Newborn Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Maternal depression usually occur starting from when and up to?

A

starts 1st week post partum up to 6 months post partum

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2
Q

Most neonates void by __ hr and approximately 95% of preterm and term infants void within ___ hr

A

12 hours, 24 hours

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3
Q

Passage of meconium in term and preterm infants happen within __ hr of birth

A

48 hours

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4
Q

benefits of delayed clamping of the umbilical cord

A

improve transitional circulation
increase neonatal RBC volume

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5
Q

practical method of systemically evaluating infants immediately after birth

A

Apgar score
— done at 1 and 5 minutes of life

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6
Q

4 mechanisms of heat loss in newborn

A

convection
conduction
radiation
evaporation

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7
Q

optimal method of maintaining temperature in the stable newborn

A

skin-to-skin contact with mother

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8
Q

first bath in newborn should be delayed until __ hr of life to allow full transition to extrauterine life

A

24 hours

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9
Q

normal temperature range in newborn

A

36.5-37.4 C

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10
Q

this is given to infants shortly after birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn

A

1 mg of water soluble vitamin K1 (phytonadione)

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11
Q

screening for hypoglycemia is performed in these infants

A

SGA
LGA
infants with GDM mothers
Preterm babies
Symptomatic

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12
Q

Medical contraindications to breastfeeding

A

Galactosemia
MSUD
Phenylketonuria

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13
Q

Maternal conditions that contraindicate breastfeeding

A

Infection with human T-cell lymphotropic virus types 1 and 2
Active TB
Herpes virus infection on breast
Use of or dependence on illicit drugs
Maternal treatment with some radioactive compounds

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14
Q

site of origin for embryonal neurons and fetal glial cells, a highly vascular region of the developing brain where IVH in premature infants occur

A

Subependymal germinal matrix

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15
Q

Indication to undergo routine cranial UTZ in premature infants

A

<32 weeks AOG
birthweight <1000 g
- with ff up UTZ at 36-40 weeks postmenstrual age to evaluate for PVL

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16
Q

What are the predisposing risk factors for IVH

A

Prematurity
RDS
Hypoxia-ischemia
Exaggerated fluctuations in cerebral blood flow (Hypotensive injury, hypervolemia, hypertension)
Reperfusion injury of damaged vessels
Reduced vascular integrity
Increased venous pressure (Pneumothorax, venous thrombosis)
Thrombocytopenia

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17
Q

percentage of incidence of definite neurologic sequelae in grade 1 IVH

A

15%

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18
Q

What is therapeutic hypothermia

A

exposing the newborn to a temperature of 33.5 C within the 1st 6 hours after birth and be maintained for 72 hours

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19
Q

what is the definition of Apnea

A

cessation of breathing for a period of >20 seconds or
cessation of breathing <20 seconds + change in tone, pallor, cyanosis or bradycardia (<80-100 bpm)

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20
Q

what type of apnea is most often observed in apnea of prematurity?

A

mixed apnea

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21
Q

Apnea of prematurity usually occurs in premature infants of what AOG?

22
Q

Infants born well <28 weeks can still have apnea of prematurity up to what PMA?

A

44 weeks PMA

23
Q

risk factors for RDS development

A

Maternal DM
Multiple births
CS delivery
Precipitous delivery
Asphyxia
Cold stress
Maternal history of previously affected infants

24
Q

risk of RDS is reduced in these pregnancies

A

Chronic or pregnancy-associated hypertension
Maternal heroine use
Prolonged rupture of membranes
Antenatal corticosteroid prophylaxis

25
Q

Primary cause of RDS

A

Surfactant deficiency

26
Q

Surfactant appears in amniotic fluids between what AOG?

A

28 and 32 weeks

27
Q

Mature levels of pulmonary surfactant are present usually at this AOG

A

after 35 weeks of gestation

28
Q

characteristic findings of RDS in chest xray

A

low lung volume
diffuse, fine reticular granularity of the parenchyma/“ground-glass appearance”
air bronchograms

29
Q

approach of choice for the delivery room management of a preterm neonate at risk for RDS

A

prophylactic nCPAP

30
Q

most common etiology of tachypnea in the newborn

A

Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)

31
Q

Major limiting factor for survical in patients with CDH

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

32
Q

most common life-threatening emergency of the GI tract in the newborn period

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

33
Q

this xray finding confirms the clinical suspicion of NEC and is diagnostic

A

air in the bowel or pneumatosis intestinalis

34
Q

what are the circumstance/conditions that warrants determination of the cause of jaundice

A
  1. appears in the 1st 24-36 hr after birth
  2. bilirubin rising at a rate faster than 5 mg/dL/24 hr
  3. serum bilirubin >12 mg/dL in full term, 10-14 mg/dL in preterm
  4. jaundice persists after 10-14 days after birth
  5. direct bilirubin fraction is > 2 mg/dL at any time
35
Q

what are the signs/symptoms of Triple I

A

fetal tachycardia
maternal leukocytosis (>15,000 cells in the absence of corticosteroids)
purulent fluid from the cervical os
biochemical or microbiologic amniotic fluid changes consistent with infection
fever

36
Q

appropriate cutoff of hours from rupture of membrane for increased risk of neonatal infection

37
Q

most common source of postnatal infections in hospitalized newborns

A

hand contamination of healthcare personnel

38
Q

rooting reflex is present at what AOG

A

32 weeks AOG

39
Q

Moro reflex is one of the primary newborn reflexes and is present at birth, it is gone by what age?

A

3-6 months

40
Q

Palmar grasp reflex is present at what age and gone by what age

A

28 weeks AOG, gone by 4 months

41
Q

Components of APGAR score

A

A - Appearance (0- pale/blue, 1- acrocyanosis, 2- pink)
P - Pulse (0 - No pulse, 1 - HR <100, 2 - HR >100)
G - Grimace (0- no response, 1- grimace, 2- cough/sneeze)
A - Activity (0 -limp, 1 - some flexion, 2 - active motion)
R - Respiratory (0- absent, 1- slow, irregular, 2-good, crying)

42
Q

factors affecting the apgar score and give a false-negative result

A

Maternal acidosis
High fetal catecholamine levels
Some full-term infants

43
Q

What is the usual delivery toom temperature to be maintained

44
Q

most frequently involved part of the intestine in NEC

A

distal part of ileum and proximal segment of the colon

45
Q

Syndrome vs Sequence

A

Syndrome - pattern of multiple abnormalities that are related by pathophysiology, resulting from a single defined etiology

Sequence - consists of multiple malformations that are caused by a single event

46
Q

What si MR SOPA

A

Mask adjustment
Reposition the head
Suction secretions (oral/nasal)
Open the mouth
Pressure increase
Alternate airway

47
Q

most important indicator of successful PPV

A

increasing heart rate

48
Q

What is DOPE

A

Displaced Endotracheal Tube
Obstructed Endotracheal Tube
Pneumothorax
Equipment failure

49
Q

what epinepherine concentration is used for neonatal resuscitation

A

1:10,000 (0.1 mg/mL)

50
Q

Persistent absence of a detectable heart rate (APGAR score 0) at ___ minutes is a strong but not absolute predictor of mortality and serious morbidity in late preterm and term newborns

51
Q

Maternal drugs that can cause Early-onset Vit K deficiency bleeding

A

Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Warfarin
Rifampin
Isoniazid

52
Q

3 major risk factors implicated in NEC

A

prematurity
bacterial colonization of the gut
formula feeding