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AUBF > PRELIM-INTRO TO URINALYSIS > Flashcards

PRELIM-INTRO TO URINALYSIS Flashcards

1
Q

The kidneys continuously form ___ as an ultrafiltrate of
plasma.

A

urine

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2
Q

HOW MANY ML OF PLASMA DOES KIDNEY FILTERED DAILY?

A

approximately 170,000 mL

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3
Q

out of the 170 000 ml of filtered plasma, how much urine output is being filtered out daily?

A

average daily urine output - 1200 ml

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4
Q

____, a metabolic waste product produced in the liver from
the breakdown of protein and amino acids

A

Urea

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5
Q

where is the urea produced?

A

in the liver

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6
Q

Urea, a metabolic waste product produced in the liver from
the breakdown of __ and ___

A

protein and amino acids

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7
Q

what component serves half of the total dissolved solids in the urine

A

urea

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8
Q

what is themajor inorganic solid dissolved in the urine

A

chloride, followed by the sodium and the potassium

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9
Q

the component we can test if it the specimen is really a urine

A

urea and creatinine

Because both
these substances are present in much higher concentra
tions in urine than in other body fluids, a high urea and
creatinine content can identify a fluid as urine

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10
Q

Primary organic component. Product
of protein and amino acid
metabolism

A

urea

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11
Q

Product of creatine metabolism by
muscles

A

creatinine

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12
Q

Product of nucleic acid breakdown in
food and cells

A

uric acid

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13
Q

Primary inorganic component. Found
in combination with sodium (table
salt) and many other inorganic
substances

A

chloride

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14
Q

Primarily from salt, varies by intake

A

SODIUM

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15
Q

Combined with chloride and other
salts

A

potassium

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16
Q

Combines with sodium to buffer the
blood

A

phosphate

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17
Q

Regulates blood and tissue fluid
acidity

A

ammonium

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18
Q

Combines with chloride, sulfate, and
phosphate

A

calcium

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19
Q

is a urine output of 600 to 2000 ml is still considered normal

A

yes

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20
Q

___, a decrease in urine output

A

Oliguria

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21
Q

values of oliguria in infants, children and adults

A

1 mL/kg/hr in infants
less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr in
children,
less than 400 mL/day in adults)

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22
Q

a cessation of urine flow/output

A

anuria

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23
Q

possible causes of anuria

A

serious damage in the kidney or the decrease in the flow of blood to the kidney

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24
Q

An increase in the nocturnal ex
cretion of urine is termed ___.

A

nocturia

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25
Q

a fluid lost in diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus is compensated by increase water intake known as

A

polydipsia

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26
Q

what is the first symptom of either dm and di

A

Polyuria accompa
nied by increased fluid intake (polydipsia)

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27
Q

the desired temperature for refrigeration

A

2 - 8 * celcius

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28
Q

what is the ideal preservative

A

bactericidal,
inhibit urease
preserve formed elements in the sediment

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29
Q

cause of color darkening

A

Oxidation or reduction of metabolites

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30
Q

cause of turbity in urine

A

Bacterial growth and precipitation of amorphous material

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31
Q

cause of odor turning ammoniacal or foul

A

Bacterial multiplication causing breakdown of urea to ammonia

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32
Q

causes of the increase of the urine’s ph

A

Breakdown of urea to ammonia by urease-producing bacteria/loss
of CO2

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33
Q

other reason why the glucose decreased in unpreservced urine

A

Glycolysis

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34
Q

cause of decrease amount of ketone in unpreserved urine

A

Volatilization and bacterial metabolism

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35
Q

cause of decrease amount of bilirubin in unpreserved urine

A

Exposure to light/photo oxidation to biliverdin

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36
Q

cause of decrease amount of urobilinogen in unpreserved urine

A

Oxidation to urobilin

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37
Q

unpreserved urine: nitrite

A

Multiplication of nitrate-reducing bacteria

converting nitrate to nitrite

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38
Q

unpreserved urine: decrease amount of rbc and wbc cells and casts

A

Disintegration in dilute alkaline urine

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39
Q

decrease amount of trichomonas in unpreserved urine

A

loss of motility and death

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40
Q

Specimens must be returned to room
temperature before chemical testing by reagent strips
because the enzyme reactions on the strips perform best
at room temperature.

true or false

A

true

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41
Q

When preserving samples that will be
transported to another laboratory, be sure to check with
that laboratory concerning the appropriate preservative.

true or false

A

true

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42
Q

This is the most commonly received specimen because of
its ease of collection and convenience for the patient.

A

random specimen

43
Q

The ___ is useful for routine screening tests to detect obvious abnormalities

A

random specimen

44
Q

. It is also essential for preventing false-negative pregnancy tests

A

first morning urine specimen

45
Q

urine specimen for evaluating orthostatic proteinuria

A

first morning specimen

46
Q

The ____ is a concentrated specimen, thereby assuring detection of chemicals and formed elements that may not be
present in a dilute random specimen.

A

first morning specimen

47
Q
  • The ideal screening specimen
A

first morning specimen

48
Q

also known as 8hour specimen

A

first morning specimen

49
Q

The second voided specimen after a period of fasting.

A

fasting specimen (second morning)

50
Q

*This specimen will not contain any metabolites from food ingested before the
beginning of the fasting period.

A

fasting specimen (second morning)

51
Q

urine specimen Recommended for glucose monitoring

A

fasting specimen

52
Q

The patient is instructed to void shortly before consuming a routine meal and
to collect a specimen 2 hours after eating.

A

2 hour- Postprandial specimen

53
Q
  • Specimen is tested for glucose
  • Results are used primarily for insulin therapy monitoring
A

2 hour- Postprandial specimen

54
Q

*Collected correspond with blood samples drawn during glucose tolerance test (GTT)

A

GLUCOSE TOLERANCE SPECIMEN

55
Q

*Urine is tested for glucose and ketones
The number of specimens
varies with the length of the test

A

glucose tolerance specimens

56
Q

Specimen used for urine quantitative
assay.

A

24 hour (timed) specimen

57
Q

The patient must begin and end the
collection period with empty bladder.

A

24 hour (timed) specimen

58
Q

The most common error encountered
in 24 hour (timed) specimen is related to ___

A

improperly timed specimen collection

59
Q
  • Less traumatic method for obtaining urine
A

midstream clean catch specimen

60
Q

for bacterial culture and routine urinalysis.

A

Midstream “clean catch” specimen

61
Q

Used to avoid contamination (ex. Vaginal discharge)

A

Midstream “clean catch” specimen

62
Q

a urine specimen which there’s an insertion of a sterile catheter
through urethra into the bladder.

A

Catheterized specimen

63
Q

a urine specimen wherein the Urine flows directly from the
bladder through the indwelling
catheter and accumulates in a
plastic reservoir bag

A

Catheterized specimen

64
Q
  • Most often these specimen are sent
    for bacterial culture.
A

Catheterized specimen

65
Q

Involves collecting urine directly
from the bladder by puncturing
the abdominal wall and
distended bladder using needle
and syringe.

A

Suprapubic aspiration specimen

66
Q

provides a sample for bacterial
culture that is completely free of
extraneous contamination.

A

Suprapubic aspiration specimen

67
Q

The specimen can also be used
for cytologic examination.

A

Suprapubic aspiration specimen

68
Q

Commercially available plastic urine collection bags with
hypoallergenic skin adhesive are used.

A

PEDIATRIC COLLECTION

69
Q

The bag is placed over the penis in the male and around the
vagina (exluding the anus) in the female, and the adhesive is
firmly attached to the perineum.

A

PEDIATRIC COLLECTION

70
Q

Also known as “three glass collection”

A

PROSTATITIS SPECIMEN

71
Q

how many container does PROSTATITIS SPECIMEN need

A

4 containeri

72
Q

indicate the containers for PROSTATITIS SPECIMEN and their uses

A

–1st container -> Urethral infection or inflammation
–2nd container -> urinary bladder infection
–3rd and 4th container -> Prostatic infection
* (+ WBC and 10x bacteria compared to 1st container)

73
Q

provides this documentation of proper sample identification
from the time of collection to the receipt of laboratory results

A
  • Chain of custody
74
Q

is a standardized form that must document and
accompany every step of drug testing

A

chain of custody

75
Q

urine required amount for drug testing

A

30-45 ml

76
Q

advantage of refrigeration

A
  • Acceptable for
    routine U/A for 24
    hours
  • Acceptable for urine
    culture; inhibits
    bacterial growth for
    24 hours
  • INEXPENSIVE
77
Q

disadvantage of refrigeration

A
  • Precipitates
    amorphous and/ or
    crystalline solutes
  • Increases Specific
    gravity
78
Q

use of refrigeration

A

serves as a Storage before and
after testing

79
Q

advantage of thymol as a preservative

A
  • Preserves glucose
    & sediment
    elements (cast &
    cell)
  • Inhibits bacterial
    and yeast growth
80
Q

disadvanatge of thymol as a preservative

A

Interferes with acid
precipitation test for
protein

81
Q

use of thymol as a preservative

A

sediment preservation

82
Q

advantage of formalin as a preservative

A
  • Excellent cellular
    preservative
83
Q

disadvantage of formalin

A
  • Act as reducing
    agent, interfere with
    urine chemical test
    (glucose, blood,
    leukocyte esterase
    & copper reduction)
84
Q

use of formalin

A

for cytology

85
Q

advantage of sarccomano fixative

A
  • Preserves cellular
    elements
86
Q

disadvabatge of sarccomano fixative

A

potential chemical hazard

87
Q

use of sarccomano fixative

A

for cytology

88
Q

advatage of concentrated hcl

A

A good preservative
for drug analyses

89
Q

disadvatage of concentrated hcl

A

Unacceptable for
urinalysis testing

90
Q

use of concentrated hcl

A

For quantitative
analysis

91
Q

advatage of boric acid

A
  • Preserves protein
  • Does not interfere
    with routine
    analyses except pH
92
Q

disadvatage of boric acid

A
  • Interferes pH
    determination
93
Q

advatange of sodium carbonate

A
  • Inexpensive
  • Stabilizes
    porphyrins,
    porphobilinogen
94
Q

disadvanateg of sodium carbonate

A
  • Unacceptable for
    urinalysis testing
95
Q

use of sodium carbonate

A

Quantitative analysis
of porphyrins,
porphobilinogen

96
Q

advanatage of sodium fluoride

A
  • Prevents glycolysis
97
Q

disadvanatge of sodium flouride

A
  • Inhibits reagent
    strip tests for
    glucose, blood, and
    leukocytesad
98
Q

advantage of toluene

A

Does not
interfere with
routine tests

99
Q

disadvantage of toluene

A
  • Floats on
    surface of
    specimen and
    clings to pipettes
100
Q

advanatge of phenol

A

Does not
interfere with
routine tests

101
Q

disadvatange of phenol

A

Causes an odor
change

102
Q

urine temperature for drug testing

A

32.5 37.7 and measured within 4 minutes

103
Q

a type of nephron that is Approximately 85%
» Responsible for removal of waste
products & reabsorption

A

Cortical nephron

104
Q

a type nephron that is Primary function is concentration of the
urine

A

Juxtamedullary nephron (15%)

AUBF (28 decks)

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