Adol Med, Poisoning, Pharma and Environmental hazards Flashcards

1
Q

first visible sign of maturity in males

A

testicular enlargement
- hallmark of SMR 2

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2
Q

in females, this is the first visible sign of puberty

A

appearance of breast buds (thelarche)

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3
Q

menses in females begins within __ yr of thelarche

A

three years

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4
Q

this hormone normally stimulates gynecomastia that occurs in many newborn males

A

Maternal estrogen

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5
Q

incidence of pubertal gynecomastia in males peaks at what tanner stage

A

Tanner Stage 3-4

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6
Q

normal cycle length

A

21-35 days (can be 21-45 days during the 1st 3 yr after menarche)

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7
Q

Menarche usually occurs during what SMR stage

A

4

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8
Q

most common cause of secondary dysmenorrhea

A

endometriosis

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9
Q

brief severe pain with ovulation which occurs at mid-cycle

A

Mittelschmerz

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10
Q

role of prostaglandin in dysmenorrhea

A

stimulates local vasoconstriction, uterine ischemia and pain, smooth muscle contraction

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11
Q

mainstay of treatment of primary dysmenorrhea

A

NSAIDs
-beginning at or preferably the day before menstruation

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12
Q

most prevalent viral STI

A

Herpes simplex virus type 2

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13
Q

most commonly identified pathogens in urethritis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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14
Q

these 2 symptoms suggest the presence of STI unless proven otherwise in the typical sexually active adolescent male

A

Dysuria
Uretheral discharge

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15
Q

most common organisms associated with genital ulcer syndromes

A

HSV
Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

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16
Q

HPV types that can cause cervical cancer

A

HPV Type 16 and 18

17
Q

treatment of chlamydia trachomatis STI

A

Azithromycin 1 g OD or Doxycyline 100 mg PO 2x a day for 7 days

18
Q

treatment of N. gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM + Azithromycin 1 g PO 1 dose

19
Q

Treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis STI

A

Metronidazole 2 g orally x 1 dose

20
Q

treatment of HSV STI

A

Treat for 7-10 days with Acyclovir/Valacyclovir/Famciclovir

21
Q

4 principles of management of poisoned patients

A

1 Decontamination
2 Enhance elimination
3 Antidotes
4 Supportive care

22
Q

GI decontamination strategies are most likely effective in how many hours after an acute ingestion?

A

1 or 2 hours

23
Q

Even rapid institution of GI decontamination with activated charcoal will at best bind only approximately how many percentage of the ingested substance?

A

30%

24
Q

Antidote of Acetaminophen

A

N-acetylcysteine

25
Q

Antidote of beta blockers

A

Glucagon

26
Q

Antidote of Calcium channel blockers

A

Insulin

27
Q

Antidote of Isoniazid (INH)

A

Pyridoxine

28
Q

Antidote of Opioids

A

Naloxone

29
Q

what are the substances poorly adsorbed by activated charcoal?

A

alcohols
caustics such as alkalis and acids
cyanide
heavy metals such as lead
hydrocarbons
Iron
Lithium

30
Q

single acute toxic dose of Acetaminophen

A

> 200 mg/kg in children
7.5 - 10 g in adolescents and children

31
Q

if a toxic ingestion is suspected, a serum acetaminophen level should be measured __ hour after the reported time of ingestion

A

4 hour

32
Q

golden period of institution of NAC in patients with acetaminophen poisoning

A

no later than 8 hours from the time of ingestion

33
Q

Antidote of Salicylates

A

Sodium bicarbonate

34
Q

antidotes of organophosphates and carbamates

A

Atropine and Pralidoxime

35
Q

most common complication of bite injuries regardless of the species of biting animal

A

Infection

36
Q

All ___ wounds are at high risk for infection from animal bites

A

Hand

37
Q

Bites from these animals carry a high risk of rabies and PEP is indicated

A

Bats
Foxes
Skuinks
Raccoons