Practice Test 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following assessments would be MOST appropriate for gathering baseline data to help improve the cardiorespiratory exercise program design for a new client who currently runs recreationally for 20 to 35 minutes, three to four days per week?

A

Submaximal talk test for VT1

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2
Q

Which response would be MOST appropriate for a client who arrives at a personal-training session wearing flip-flops and loose clothing?

A

Tell the client that the training session will have to be rescheduled

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3
Q

Which of the following scenarios qualifies as a serious HIPAA Violation?

A

The trainer stores files behind the front desk for easy access.

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4
Q

You begin working with a new client who prefers to train outdoors. She wants to begin running, so you locate a local trail where you are legally able to train with her. What is the BEST precaution to take when venturing out on this new trail with her for the first time?

A

Encourage the client to walk the trail the first time to learn the terrain and begin building fitness for running

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5
Q

Progressing to a three-zone cardiorespiratory training program with intensities performed below VT1, from VT1 to just below VT2, and at VT2 and above would be warranted for which of the following clients?

A

53-year-old female runner who runs 4–6 days per week and wants to qualify for the Boston Marathon

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6
Q

A personal trainer appropriately progresses a client’s workout to include barbell squats to increase the intensity of her leg workouts. The trainer spots her correctly as she completes the first two sets with ease. During the third set, the trainer is distracted by a fellow trainer who enters the weight room. During this distraction, the client loses balance momentarily, and has to drop the weight behind her. She immediately complains of back spasms. In this situation, for which act is the trainer MOST liable?

A

Negligence resulting from an act of omission

P 649

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7
Q

Your client has hit a plateau in her workouts. Upon further review of her exercise records, you notice that she has been averaging only two workouts per week over the last four weeks. What would be the MOST appropriate course of action to help address her workout plateau?

A

Increase the frequency of training to three times per week

Why?

This is the best recommendation, as it will bring her up to the minimum recommended frequency for weekly physical activity. This should help her to see new gains in fitness. In any situations where a personal trainer is adding another day or extra time to a client’s workout schedule, he or she should confirm with the client that the additional training volume fits in with the rest of that client’s commitments.

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8
Q

What are the three sites to measure when conducting a body-composition assessment using the Jackson and Pollock three-site skinfold equation for women?

A

Triceps, thigh, suprailium

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9
Q

Which of the following would be WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

A

Explaining foods and meal-preparation methods that a client can select at home and at restaurants to decrease saturated fat intake

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10
Q

A 58-year-old client you have been working with for several months tells you that she just completed a bone mineral density (BMD) scan and was diagnosed with osteopenia. Her physician has given her a medical release to exercise as tolerated to improve bone density and general fitness. Her exercise program currently consists of swimming (30 minutes; 3 days per week), walking (30 minutes; 2 days per week), and resistance training (2 sets of 12–15 repetitions performed 2 days per week for all major muscle groups). Which program modification would be MOST important to implement at this time?

A

Modify resistance training to include two sets of each exercise with a weight that fatigues the muscles in approximately eight repetitions

Why?

This response is correct, as resistance training can create stress on the bone that will cause bone density to be preserved and possibly enhanced. To facilitate optimal bone changes, a higher load is recommended that will fatigue the muscles in approximately eight repetitions. This will stimulate the greatest response in terms of bone density changes.

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11
Q

A client has progressed from performing eight squat repetitions with 300 pounds to performing 12 repetitions with that same weight. Using a double-progressive training protocol, what would be the MOST appropriate weight to progress him to during his next workout where he performs weighted squats?

A

315

5% increase

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12
Q

A client has achieved his initial goal of running a 10K (6.2 miles) in 50 minutes but would like to improve his time. His program consists of 30–50 minute runs, three to four times per week. What modification would be MOST effective in helping this client achieve his new goal?

A

Incorporate a running interval-training program

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13
Q

Which of the following exercises would be MOST appropriate to include in a client’s initial exercise program if he has postural issues due to a lack of range of motion (ROM) in hip extension?

A

Half-kneeling triplanar stretch

Why?

A lack of ROM in hip extension is generally due to tight hip flexors. The half-kneeling triplanar stretch of the hip flexors improves mobility in all three planes without compromising lumbar stability.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 284-285

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14
Q

Which of the following produces a stretch reflex when stimulated?

A

Muscle spindles

Why?

This response is correct, as the stretch reflex is associated with the activation of the muscle spindle. When a muscle is stretched quickly, the muscle spindles in the stretched muscle are activated and initiate a reflex arc that causes the stretched muscle to produce a sudden contraction.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 24–25

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15
Q

During a reassessment of the hurdle step screen, you notice the client exhibiting anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean. Based on this information, his program should include exercises to STRENGTHEN which of the following groups of muscles?

A

Rectus abdominis and hip extensors

Why?

This response is correct, as an anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean during the hurdle step screen is indicative of weakness in the rectus abdominis and the hip extensors (gluteus maximus and hamstrings).

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 172

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16
Q

Reducing exercise intensity is recommended in which of the following situations?

A

Following a 2-week period of complete rest

Why?

This response is correct, as extended periods of inactivity can lead to a loss of fitness and muscle atrophy.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 85-89 & page 234 – 235

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 343

Check humidity, and altitide levels for exercise

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17
Q

What is the BEST strategy to prevent delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) when working with a new client?

A

Progress resistance training from low-intensity to moderate-intensity over the first five to 10 training sessions

Why?

DOMS is most associated with eccentric actions, especially during higher-intensity exercises (e.g., deadlifts). As such, the initial exercise program should focus on low- to moderate-intensity exercises that gradually increase to allow the client’s muscles time to adapt to the increased loads associated with resistance training.

18
Q

Review DASH eating plan

A

P. 187

19
Q

A client comes to you after a physician’s appointment where she was diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Which exercise should be considered CONTRAINDICATED when designing a program for this client?

A

Push-ups

Why?

This exercise is contraindicated for clients who have carpal tunnel syndrome, as push-ups put the wrists into a position of full extension, which can compress the carpal tunnels.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 582-583

20
Q

The wife of a client training under your supervision calls to request progress information for her husband so that she can evaluate the cost-effectiveness of the program. Your client has been doing well and states that he enjoys working with you. What is the BEST response?

A

Politely decline to discuss her husband’s progress and suggest that she communicate directly with him.

Why?

This response is correct, even though the trainer may feel uncomfortable saying this to the client’s wife. ACE-certified professional should keep all client information and data confidential, unless the client has expressed permission via written consent to present information to another party, such as a medical doctor. This protection of confidentiality extends to everyone, including spouses and family members. Any breach of confidentiality can erode the trust a client has for the personal trainer.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 714-715

21
Q

After working with a new client for several sessions, you note that she is very focused on her weight, and you are growing concerned that she has an eating disorder due to stories she tells you about binge eating, excessive exercise following binges, and jokes about “purging.” Which of the following steps would be MOST appropriate for an ACE-certified Personal Trainer to take with this client?

A

Express your concern that she may have an eating disorder, and recommend that she meet with a physician or registered dietitian for evaluation and guidance.

Why?

This response is correct. It conveys the personal trainer’s concern about the potential eating disorder and provides a recommendation for the client to meet with either a physician or registered dietitian to see if further evaluation and/or guidance is warranted.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 190–191

22
Q

Bone loss that results from long periods of inactivity is BEST explained by which of the following laws?

A

Wolffs Law P. 13

23
Q

Which of the following suggestions meets American Dietetic Association (ADA) guidelines regarding nutrition for people performing extended bouts of cardiorespiratory exercise?

A

Try to consume 30 to 60 grams of easily digestible carbohydrates every hour during training sessions lasting more than 60 minutes.

Why?

This response is correct for carbohydrate consumption during each hour of extended cardiorespiratory training bouts to maintain blood glucose levels. It is also the recommendation for exercise in extreme environmental conditions like heat, cold, or high altitude, or when a client did not consume adequate amounts of food or drink prior to the training session.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 177

24
Q

Your client is struggling to lose the last 10 pounds (4.5 kg) to reach her goal weight. She is thinking about taking a popular supplement that she has seen on television. What is the BEST response for a personal trainer to provide to this client?

A

“I can help you research potential negative side effects from the supplement, but for more specific information you should talk with a registered dietitian. “

25
Q

Distributing photocopies of articles found in popular fitness magazines without prior consent from the publisher would MOST likely put a personal trainer at risk for violation of which law?

A

Copyright Law

P667

26
Q

What type of insurance would protect a facility in the event it was sued by a member who tripped over an elliptical machine and strained his lower back?

A

General liability

Why?

This response is correct. General liability insurance covers facility-related personal injuries, such as slips, trips, and falls.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 664

27
Q

What is the PRIMARY goal of adding the hip-hinge exercise to a client’s program when progressing her from a program focused on postural stability to one focused on training movement patterns?

A

Emphasizing “glute dominance” over “quad dominance”

P. 307

28
Q

Which exercise is CONTRAINDICATED for a client with a history of shoulder impingement syndrome?

A

Overhead barbell press in the frontal plane

Why?

This response is correct, as individuals with shoulder injuries, or undergoing post-rehabilitation from shoulder injuries, should modify overhead activities. For example, the overhead press can be modified to use dumbbells with the arms moving in the scapular plane without fully extending the elbows. This takes the shoulder out of the abducted and externally rotated position seen during the overhead barbell press in the frontal plane.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 377 & 579-580

29
Q

Which of the following guidelines would be MOST effective for a resistance-training program designed to increase muscular strength?

A

Sets of 4–6 repetitions at 80–90% 1 RM with 2–5 minute rest intervals

30
Q

Your client would like to lose 30 lb (13.6kg) over the next 20 weeks. She has decided to reduce her daily caloric intake by 450 kcal. In addition to this change, what is the MINIMUM number of kcal she would need to expend through physical activity each day to reach her goal?

A

300 kcal

Why?

To lose 1 pound of fat a caloric deficit of 3500 kcal is required.

30 lb x 3,500 kcal/lb = 105,000 kcal

105,000 kcal / 20 weeks = 5,250 kcal per week deficit

5,250 kcal/week / 7 days/week = 750 kcal deficit required per day.

750 kcal – 450 kcal = 300 kcal.

Therefor the client would need to expend 300 kcal per day through physical activity.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174

31
Q

Which of the following would be CONTRAINDICATED for a client who has low-back pain and a physician’s release to exercise as tolerated?

A

Performing full-ROM low-back exercises first thing in the morning when the body is well rested

Why?

This response is correct, as performing full-range spinal motion while under load shortly after rising is not recommended. This is due to the diurnal variation in the fluid level of the intervertebral discs that results in the discs being more hydrated in the morning after rising from bed. When the discs are more hydrated, they are less pliable. This becomes important when going through a full-range spinal motion, such as standing spinal flexion, where the anterior sides of the vertebrae come closer together and compress the anterior portion of the discs. This forces the fluid toward the posterior wall of the disc. The more the discs are hydrated, the more fluid that gets forced against the posterior wall of the disc. If the posterior wall is weak, this creates an increased risk for bulges in the wall of the disc.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 548-551

32
Q

A new client you are working with has medical clearance to exercise and is currently taking diuretic medication for hypertension. Which of the following recommendations is MOST appropriate?

A

Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise

33
Q

An 18-year-old client is starting an exercise program to increase strength for the upcoming high school football season. He currently weighs 200 lb (91 kg) and wants to know if the protein bar he consumes twice daily is sufficient for his protein intake. Based on the following information, what is your BEST response?

A

Explain that 1.2 to 1.7 g of protein is recommended per kilogram of body weight for strength-trained athletes, and that it is best if this protein comes from a healthful diet

34
Q

Which muscles would be MOST important to stretch if a client has limited range of motion (ROM) in shoulder internal rotation?

A

Teres minor and infraspinatus

Why?

Limited ROM in shoulder internal rotation is generally due to tightness in the muscles that externally rotate the shoulder, as these muscles must be lengthened to allow the shoulder to internally rotate. The teres minor and infraspinatus are two primary external rotators of the shoulder joint and would be important to stretch in a client who is limited in internal shoulder rotation.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 183-184

35
Q

According to the Institute of Medicine’s (IOM) 2005 Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI), what are the recommendations for percentage of calories consumed from carbohydrates, protein, and fat for active adults?

A

45–65% carbohydrates, 10–35% protein, and 20–35% fat

P .176

36
Q

You are conducting a hurdle step screen with a new client. As she lifts her left foot over the hurdle, you observe that her right hip adducts more than 2 inches. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of this movement?

A

Weak right gluteus medius and maximus

Why?

This response is correct, as weakness in the right gluteus medius and maximus would result in the pelvis dropping to the left when lifting the left leg. This is due to the right gluteus medius and maximus being unable to hold the pelvis level when standing on the right leg.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 171-173

37
Q

During the Thomas test, you observe that the back of the client’s thigh touches the table but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What is the MOST likely cause?

A

Tightness in the rectus femoris

Why?

This is the correct response. When the rectus femoris is tight, it will prevent the knee from flexing. In situations where the hip flexors have adequate length, this will result in a Thomas test where the client can touch the back of his or her thigh to the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 179-180

38
Q

During a postural screening with a new client, you observe that he has a forward-head position from spending many hours at the computer. Which of the following is MOST associated with this postural deviation?

A

Tight cervical spine extensors

Why?

This is the correct response, as tight cervical spine extensors result from many hours spent in a position with the neck projected forward and head tilted backward, as is seen in many individuals when sitting at the computer. With forward-head position, the head must be tilted posteriorly with the neck extended for the individual to look forward vs. looking down. This can result in, or be caused by, tight cervical spine extensors.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 162-163

39
Q

Which exercise would be the MOST appropriate progression for a client who can perform two sets of 12 repetitions of the seated bilateral cable press exercise with good form?

A

Standing bilateral cable press

Why?

This is the correct response. Once a client can successfully perform the desired number of sets and repetitions, as set by the personal trainer, with good form on the seated bilateral cable press exercise, the next appropriate progression would be to perform the same exercise in a standing position. This advances the challenge by requiring balance and full-body bracing to prevent movement of the legs and torso, while still providing a chest press challenge for the upper-body muscles that produce this pushing motion.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 315

40
Q

Which of the following observations during the bend and lift screen would indicate that a client has excessive tightness in the plantarflexors?

A

Unable to keep the heels in contact with the floor

41
Q

Which of the following is the BEST example of an undulating periodization program?

A

Full-body resistance-training program consisting of 3 sets of 4–8 repetitions at 80–90% 1 RM on Monday, 3 sets of 12–16 repetitions at 60–70% 1 RM on Wednesday, and 3 sets of 8–12 repetitions at 70–80% 1 RM on Friday

Why?

This is the correct response. Undulating periodization models provide different training protocols during each 2–4 week microcycle. This program changes focus each workout, with the primary focus on muscular strength on Monday, muscular endurance on Wednesday, and muscular hypertrophy on Friday.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 344-346