Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SF IDC > prevmed 2 test review > Flashcards

prevmed 2 test review Flashcards

1
Q

define distillation

A

process of distilling plant forms including evaporation and condensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is FAC

A

Free Available Chlorine

Chlorine available in the form of hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which is the test to detect coliform and e. coli in potable water
**EPA approved **

A

colilert and colisure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

harmless bacteria that live in soil, water as well as guts of animals

A

total coliform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

fecal coliform found in the intestines in animals and humans

A

e coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

who is responsible for the shipboard potable water system including treatment facilities and process to assure safe drinking water is available

Design, construct, maintain

A

NAVSEASYSCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

who promulgates instructions for ship to shore potable water connections and for providing potable water from approved source when ship is at a naval facility

A

NAVFACENGCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the CO responsibilities for potable water surveillance

A

water sanitation bill

procedures for receipt, transfer, treatment, storage, distribution and surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how many gallons per man per day for new ship construction

A

50 gal per man per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are water hours per man per day

A

no less than 2 gal per man per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what type of water does marine sanitation devices use

A

sea water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

types of water distillation

A

steam
waste heat
vapor compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

type of distillation uses electrical energy

A

vapor compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

type of distillation uses diesel engine jacket water

A

waste heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

types of reverse osmosis (RO) and what additional testing is required per pass

A

single- additional disinfection (chlorination or brominating)
Triple- none. better than distilled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what standard must potable water tank coating meet

A

NSF and ANSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do vents and over flow lines do

A

reduce accidental contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how must sounding tubes be labeled

A

“POTABLE WATER USE ONLY”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what color coded are filling lines and specifications

A

dark blue
18inch from deck
turned facing downward
screw caps w/ keeper chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

potable water hose lockers must be

A

vermin proof
locked
18 in off deck
printed step by step instructions for disinfection of hoses and risers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how are potable water hoses marked and labeled

A

“POTABLE WATER ONLY” 1inch high letters every 10 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what color are valves or valve handles

A

dark blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

potable water connections between shore and ship must be made or supervised by whom

A

authorized shore station personnel or properly trained ship personnel/ engineers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what’s the minimum halogen residual requirement when water from doubtful quality

A

2.0ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

why is bacteriological testing conducted

A

ensure fitness for human consumption

to asses adequacy of disinfection process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what the frequency of monitoring for microbiological quality

A

weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when collecting WATER samples what are the required locations #S

A

400 or less-=4
400-800= 8
800 or more= 12
1/4 ice machines and ships potable water tanks (25% DUMBY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

halogen testing what is tested under DPD1 and DPD 4

A

DPD1 -FAC and TBR

DPD 4- chloramines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is used to measure halogen testing? accuracy %?

A

color comparator =or - 10%

portable spectophotometer= + or - 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the sources of contamination

A 
cross connections
leaks in bulk heads
leaks non-potable piping 
Improper disposal of chemical liquid
potable water hoses used for non potable liquids
excessive storage in water tanks
contaminated raw water source
inadequate disinfection transfer of water from shore barges 
and many more
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the least desirable method of water disinfection and which is the disinfection of choice

A 
least= Manual chloride disinfection (batch method)
choice= calcium hypochlorite (HTH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the halogen residual minimum measurements from an approved source? unapproved source?

A

Approved= 0.2ppm FAC/TBR after 30 min

unapproved= 2.0 ppm FAC/TBR after 30 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

during chlorine dose calculation one ounce of HTH per 5000 gallons of water equals how many ppm FAC

A

1.0ppm FAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

if brominator can not achieve a TBR of 2.0 ppm water must be chlorinated by what method

A

batch method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

explain disinfection method 1

A 
fill tank to over flow level
add chlorine to achieve 10ppm FAC
hold for 24 hours
drain tank
refill tank w/ potable water
bacteriological test
neg use water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

explain disinfection method 2

A

spray applied directly 200ppm FAC to all tank surfaces
flush pipes with 10ppm FAC
disinfected surface should remain in contact w/ chlorine solution for
30 minutes
refill tank w/ potable water
bacteriological test
neg use water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

describe “method 3” of disinfecting potable water tanks

A

FILL 5% TANK VOLUME W/ 50PPM FAC SOLUTION
hold solution for 6 hours
add potable water to chlorine solution to fill tank; hold for 24 hours
drain tank
refill tank w/ potable water w/ required halogen residual level
bacteriological test
negative use water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the 2 methods for controlling and identifying the source of taste and odor issues if problem cannot be identified first?

A

chlorination and steam methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

describe chlorination method for taste/odor issues

A

chlorinate to 5ppm FAC

distribute @ 2 ppm FAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe the steam method for taste/odor issues

A

requires NAVSEASYSCOM approval
boil sample water for 1 minute to ensure proper effect
if resolved then steam may be feasible
not resolved then steam wont work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the strength % of HTH? How many ounce bottles? Where and how is it stored?

A

65-70%
6 ounce bottles
Metal box w/ 3 ¼ inch holes drilled in box to release chlorine
No more than 48 bottles
Labeled “Hazardous material, calcium hypochlorite”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Water sanitation bill should consist of what?

A

Connection procedures (ship to shore) (ship to ship)
Potable water hoses
Storage tanks
Disinfection procedures
Halogen residual, bacteriological , temperature, pH, and salinity testing
Disinfection of tanks and distribution system
Distribution system
Records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How long with the MDR maintain a potable water log?

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MDR responsibilities for prevention of wastewater hazards

A

conduct visual inspections of marine sanitation devices quarterly

indoctrination and periodic training concerning potential health hazards associated with human waste

on-site advice when requested in event of major sewages leaks or spills

must be present during clean-ups and disinfection operations involving food service spaces, living spaces, and medical spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what does CHT stand for

A

collection hold and transfer system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the there modes of CHT systems

A

restricted waters
at sea
in port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the most common marine sanitation device?

A

Type II B marine sanitation device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what poses the greatest danger to ship and personnel regarding CHT and wastewater

A

Hydrogen Sulfate (H2S) which can become explosive if not aerated

must be aerated when held in tanks larger than 2000 gallons must
be aerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

define EEBD. how long are EEBDs good for and where should they be kept

A

Emergency Escape breathing Device
10 minutes
pump rooms must have them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are gases associated with CHT

A

hydrogen sulfide - rotten egg smell
methane
ammonia
carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

requirements that must be strictly adhered to for CHT workers to prevent transmission of disease

A

personal hygiene and PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

medical, food service, and berthing spaces must be disinfected with what EPA approved disinfectants? what are the 2 types?

A

Germicides such as phenolic type and iodine type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

color coding for ships internal? external CHT systems?

A

Internal valve handles and operating levers: gold

external: deck discharge same as surrounding structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Waste water disposal procedures:

  1. within US waters is?
  2. sewage and gray water at sea?
  3. in port?
  4. restricted waters?
A
  1. prohibited within 3 nautical miles
  2. diverted and discharged overboard
  3. CHT and discarded using SHIP WASTE OFF LOAD BARGES (SWOB)
  4. sewage in CHT, gray water discarded overboard via diverter valves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

procedures for all ship tp shore transfer facilities of CHT is under what instruction?

A

NAVFAC PUB 340

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

engineer officer responsibilities for ground forces water

A

provides sufficient potable water quantities

selection water sources

construct, operate and maintain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

MDR responsibilities for ground forces water

A

advice CO
assist Engineer Officer
test Halogen and Bacteriological levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are three influences on water choice

A

quality
quantity
accessibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

lakes , streams , river , pond, sea ocean
more accessible. Quality may be problem. More contaminated that other sources. Capable of supplying adequate quantities. Screen intakes carefully

A

types of surface water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

wells and springs
usually less contaminated than surface water. Difficult to determine quantities available. Located at least 30 yards upgradient from known contamination

A

ground water sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

drinking water that is sealed in bottles, packages, or other containers by commercial interest which may or may not have been treated. Must be tested and determined to be potable.

A

Commercial bottled water

62
Q

4 methods of water treatment in the field

A

ROWPU
MC lightweight medium tactical
lightweight water purification
tactical water purification system

63
Q

produces 3000 gal water
only used in treating fresh water
non-reverse osmosis water treatment unit

A

MC lightweight medium tactical

64
Q

125 gal/hour

used to purify for small units

A

lightweight water purifier

65
Q

1500 gal/hour
International Organization Standardization (ISO) compatible
replacing Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit

A

tactical water purification system

66
Q

different types of potable water disinfectants for ground forces? Include strength and most common.

A

Calcium Hypochlorite (HTH) 65-70% (most common, granular form)
Sodium hypochlorite 5 or 10% (unscented bleach)
Chlorine dioxide
Chlorine gas
Bromine
Chloramines ozone
UV radiation

67
Q

Treatment for disinfection natural surface and well water

A

5ppm FAC after 30 minute contact time

68
Q

The 3000 gallon tank primary means of receiving and storing what?

A

bulk drinking water

69
Q

Semitrailor mounted fabric tank (SMFT) has collapsible ____ and holds how many gallons?

A

Rubberized tanks. 3000 or 5000 gallons

70
Q

What are the three modules for Water Distribution and waste management System (WDWMS)? Primary means Receipt and storage of what?

A

Water distribution set, hpspitals, deployable medical system (DEPMEDS)
bulk potable water and for wastewater management for DEPMEDS hospital under tactical conditions

71
Q

Will replace the M107, M149 and M1112 series water trailor and sits on an M1095 trailer which allows for better transportability on and off the road than its predecessors using the family of medium tactical vehicles truck

A

800 gallon unit water pod system (Camel)

72
Q

disinfecting method 1 key points for potable water containers in the field

A 
chlorinate to 100ppm FAC
run solution through valves
keep all interior surfaces wet w/ solution for at least 60min
drain into sewer
rinse twice
73
Q

disinfecting method 2 key points for potable water containers in the field

A

water or chemical are in short supply
prepare 5 gallon of water w/ 100ppm chlorine
swap ever 10 min or as necessary to keep walls wet for 1 hours
run solution through valves
drain
rinse twice

74
Q

alternate disinfecting method for potable water containers in the field

A

chlorinate to 100ppmFAC
hold for 24 hours
drain
rinse twice

75
Q

Denotes the number of personnel to be permanently supported in a given ship by habitability spaces, systems, fixtures, and equipment is the definition of

A

Accommodations

76
Q

Refers to personnel embark aboard ship for short duration during special operations or exercises and mobilizations

A

Surge

77
Q

Refers to personnel embarked for short duration who do not contribute to host ship operational capability

A

Transients

78
Q

7 Habitability factors

A

Floor area, ventilation, heating, sanitary fixtures, water supply, lighting, color

79
Q

berthing and medical shall be air conditioned to maintain a maximum temp of

A

80*F dry bulb

80
Q

berthing, messing, normal working spaces and medical shall be maintained at a minimum of

A

65*F Dry bulb

81
Q

Ventilation requirements for habitability

A

Designed to minimize humidity and odors. 15 per hour

82
Q

what type of bedding is prohibited? and mattresses required to be? Can you hot bunk?

A

polyurethane bedding
low smoke mattress.
Hot bunking is prohibited

83
Q

who will make routine sanitation inspections of toilets, lavatories, and berthing spaces?

A

XO, MDR, OOD, JOOD, Chief MA, DIVO, DIV CPO

84
Q

How often must all surfaces of water closets, showers, lavatories, urinals, berthing spaces, common rooms be cleaned and disinfected?

A

Daily

85
Q

Shower curtains and mats are sanitized to prevent what?

A

Mildew, odor, and soap accumulations

86
Q

MDR will conduct habitability inspections and why? Report to?

A

At least quarterly to identify problems that may affect the health of personnel, identify discrepancies, recommend corrective action, and preform onsite training.
Report to CO

87
Q

Barber shop employee screening, sanitation and location requirements include? Prohibited items?

A

Medically screened for communicable diseases, were clean smock
Must have hot and cold running water
Use FDA/EPA approved cosmetics, tonics, lotions, bleaches, dyes, disinfectants
Prohibited from treating pimples, removing ingrown hairs, common brushes, dusters, shaving mugs, shaving
cannot be located in food service or berthing areas

88
Q

Barbers should remove hair from decks by

A

A dustless method

89
Q

Barbers should use compressed air which does not exceed how much psi?

A

15 psi

90
Q

All instruments that come in direct contact with patrons must be cleaned and disinfected when? Not using? How often is solution changed

A

After each patron.
Prohibit from formaldehyde cabinets and UV light.
Changed weekly or visibly soiled

91
Q

When do laundry employees who are exposed to solvents receive exams? By who? Hygiene requirements that must be adhered to?
e

A

Pre-employment and periodically by MO or higher.

Handwashing after toilet/soiled linen and good personal hygiene

92
Q

What are 4 major sanitary requirements for laundry facilities?

A

Floors cleaned at least daily by dustless method

Lint removed s necessary from bulkheads, overheads, structural supports

93
Q

hearing protection must be worn over what dBs

A

84 dBs

94
Q

What must be provided in laundry facilities for emergency use?

A

First aid kits

95
Q

2 major requirements for making laundry hygienically safe when washed without bleach?

A

120-140*F water and using hot air dryers

96
Q

Soiled laundry must be in what type of bags? Sorted where? What must be removed?

A

Impervious laundry bags.
Sorting room
Sharp objects

97
Q

Contaminated laundry requirements?

A

Impervious double sealed bags
Red outer bag and labeled “Biohazard” with universal symbol
Inner bag must be hot water soluble
DO NOT SORT

98
Q

Intended to prevent the introduction and dissemination, domestically or internationally of diseases affecting humans, plants, animals

A

Quarantine regulations

99
Q

QUARANTINABLE diseases

A 
Plague
Infectious Tuberculosis
Small Pox
SARS
Yellow fever
Diphtheria
Influenza caused by novel or reemergent influenza viruses
Cholera
Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers
100
Q

what is Cholera?
bacteria that causes it?
how do you get it?

A

acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine by Vibrio cholerae

1/20 people get profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting and leg cramps

drinking or eating contaminated w/ cholera bacterium

source of contamination is usually the feces of an infected person or raw shellfish, brackish rivers or coastal waters

101
Q

what are control methods of Cholera

A

active immunization w/ oral vaccines provide high levels of protection for several months

case report universally required by WHO and Medical Event Report (MER)

Isolation w/ enteric precautions of severely ill, HANDWASHING AND FLY CONTROL
concurrent disinfection

102
Q

Disease of animals and humans caused by bacterium, Yersinia petis

bitten by a rodent flea

A

plague

103
Q

forms of plaque

A

bubonic and pneumonic

104
Q

form of plague in which lymphadenitis develops where flea bite

fever is usually present

A

bubonic

105
Q

form of plague that has extensive involvement of lungs and respiratory outbreaks

A

pneumonic

106
Q

6 methods of controlling plague

A

education
rat proofing
storage and disposal of food and garbage
patient isolation and concurrent disinfection
clothing repellants
case report universally required by WHO and MER

107
Q

vaccination must be met prior to entering a country

method of control: insect repellant, protective clothing, mosquito netting

live virus vaccine
transmitted by Aedes Egypti

single dose over 9 months =immunity last 10+years

only administered at designated clinics

A

Yellow fever

108
Q

when was last naturally occurring case of small pox?

when was it globally eradicated?

A

october 1977 in somalia

1979

109
Q

Systemic viral disease generally presenting with a characteristic skin eruption within 2-4 days
Usually occurred in respiratory tract or skin inoculation

A

Small pox

110
Q

Quarantine Regulations of the Navy instruction

A

OPNAVINST 6210.2

111
Q

Navy Entomology and pest control technology

A

NAVMED P 5010-8

112
Q

Ship Sanitation Certificate Program

A

BUMEDINST 6210.4

113
Q

NAVMED 6210/1,
/2
/3

A
  1. US Navy ship sanitation Control Exemption
  2. notification of 30 day extension
  3. US Declaration of Health Certificate
114
Q

Quarantine requirements for US ports

A

Last 15 days prior to arrival has any passenger:
100*F temp or greater w/ rash, glandular swelling, jaundice or has persisted more than 48hrs
Diarrhea (3+ episodes in 24hrs period
Death due to illness
If 1 or more conditions exist CO must notify higher authority between 12-72 hours prior to entering port

115
Q

list the elements of TB Control Program

A 
TB screening
Preventive Therapy
Tuberculosis Case Identification
TB patient management
Contact investigation
116
Q

Tuberculin Skin Test method

A

Mantoux method

117
Q

what are the tuberculin PPD products? which is preferred

A

Tubersol- preferred

Aplisol

118
Q

bacteria that causes latent and active TB

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

119
Q

illness in which TB bacteria are multiplying and attacking a part of the body, usually the lungs

A

active TB disease

120
Q

TB bacteria are alive but inactive in the body

no symptoms and don’t feels like, cant spread

A

latent TB infection

121
Q

vaccine for TB named after French scientist Calmette and Guerin that is rarely used in US but infants and small children in other countries where TB is common receive it

A

BCG

122
Q

treatment for LATENT TB INFECTION

A

regimen of choice= Isoniazid (INH) and Rifapentine (RPT) weekly oral dose of INH 15mg/kg (900 max) and RPT BASED OFF WEIGHT 10-14kg; 300mg, 14-25kg(450mg), 25-32kg(600mg), 32-49kg (750mg), >50kg (900mg max) for 3 months

or Rifampin (RIF) daily oral 10mg/kg max 600mg for 4 months

or INH and RIF oral daily INH 5mg/kg(300mg max) and RIF 10mg/kg (600mg max) for 3 months

123
Q

when and where should Latent TB screening be documented?

A

PHA and on NAVMED 6224/8

124
Q

* don’t know how to make this a question or wtf it ispg 720**CIVMARS

A

During periodic physical exams

Individuals deemed to be at risk of acquiring TB

125
Q

Additional screening and subsequent testing for TB may be done: as directed by combatant commander

A

Part of contact or outbreak investigation
Clinically indicated
During operational screenings
As recommended by cognizant NEPMU

126
Q

when should a chest x-ray be performed during Tb screening

A

if clinically indicated

rule out active TB or fiberotic changes

127
Q

a positive TST reaction to BCG immunized individuals should be regarded as what?

A

Indicative of TB infection

128
Q 
initial isoniazid (INH) preventative therapy evaluation 
TB high risk classification
A

induration 5mm or greater

  • RECENT CLOSE CONTACT
  • FIBEROTIC OR CHANGES IN CHEST X-RAY CONSISTENT WITH PRIOR TB
  • SUSPECT ACTIVE TB
129
Q 
initial isoniazid (INH) preventative therapy evaluation 
TB medium risk classification
A

10mm induration

IMMIGRATION WITHIN 5 YEARS FROM HIGH TB COUNTRIES
RISK OF OCCUPATIONAL EXPOSURE TO TB
CLINICAL CONDITIONS THAT PLACE AT INCREASED RISK

130
Q 
initial isoniazid (INH) preventative therapy evaluation 
TB Low risk classification
A

15mm or greater induration

NO TB RISK FACTORS

131
Q

How to administer dose for PPD Mantoux method?

A 
0.1 mL intradermal
injection site clean and dry
bevel up, 5-15* angle
pale wheal 6-10mm appears on skin
no wheal administer again
132
Q

when and how to read and where to record PPD?

A

48-72 hours
measure induration in the nearest whole mm at widest diameter
NAVMED 6230/4 or DD form 2766
enter into AHLTA, MRRS or SAMS

133
Q

prior to INH treatment what baseline test must be conducted for liver function?

A

SGOT/SGPT and bilirubin

134
Q

what does SGOT mean

A

Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase

135
Q

what does SGPT mean

A

Serum Glutamic-Pyruvic Transaminase

136
Q

Monthly evaluation for INH therapy must include

A 
Physical assessment (check for active TB)
Adverse drug reaction counseling
When to discontinue meds
When to report meds
Document NAVMED 6224/9
137
Q

What steps should be taken for non-compliance extended doses of INH therapy

A

Consult NEPMU
Direct observation therapy used for patients on INH regimens given twice weekly and those having difficulty w/ treatment adherence

138
Q

Who should people enrolled in contact investigation but separating from service be identified to and follow up with for meds?

A

Id: local public health department for follow-up testing
Meds: VA

139
Q

How to treat ACTIVE TB?

A

Chemotherapy is extremely effective and usually curative
INTENSIVE PHASE: (INH,RIF,EMB) 7d/wk for 56 doses or 5d/wk for 40 doses
CONTINUATION phase: (INH,RIF,EMB) 7d/wk for 126 doses or 5d/wk for 90 doses

140
Q

instruction governing Medical Surveillance and Medical Event Reporting Technical Manual

A

NMCPHC-TM 6220.12 series

141
Q

what are the primary objectives of Medical event reports

A

enables Navy Public Health experts to be aware of:
when important medical events occur
prevent and control actions taken or being considered
potential impact to population
proactive and offer assist to local level medical staff

142
Q

who are medical events and disease reported to

A

cognizant Navy Environmental and Preventive Medicine Unit (NEPMU)

143
Q

urgent and routine MER’s must be submitted within what time frame

A

urgent- 24 hours

routine- 7 calendar days after identification

144
Q

when internet access is available this is mandatory for Medical Event Reporting (MER)

A

Disease Reporting System internet (DRSi)

no internet available routine reports submitted to NEPMU by mail

urgent reports by phone, encrypted email, priority naval message

145
Q

what COMMUNICABLE DISEASES are required to be reported wtihin 24 hours

A 
Smallpox
Hemorrhagic fever
Influenza A, novel
Plague
Poliomyelitis
Botulism
Outbreak or disease cluster
Anthrax
Rabies, human
Diphtheria
Severe acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
Malaria (all)
Measles (Rubeola)
Meningococcal Disease
Tuberculosis, pulmonary
Tularemia
146
Q

a diagnosis, case or medical event becomes reportable once it has been classified as:

A

suspected
probable
confirmed

147
Q

who is required to submit a Medical event report for communicable diseases?

A

Staff responsible for treatment of patient

148
Q

who sets the policy for implementation plans for anthrax vaccine

A

DOD or US Coast Guard

149
Q

Medical Services Immunizations and Chemoprophylaxis instruction

A

BUMEDINST 6230.15

150
Q

anthrax vaccine

dose, route, booster

A

D: 5 shots over 18 MO (0, 4wks, 6MO, 12MO, 18MO, annual booster
R: IM
B: based on if needed for deployment

151
Q

Hepatitis A

Havrix and Vaqta dose, route and consult

A

D: 6mo-18yrs old (0.5mL x2) 19yrs+ (1.0mL x2 @ 0 and 6mo interval)
R: IM (delt)
C: NEPMU for guidance concerning interchangeability

if dose 2 delayed just administer, dont repeat dose 2

152
Q

what population will be administered Hepatitis B

A 
occupational exposure to blood products
all healthcare workers
HM and Dental schoolers
contact with STD
high risk area

SF IDC (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions