oral corticosteroids

39
Q

most commonly isolated pathogen of bacterial tracheitis

40
Q

this condition typically present in child with “brassy” cough

A

Bacterial tracheitis

41
Q

this etiologic agent is responsible for more than 50% of cases of bronchiolitis

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

42
Q

This condition presents initially as rhinitis then 3-4 days later, a frequent dry hacking cough develops, which may or may not be productive

A

Acute bronchitis

43
Q

walking pneumonia

A

M. pneumoniae

44
Q

sinuses that are present at birth

A

Ethmoidal
Maxillary

45
Q

3 bacterial pathogens causing acute bacterial sinusitis in children

A

S. pneumoniae
nontypeable H. influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

46
Q

Definition of sinusitus according to duration

A

ACUTE: <30 days
SUBACUTE: 1-3 months
CHRONIC: >3 months

47
Q

Diagnosis of sinusitis

A

2 major or 1 major and >=2 minor symptoms

MAJOR:
Purulent anterior nasal discharge
Purulent or discolored posterior nasal discharge
Nasal congestion/obstruction
Facial congestion/fullness
Facial pain/pressure
Hyposmia/anosmia
Fever

MINOR:
Headache
Ear pain, pressure or fullness
Halitosis
Dental pain
Cough
Fever
Fatigue

48
Q

the only accurate method of diagnosis in sinusitis

A

Sinus aspirate culture

49
Q

initial therapy given to children with uncomplicated mild to moderate severity acute bacterial sinusitis

A

Amoxicillin (45 mkday) BID

50
Q

duration of therapy for acute sinusitus

A

minimum of 7 to 10 days

51
Q

orbital complications such as periorbital and orbital cellulitis are most often secondary to acute bacterial infection of what sinus?

A

Ethmoid sinus

52
Q

Osteomyelitis of the frontal bone

A

Pott Puffy tumor

53
Q

whooping cough

54
Q

Describe the stages of Pertussis

A
  1. Catarrhal stage (1-2 wks): nondistinctive symptoms of congestion and rhinorrhea with low grade fever, sneezing, lacrimation and conjunctival suffusion
  2. Paroxysmal stage (2-6 wks): cough begins as a dry, intermittent, irritative hack and evolves into inexorable paroxysms — hallmark
  3. Convalescent stage
55
Q

characteristic lab finding in the catarrhal stage of pertussis

A

Leukocytosis (15,000-100,000 cells/uL)

56
Q

drug of choice in all age groups for patients with Pertussis, as well as for postexposure prophylaxis

A

Azithromycin

57
Q

most common esophageal disorder in children of all ages

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

58
Q

infant reflux peaks at what age and when does it resolve

A

peaks at 4 months, resolves by 12 months in 88% of infants, nearly all by 24 months

59
Q

positions that can be used to minimize reflux in infants

A

prone position
upright carried position

60
Q

most common congenital anomaly of the esophagus

A

Esophageal atresia

61
Q

suggestive of this condition is the inability to pass a NGT or OGT in the newborn

A

Esophageal atresia

62
Q

what is the gap between atretic ends of the esophagus in EA that is not operable thru primary repair

A

> 3 to 4 cm (>3 vertebral bodies)

63
Q

complication of surgery in EA

A

anastomotic leak
refistulization
anastomotic stricture

64
Q

current standard surgical approach in EA with TEF

A

Primary end-to-end anastomosis of the esophagus and surgical ligation of the TEF

65
Q

definitive diagnoses of tracheomalacia and bronchomalacia

A

flexible or rigid bronchoscopy

66
Q

low pitched inspiratory snoring sound typically produced by nasal or nasopharyngeal obstruction

67
Q

inspiratory, low-pitched sound produced when there is upper airway obstruction

68
Q

diagnostic confirmation of laryngomalacia

A

flexible laryngoscopy

69
Q

Infection from oropharynx which extends to cause septic thrombophlebitis of the IJV and embolic abscesses in the lungs

A

Lemierre disease

70
Q

etiologic agent for Lemierre disease

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

71
Q

how many cc of fluid is present in the pleural space

72
Q

rapid removal of >1L of pleural fluid may be associated with the development of ???

A

Reexpansion pulmonary edema

73
Q

predominant source of the organisms causing abscesses

A

Aspiration of infected materials or a foreign body

74
Q

duration of treatment for primary lung abscess

A

2-3 weeks of IV antibiotics
to complete with oral antibiotics for a total of 4-6 weeks

75
Q

most often involved lobe in children with atelectasis

A

right upper lobe

76
Q

accumulation of extrapulmonary air within the chest

A

Pneumothorax

77
Q

this happens occasionally in teenagers and young adults who are male, tall, thin without trauma or underlying lung disease

A

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax

78
Q

accumulation of extrapulmonary air within the chest

A

Pneumothorax

79
Q

principal features of pneumomediastinum

A

dyspnea
transient stabbing chest pain that may radiate to the neck

80
Q

“spinnaker sail sign” or “angel wing sign”

A

Pneumomediastinum
— occurs when air deviates the thymus upward and outward

81
Q

pathognomic for pneumomediastinum

A

mediastinal “crunch”/Hamman sign

82
Q

pathognomic for pneumomediastinum

A

mediastinal “crunch”/Hamman sign

83
Q

targeted oxygen saturation in patients with BPD outside of the NICU

84
Q

Wheezing at rest caused by Tracheomalacia usually resolves by what age?

A

3 years old

85
Q

Most common bacterial agents of PCAP in children 5 yr and older (give top 3)

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia - S. pneumoniae - Chlamydophylia pneumonia

86
Q

What are included in the McIsaac criteria

A

1 point for each
- history of temp >38 C
- absence of cough
- tender anterior cervical adenopathy
- tonsillar swelling or exudates
- age 3-14 yo

subtracts 1 point for age >45 yo

87
Q

Major early childhood risk factors for persistent asthma

A

Parental asthma
Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Inhalant allergen sensitization

88
Q

strongest identifiable factor for the persistence of childhood asthma

A

allergy in young children with recurrent cough and/or wheeze

89
Q

most common chronic symptoms of asthma

A

Intermittent dry coughing
Expiratory wheezing

90
Q

lung function abnormalities in asthma
Define Bronchodilator response, exercise challenge, daily PEF or FEV1 monitoring

A

Bronchodilator response: increase in FEV1 >12% or predicted FEV1 >10% after inhalation of SABA

Exercise challenge: worsening in FEV1 >15%

Daily PEF or FEV1 monitoring: day-to-day and/or AM-to-PM variation >20%