Hema-Onco Flashcards

1
Q

diagnostic test to distinguish ACD from IDA

A

Soluble transferrin receptor (sTfR)
- high in IDA, normal in ACD

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2
Q

progressive decline in Hb levels in normal full term infants persists until what age?

A

persists for 6-8 weeks

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3
Q

Hemoglobin concentration continues to decline until tissue oxygen needs become greater than oxygen delivery. This point is reached between what age?

A

8 and 12 weeks of age

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4
Q

blood smear in IDA

A

Hypochromic, microcytic RBCs

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5
Q

most accurate method of diagnosing IDA

A

Bone marrow iron staining

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6
Q

most practical means to establish the diagnosis of IDA

A

Increase in hemoglobin >1 g/dL after 1 month of iron therapy

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7
Q

therapeutic dose of Iron for IDA

A

3-6 mg/kg elemental Iron in 1 or 2 doses

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8
Q

reticulocytosis after initiation of iron therapy in IDA happens when?

A

48-72 hours

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9
Q

Subjective improvement, decreased irritability, increased appetite and serum iron after initiation of Iron therapy in IDA happens when?

A

12-24 hours

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10
Q

describe the primary pathologies in thalassemia and sickle cell disease

A

Thalassemia: quantity of globin produced
Sickle cell disease: quality of globin produced

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11
Q

major clinical complication of transfusion-dependent thalassemia

A

Hemosiderosis

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12
Q

major cause of death in thalassemia

A

Cardiac disease

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13
Q

Common presentation/manifestation of G6PD

A

acute episodic hemolytic anemia
neonatal jaundice

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14
Q

this constitutes the most important therapeutic measure in G6PD

A

prevention of hemolysis

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15
Q

Deficient factor in Hemophilia A

A

Factor VIII

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16
Q

Deficient factor in Hemophilia B

A

Factor IX

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17
Q

most common and serious congenital coagulation factor deficiencies

A

Hemophilia A and B

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18
Q

hallmark of hemophilic bleeding

A

hemarthrosis

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19
Q

Major long-term disability associated with hemophilia

A

chronic arthropathy

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20
Q

most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand disease (VWD)

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21
Q

Patients with VWD typically present with this type of bleeding

A

Mucosal bleeding

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22
Q

most common type of VWD

A

Type 1
- mild to moderate quantitative defect

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23
Q

most severe type/form of VWD

A

Type 3
- VWF is completely absent

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24
Q

most common cause of acute onset of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise well child

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

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25
Q

Most common viruses associated with ITP

A

EBV
HIV

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26
Q

In some patients, ITP appears to arise in children infected with this organism

A

Helicobacter pylori

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27
Q

classic presentation of ITP

A

sudden onset of generalized petechiae and purpura

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28
Q

What is Evans Syndrome?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia

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29
Q

first line of treatment for ITP presenting with mucocutaneous bleeding

A

IVIG (0.8-1 g/kg) single dose for 1-2 days or
short course of corticosteroids

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30
Q

most common malignant neoplasms in childhood

A

leukemias

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31
Q

accounts for 77% of cases of childhood leukemia

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

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32
Q

this infection is associated with B-cell ALL in certain developing countries

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection

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33
Q

ITP is common in this age group

A

1-4 years old

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34
Q

most common immunophenotype of ALL

A

B-lymphoblastic leukemia

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35
Q

Diagnosis of ALL based on bone marrow evaluation

A

> 25% lymphoblasts

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36
Q

single most important prognostic factor in ALL

A

treatment
-without it, the disease is fatal

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37
Q

definition of standard risk of ALL

A

Age 1-10 yr
Leukocyte count <50,000/uL

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38
Q

definition of high risk for ALL

A

Children <1 yr or >10 yr
Leukocyte count >50,000/uL

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39
Q

definition of remission in ALL

A

<5% blasts in the marrow
return of neutrophil and platelet counts to near-normal levels

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40
Q

what are the phases of therapy in ALL and what are the drugs being given for each phase

A

Remission induction phase - weekly vincristine + steroids + aspariginase
Consolidation phase -with intrathecal chemo
Maintenance phase - daily mercaptopurine + weekly methotrexate

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41
Q

which among the types of ALL has worse outcome, B-ALL or T-ALL?

42
Q

Characteristic feature of AML based on bone marrow evaluation

A

> 20% myeloid-monocyte-megakaryocyte blast cells

43
Q

which is more common in Down syndrome during the 1st 3 yr of life, ALL or AML?

44
Q

Transient leukemia or myeloproliferative disorder in Down syndrome usually resolve within _____

A

1st 3 months of life

45
Q

This type of leukemia is characterized by a specific translocation known as Philadelphia chromosome resulting in a BCR-ABL fusion protein

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

46
Q

signs and symptoms only found in AML and uncommon in ALL

A
  • subcutaneous nodules/“blueberry muffin” lesions
  • infiltration of the gingiva
  • signs and lab findings of DIC
  • discrete masses: chloromas/granulocytic sarcomas
47
Q

current standard treatment for pediatric CML

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor such as Imatinib

48
Q

Patients with NF Type 1 and Noonan syndrome have a predilection for this type of leukemia

A

JMML/Juvenile Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (JCML)

49
Q

most common cancer in adolescents

50
Q

Infectious agents associated with Hodgkin Lymphoma

A
  • Human herpesvirus 6
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
51
Q

Pathognomic feature of Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg (RS) cell

52
Q

what are B symptoms?

A
  • Unexplained fever >38 C
  • Weight loss >10% of total body weight over 6 months
  • Drenching night sweats
53
Q

3 subtypes of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Lymphoblastic Lymphoma (LBL)
Mature B-cell Lymphoma (2 pathologies: Burkitt Lymphoma (BL), diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)
Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma (ALCL)

54
Q

electrolyte abnormalities in Tumor Lysis Syndrome

A

Hyperkalemia
Hyperuricemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypocalcemia

55
Q

most common primary brain tumor in children with excellent prognosis

A

Pilocystic astrocytoma

56
Q

classic sites of Pilocytic astrocytoma

A

Cerebellum
Optic pathway region

57
Q

most common CNS tumors in children <1 yr old

A

Choroid Plexus Tumor

58
Q

most common group of malignant CNS tumors of childhood, accounting 20% of pediatric CNS tumors

A

Embryonal tumors or Primitive Neuroectodermal tumors (PNET)

59
Q

childhood brain tumor that most often metastasizes extraneurally

A

Medulloblastoma

60
Q

most common extracranial solid tumor in children and the most commonly diagnosed malignancy in infants

A

Neuroblastoma

61
Q

This associated syndrome in neuroblastoma is characterized by limping and irritability in young child with bone and bone marrow metastases

A

Hutchinson syndrome

62
Q

Syndrome seen in neuroblastoma which presents as massive involvement of the liver with or without respiratory distress

A

Pepper Syndrome

63
Q

Signs and symptoms of horner syndrome

A

Unilateral ptosis
Myosis
Anhidrosis

64
Q

half of neuroblastoma tumors arise in what organ?

A

Adrenal glands

65
Q

these tumor markers help to confirm the diagnosis of neuroblastoma

A

HVA and VMA
- elevated in the urine in 95% of patients

66
Q

most common primary malignant renal tumor of childhood

A

Wilms tumor/Nephroblastoma

67
Q

most common initial clinical presentation of Wilms Tumor

A

incidental discovery of an asymptomatic abdominal mass

68
Q

The most common pediatric soft tissue sarcoma

A

Rhabdomyosarcomas

69
Q

tumors that present as small round blue cell tumors in microscope

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma
Neuroblastoma
Non Hodgkin Lymphoma
Ewing sarcoma

70
Q

favorable sites of rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Female genitalia
Paratesticular
Head and neck (nonparameningeal) regions

71
Q

most common primary malignant bone tumor in children and adolescents

A

Osteosarcoma

72
Q

More common malignant bone tumor among children <10 yr old

A

Ewing sarcoma

73
Q

Patients with _______ have a significantly increased risk for development of Osteosarcoma

A

Hereditary retinoblastoma

74
Q

classic radiographic appearance of this tumor is “sunburst appearance”

A

Osteosarcoma

75
Q

common site of Osteosarcoma

A

Metaphysis

76
Q

common site of Ewing sarcoma

77
Q

Standard chemotherapy regimen for osteosarcoma

A

Methotrexate (M), Doxorubicin (A), Cisplatin (P) (MDC)

78
Q

Primary tumors arising in the chest wall in Ewing sarcoma are called?

A

Askin tumors

79
Q

this type of bone tumor is often associated with systemic manifestations such as fever and weight loss

A

Ewing sarcoma

80
Q

it has a radiographic appearance of a primary lytic bone lesion with periosteal reaction — “onion-skinning”

A

Ewing sarcoma

81
Q

classic presentation of retinoblastoma

A

leukocoria/white pupillary reflex

82
Q

what is trilateral retinoblastoma

A

primitive neuroectoderal tumor + bilateral retinoblastoma

83
Q

most common benign tumors of infancy

A

Hemangiomas

84
Q

more than 50% of hemangiomas are located in ___ and ___ region

A

Head, neck

85
Q

primary site of visceral involvement in Hemangioma

86
Q

hemangiomas involutes by this age

87
Q

after initiation of iron therapy in IDA, when is initial bone marrow response and erythroid hyperplasia are expected to happen?

A

36-48 hours

88
Q

increase in hemoglobin level, mean corpuscular volume and ferritin after initiation of iron therapy in IDA happens when?

89
Q

Iron therapy is indicated for all neonates with anemia of prematurity starting at what month of age, and it ends until what age

A

1 month until 1 year

90
Q

most widespread and common nutritional disorder in the world

A

Iron deficiency anemia

91
Q

how much iron is necessary to be absorbed to maintain positive iron balance in childhood?

A

1 mg daily

92
Q

Features of Thalassemic facies

A

Maxillary hyperplasia
Flat nasal bridge
Frontal bossing

93
Q

tests to differentiate IDA vs ACD

A

Serum Ferritin: Dec IDA, Inc ACD
TIBC: Inc IDA, Dec ACD
STRf: Dec IDA, Dec ACD

94
Q

Organs that store Iron

A

Liver - Endocrine organs - Heart

95
Q

Conditions that warrant Splenectomy in children with ITP

A
  1. older child >4 yo with severe ITP which lasted for >1 yr (chronic ITP) and whose symptoms are not easily controlled with therapy
  2. when life threatening hemorrhage complicates acute ITP, if platelet cannot be controlled rapidly with platelet transfusion and administration of IVIG and corticosteroids
96
Q

favorable characteristics in ALL prognosis

A

Rapid response to therapy
Hyperdiploidy
Trisomy of specific chromosomes (4, 10, 17)
Rearrangements of the ETV6-RUNX1

97
Q

definition of complete response in HL

A

complete resolution of disease on clinical examination and imaging studies or at least 70-80% reduction of disease and a change from initial positivity to negativity on PET scan

98
Q

Poor prognostic features of Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Tumor Bulk
Stage at diagnosis
Extralymphatic disease
Presence of b symptoms

99
Q

significant morbidities associated with craniopharyngiomas

A

panhypopituitarism
growth failure
visual loss

100
Q

syndrome associated with neuroblastoma which presents as intractable secretory diarrhea caused by tumor secretion of vasointestinal peptides

A

Kerner-Morrison Syndrome